Infectious disease 2 Flashcards

1
Q

PRimary TB symptoms?

A

Asymptomatic primary infection
primary infection with TB may be asymptomatic

Symptomatic primary infection
fever
pleuritic or retrosternal pain
pleuritic pain may be secondary to a pleural effusion
retrosternal pain may be secondary to enlarged bronchial lymph nodes

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2
Q

Secondary TB symptoms?

A

cough
gradually becoming productive
haemoptysis is only seen in a minority
weight loss
fatigue
night sweats
fever: typically low-grade

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3
Q

Complications of TB?

A

Tuberculous adrenalitis is a well-described complication, usually resulting from the haematogenous spread of bacilli from other sites. Untreated, it causes progressive destruction of the adrenal glands leading to hypoadrenalism.

Pulmonary tuberculosis: Persistent coughing, chest pain, and haemoptysis are common symptoms. Complications include bronchiectasis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), lung abscesses, and pneumothorax.

Miliary tuberculosis: This disseminated form can affect multiple organs including the liver, spleen, bone marrow and meninges causing hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia or meningitis respectively.

Tuberculous meningitis: A severe form of TB that predominantly affects children. Symptoms may include headache, fever, vomiting and altered mental status. It may lead to hydrocephalus or brain infarcts due to inflammation of cerebral vasculature.

Skeletal tuberculosis: Also known as Pott’s disease when it involves the spine. It can cause vertebral collapse leading to kyphosis or paraplegia due to spinal cord compression.

Genitourinary tuberculosis: Can result in renal impairment or infertility.

Gastrointestinal tuberculosis: May present with abdominal pain and bowel obstruction secondary to strictures.

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4
Q

What should be given in a pre-hospital setting if meningitis suspected?

A

IM ben pen
as long as it does not delay transfer

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5
Q

What are warning signs of bacterial meningitis?

A

rapidly progressive rash
poor peripheral perfusion
respiratory rate < 8 or > 30 / min or pulse rate < 40 or > 140 / min
pH < 7.3 or WBC< 4 *109/L or lactate > 4 mmol/L
GCS < 12 or a drop of 2 points
poor response to fluid resuscitation

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6
Q

When should LP be delayed in suspected bacterial meningitis?

A

signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash
severe respiratory/cardiac compromise
significant bleeding risk
signs of raised intracranial pressure
focal neurological signs
papilloedema
continuous or uncontrolled seizures
GCS ≤ 12

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7
Q

Managament of bacteral meningitis?

A

LP (if this can not be done within the first hour - abx should be given after blood cultureshave been taken)

IV antibiotics
3 months - 50 years: BNF recommends cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)
> 50 years: BNF recommends cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) + amoxicillin (or ampicillin) for adults

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8
Q

When should IV dexamethasone be given in suspected bacterial meningnits?

A

the BNF recommend to ‘consider adjunctive treatment with dexamethasone (particularly if pneumococcal meningitis suspected in adults), preferably starting before or with first dose of antibacterial, but no later than 12 hours after starting antibacterial; avoid dexamethasone in septic shock, meningococcal septicaemia, or if immunocompromised, or in meningitis following surgery’

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9
Q

How to manage patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and signs of raised ICP?

A

get critical care input
secure airway + high-flow oxygen
IV access → take bloods and blood cultures
IV dexamethasone
IV antibiotics as above
arrange neuroimaging

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10
Q

What should CSF be tested for in suspected meningitis?

A

glucose, protein, microscopy and culture
lactate
meningococcal and pneumococcal PCR
enteroviral, herpes simplex and varicella-zoster PCR
consider investigations for TB meningitis

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11
Q

what type of virus is hep c?

A

RNA flavivirus

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12
Q

What is the incubation period of hep c?

A

6-9 weeks

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13
Q

How is hep c transmitted?

A

the risk of transmission during a needle stick injury is about 2%
the vertical transmission rate from mother to child is about 6%. The risk is higher if there is coexistent HIV
breastfeeding is not contraindicated in mothers with hepatitis C
the risk of transmitting the virus during sexual intercourse is probably less than 5%
there is no vaccine for hepatitis C

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14
Q

Symptoms of hep c?

A

After exposure to the hepatitis C virus only around 30% of patients will develop features such as:
a transient rise in serum aminotransferases / jaundice
fatigue
arthralgia

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15
Q

Investigations for Hep c?

A

HCV RNA is the investigation of choice to diagnose acute infection
whilst patients will eventually develop anti-HCV antibodies it should be remembered that patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies

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16
Q

How many patient who have hep c develop chronic infection?

A

around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection (depending on their age and underlying health) and hence the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C

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17
Q

what is chronic hep c defined as ?

A

Chronic hepatitis C may be defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months.

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18
Q

Complications of hep c ?

A

rheumatological problems: arthralgia, arthritis
eye problems: Sjogren’s syndrome
cirrhosis (5-20% of those with chronic disease)
hepatocellular cancer
cryoglobulinaemia: typically type II (mixed monoclonal and polyclonal)
porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT): it is increasingly recognised that PCT may develop in patients with hepatitis C, especially if there are other factors such as alcohol abuse
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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19
Q

management of chronic hep c?

A

reatment depends on the viral genotype - this should be tested prior to treatment
the management of hepatitis C has advanced rapidly in recent years resulting in clearance rates of around 95%. Interferon based treatments are no longer recommended
the aim of treatment is sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy
currently a combination of protease inhibitors (e.g. daclatasvir + sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir + simeprevir) with or without ribavirin are used

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20
Q

What does clostridium tetani lead to?

A

It is a neurotoxin (tetanospasmin)
Blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine resulting in continuous motor neuron activity → continuous muscle contraction → lockjaw and respiratory paralysis

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21
Q

what are exotoxins and endotoxins?

A

Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria where as endotoxins are only released following lysis of the cell. Exotoxins are generally released by Gram positive bacteria with the notable exceptions of Vibrio cholerae and some strains of E. coli

Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria such as Neisseria meningitidis.

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22
Q

How are extoxins classified

A

pyrogenic toxins
enterotoxins
neurotoxins
tissue invasive toxins
miscellaneous toxins

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23
Q

what are pyrogenic toxins?

A

Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of endogenous cytokines resulting in fever, rash etc. They are superantigens which bridge the MHC class II protein on antigen-presenting cells with the T cell receptor on the surface of T cells resulting in massive cytokine release.

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24
Q

What are examples of pyrogenic toxins

A
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25
what are enterotoxins?
Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract causing one of two patterns of illness: diarrhoeal illness vomiting illness ('food poisoning')
26
Examples of enterotoxins?
27
what are neurotoxins?
Neurotoxins act on the nerves (tetanus) or the neuromuscular junction (botulism) causing paralysis.
28
Examples of neurotoxins?
29
Examples of tissue invesive toxins?
30
What does the diptheria toxin lead to ?
ADP ribosylates elogation factor (EF-2), resulting in inhibition, causing a 'diphtheric membrane' on tonsils caused by necrotic mucosal cells. Systemic distribution may produce necrosis of myocardial, neural and renal tissue
31
What factors will reduce the vertical transmission of HIV?
Factors which reduce vertical transmission (from 25-30% to 2%) maternal antiretroviral therapy mode of delivery (caesarean section) neonatal antiretroviral therapy infant feeding (bottle feeding)
32
mode of delivery in HIV +ve patients?
vaginal delivery is recommended if viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks, otherwise caesarian section is recommended a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the caesarean section
33
Neonatal antiretroviral therapy?
zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if maternal viral load is <50 copies/ml. Otherwise triple ART should be used. Therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
34
Breast feeding iin HIV +ve mothers?
in the UK all women should be advised not to breast feed
35
Anti-malarials used and their side effects?
36
Anti-malarials in pregnancy?
chloroquine can be taken proguanil: folate supplementation (5mg od) should be given Malarone (atovaquone + proguanil): the BNF advises to avoid these drugs unless essential. If taken then folate supplementation should be given mefloquine: caution advised doxycycline is contraindicated
37
Causes of gastroenteritis?
The most common cause is E.coli Giardiasis Cholera Shigella S.aureus campylobacter Bacillus cereus Amobiasis ## Footnote Incubation period 1-6 hrs: Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus* 12-48 hrs: Salmonella, Escherichia coli 48-72 hrs: Shigella, Campylobacter > 7 days: Giardiasis, Amoebiasis
38
Meningitis CSF analysis for bacterial, viral, TB and fungal?
39
Basic facts about staphylococci?
Gram-positive cocci facultative anaerobes produce catalase
40
What are the two main types of Staphylococcus?
S.Aureus * Coagulase-positive * Causes skin infections (e.g. cellulitis), abscesses, osteomyelitis, toxic shock syndrome S.epidermidis * Coagulase-negative * Cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis
41
what are Rickettsiae?
Rickettsiae are Gram-negative obligate intracellular parasites. Types of rickettsiae cause a variety of diseases that are typically characterised by fever, headache and rash. A notable exception is Q fever (cause by Coxiella burnetti which causes pneumonia but no rash. The Weil-Felix reaction is positive except in Q fever. Rickettsial diseases are all treated with tetracyclines.
42
What causes rocky mountain spotted fever?
Rickettsia ricketsii Ticks carru the disease ## Footnote Headache and fever are common Rash starts on the peripheries (wrist, ankles) before spreading centrally. It is initially maculopapular before becoming vasculitic Endemic to east coast of US
43
What causes Q fever?
Coxiella burnetti ## Footnote No rash but causes pneumonia
44
what causes endemic typhus?
Rickettsia typhi -Carried by Flaes ## Footnote Rash starts centrally then spreads to the peripheries
45
What causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii - caused by human body louce
46
what causes diptheria?
Diphtheria is caused by the Gram positive bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae Pathophysiology releases an exotoxin encoded by a β-prophage exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2 ## Footnote Diphtheria toxin commonly causes a 'diphtheric membrane' on tonsils caused by necrotic mucosal cells. Systemic distribution may produce necrosis of myocardial, neural and renal tissue
47
Possible presentations of diptheria?
Possible presentations recent visitors to Eastern Europe/Russia/Asia sore throat with a 'diphtheric membrane' - grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall bulky cervical lymphadenopathy may result in a 'bull neck' appearanace neuritis e.g. cranial nerves heart block
48
Investigations for diptheria?
Investigations culture of throat swab: uses tellurite agar or Loeffler's media
49
Management for Diptheria?
intramuscular penicillin diphtheria antitoxin
50
Identfiying gram positive bacteria?
Gram-positive bacteria will turn purple/blue following the gram staining. Microscopy will then reveal the shape, either cocci or rods.
51
Examples of gram positive rods?
Rods (bacilli) Actinomyces Bacillus antracis Clostridium Corynebacterium diphtheriae Listeria monocytogenes
52
How to distiguish between gram positive cocci?
Cocci makes catalase: Staphylococci does not make catalase: Streptococci Staphylococci makes coagulase: S. aureus does not make coagulase: S. epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive), S. saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant) Streptococci partial haemolysis (green colour on blood agar): α-haemolytic complete haemolysis (clear): β-haemolytic no haemolysis: γ-haemolytic α-haemolytic streptococci optochin sensitive: S. pneumoniae optochin resistant: Viridans streptococci β-haemolytic streptococci bacitracin sensitive: Group A: S. pyogenes bacitracin resistant: Group B: S. agalactiae
53
Causes of viral meningitis?
The most common causes of viral meningitis in adults are enteroviruses non-polio enteroviruses e.g. coxsackie virus, echovirus mumps herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes zoster viruses HIV measles
54
Risk factors for viral meningitis?
patients at the extremes of age (< 5 years and the elderly) immunocompromised, e.g. patients with renal failure, with diabetes intravenous drug users
55
How does viral meningitis present?
common features headache evidence of neck stiffness photophobia (often milder than the photophobia experienced by a patient with bacterial meningitis) confusion fevers less common features focal neurological deficits on examination seizures: suggests a meningoencephalitis
56
Management of viral meningitis?
whilst awaiting the results of the lumbar puncture, treatment should be supportive and if there is any question of bacterial meningitis or of encephalitis, the patient should be commenced on broad-spectrum antibiotics with CNS penetration e.g. ceftriaxone and aciclovir intravenously. This is particularly the case if the patient has risk factors e.g. elderly, immunocompromised generally speaking, viral meningitis is self-limiting, with symptoms improving over the course of 7 - 14 days and complications are rare in immunocompetent patients aciclovir may be used if the patient is suspected of having meningitis secondary to HSV
57
what causes Kaposi's sarcome?
caused by HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8)
58
how does Kaposi's sarcoma present?
presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa (e.g. gastrointestinal and respiratory tract) skin lesions may later ulcerate respiratory involvement may cause massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion
59
managment of kaposi's sarcoma?
Radiotherapy and resection
60
What can cause a false positive non-treponemal (cardiolipin) test?
pregnancy SLE, anti-phospholipid syndrome tuberculosis leprosy malaria HIV
61
Post exposure prophylaxsis for Hep A
Human Normal Immunoglobulin (HNIG) or hepatitis A vaccine may be used depending on the clinical situation
62
Post exposure prophylaxsis for hep B?
HBsAg positive source if the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine then a booster dose should be given if they are a non-responder (anti-HBs < 10mIU/ml 1-2 months post-immunisation) they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine unknown source for known responders the HBV vaccine the Green Book advises considering a booster dose of HBV vaccine for known non-responders HBIG + vaccine should be given whilst those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of HBV vaccine
63
Post exposure prophylaxsis for hep c ?
monthly PCR - if seroconversion then interferon +/- ribavirin
64
Post exposure prophylaxsis for HIV?
a combination of oral antiretrovirals (e.g. Tenofovir, emtricitabine, lopinavir and ritonavir) as soon as possible (i.e. Within 1-2 hours, but may be started up to 72 hours following exposure) for 4 weeks serological testing at 12 weeks following completion of post-exposure prophylaxis reduces risk of transmission by 80%
65
Post exposure prophylaxsis for varicella zoster?
VZIG for IgG negative pregnant women/immunosuppressed
66
Features of Legionella?
flu-like symptoms including fever (present in > 95% of patients) dry cough relative bradycardia confusion lymphopaenia hyponatraemia deranged liver function tests pleural effusion: seen in around 30% of patients
67
Investigations in legionella?
diagnositic test of choice:urinary antigen chest x-ray findings are non-specific but may include: a mid-to-lower zone predominance of patchy consolidation pleural effusions in around 30%
68
Management of Legionella?
treat with erythromycin/clarithromycin
69
who does klebsiella pneurmoniae typically effect?
It typically affects alcohol-dependent individuals and those with diabetes mellitus, presenting with red currant jelly sputum and upper lobe consolidation on chest radiographs.
70
How does mycoplasma pneumoniae usually present?
characterised by dry cough and flu-like symptoms, it predominantly affects younger patients. Further although it typically also causes consolidation that would appear bilaterally on a chest X-ray, it often involves only involves the lower zones. Some patients may also experience complications such as erythema multiforme, pericarditis or myocarditis, gastrointestinal symptoms, or bullous myringitis.
71
Aetiology of Dengue fever?
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can progress to viral haemorrhagic fever (other examples include yellow fever, Lassa fever, Ebola). Aetiology dengue virus is a RNA virus of the genus Flavivirus transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito incubation period of 7 days
72
how may Dengue fever be classified?
dengue fever: without warning signs with warning signs severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever)
73
Symptoms of Dengue fever?
fever headache (often retro-orbital) myalgia, bone pain and arthralgia ('break-bone fever') pleuritic pain facial flushing (dengue) maculopapular rash haemorrhagic manifestations e.g. positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, epistaxis 'warning signs' include: abdominal pain hepatomegaly persistent vomiting clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion)
74
Symptoms of Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever)?
this is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) resulting in: thrombocytopenia spontaneous bleeding around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS)
75
How is Dengue fever diagnosed?
typically blood results leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, raised aminotransferases diagnostic tests serology nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA NS1 antigen test
76
Treatment of Dengue fever?
entirely symptomatic e.g. fluid resuscitation, blood transfusion etc no antivirals are currently available
77
What are the symptoms and treatment of Chikungunya?
Prominent symptoms are severe joint pain and abrupt onset of high fever. Other symptoms include general flu-like illness of muscle ache, headache, and fatigue. The disease shares its symptoms with dengue but tends to have more joint pain which can be debilitating. A rash may develop as with other viral illness and swelling of the joints in not uncommon. Treatment: Relief of symptoms. No specific treatment. ## Footnote Alphavirus disease caused by infected mosquitoes
78
Management of mycoplasma pneumoniae?
doxycycline or a macrolide (e.g. erythromycin/clarithromycin)
79
what organism is seen in animal bites?
The majority of bites seen in everyday practice involve dogs and cats. These are generally polymicrobial but the most common isolated organism is **Pasteurella multocida**.
80
Management of animal bites?
cleanse wound. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless cosmesis is at risk current BNF recommendation is co-amoxiclav if penicillin-allergic then doxycycline + metronidazole is recommended
81
bacteria seenin human bites?
Human bites commonly cause multimicrobial infection, including both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria. Common organisms include: Streptococci spp. Staphylococcus aureus Eikenella Fusobacterium Prevotella Co-amoxiclav is recommended, as for animal bites.
82
What is Parvovirus B19?
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus which causes a variety of clinical presentations. It was identified in the 1980's as the cause of erythema infectiosum Erythema infectiosum (also known as fifth disease or 'slapped-cheek syndrome') ## Footnote The illness may consist of a mild feverish illness which is hardly noticeable. However, in others there is a noticeable rash which appears after a few days. The rose-red rash makes the cheeks appear bright red, hence the name 'slapped cheek syndrome'. The rash may spread to the rest of the body but unlike many other rashes, it only rarely involves the palms and soles. The child begins to feel better as the rash appears and the rash usually peaks after a week and then fades. The rash is unusual in that for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat or fever will trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and the rash itself. Most children recover and need no specific treatment. School exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. In adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
83
do children need to be excluded from school with erythema infectiosum? (slapped cheek syndrome)
It is spread by the respiratory route and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears and there is no specific treatment. The child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
84
Other presentations of parvo virus b19?
asymptomatic pancytopaenia in immunosuppressed patients aplastic crises e.g. in sickle-cell disease parvovirus B19 suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week so aplastic anaemia is rare unless there is a chronic haemolytic anaemia hydrops fetalis
85
Parvovirus B19 in pregnant woman?
parvovirus B19 in pregnant women can cross the placenta in pregnant women this causes severe anaemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis → heart failure secondary to severe anaemia → the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions) **treated with intrauterine blood transfusions **
86
features of tetanus?
prodrome fever, lethargy, headache trismus (lockjaw) risus sardonicus: facial spasms opisthotonus (arched back, hyperextended neck) spasms (e.g. dysphagia)
87
Management of tetanus?
Management supportive therapy including ventilatory support and muscle relaxants intramuscular human tetanus immunoglobulin for high-risk wounds (e.g. compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue) metronidazole is now preferred to benzylpenicillin as the antibiotic of choice
88
What should be considered in the presentation of dysenery after long incubation periosd?
Amoebiasis should be considered The history of abdominal pain, gradual onset bloody diarrhoea, and a long incubation period in a returning traveller is highly suggestive of amoebiasis dysentery. The causative organism for amoebiasis is Entamoeba histolytica.
89
What kind of bacteria is E.coli?
Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobic, lactose-fermenting, Gram negative rod which is a normal gut commensal.
90
what os E. coli O157:H7?
E. coli O157:H7 is a particular strain associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can be complicated by haemolytic uraemic syndrome. It is often spread by contaminated ground beef.
91
what can E.coli cause?
diarrhoeal illnesses UTIs neonatal meningitis
92
What is the mininmal interval required between giving two live vaccinations?
Live vaccines given by injection may be either given concomitantly or a minimum interval of 4 weeks apart to prevent risk of immunological interference To prevent the risk of immunological interference
93
What type of bacteria is Clostridia?
Clostridia are gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli.
94
What does clostridia botulinum lead to?
typically seen in canned foods and honey prevents acetylcholine (ACh) release leading to flaccid paralysis
95
What does clostdia perfringens lead to?
produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which causes gas gangrene (myonecrosis) and haemolysis features include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae. Crepitus may present on palpation
96
what does colstrdia tetani lead to?
produces an exotoxin (tetanospasmin) that prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord causing a spastic paralysis
97
what causes fish tank granulonma?
Mycobacterium marinum is one of many mycobacteria that can cause disease in humans. Fish tank granuloma typically presents in patients who have had an exposure to, or frequently work with fish.
98
How does fish tank granuloma present?
It has an incubation period of 3-4 weeks and lesions can be painful or painless. A cut or break in the skin can be enough for the organism to enter the blood stream and track up the lymphatic system (sporotrichoid spread).
99
Treatent for fish tank granuloma?
Treatment options include tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, sulfonamides and macrolides.
100
what is yellow fever and what causes it?
Type of viral haemorrhagic fever (also dengue fever, Lassa fever, Ebola). Basics zoonotic infection: spread by Aedes mosquitos incubation period = 2 - 14 days
101
Features of yellow fever?
Features may cause mild flu-like illness lasting less than one week classic description involves sudden onset of high fever, rigors, nausea & vomiting. Bradycardia may develop. A brief remission is followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria if severe jaundice, haematemesis may occur Councilman bodies (inclusion bodies) may be seen in the hepatocytes
102
What causes Lymphogranuloma venereum?
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3*.
103
Risk factors for lymphgranuloma venereum?
men who have sex with men the majority of patients who present in developed countries have HIV historically was seen more in the tropics
104
Symptoms of lymphgranuloma venereum
Typically infection comprises of three stages: stage 1: small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer stage 2: painful inguinal lymphadenopathy may occasionally form fistulating buboes stage 3: proctocolitis
105
Treatment of lymphgranuloma venereum?
Doxycycline
106
HIV seroconversion?
HIV seroconversion is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and typically presents as a glandular fever-type illness. Increased symptomatic severity is associated with poorer long-term prognosis. It typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection Features sore throat lymphadenopathy malaise, myalgia, arthralgia diarrhoea maculopapular rash mouth ulcers rarely meningoencephalitis
107
What are the most common causes of non-falcparum malaria?
Plasmodium vivax, with Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium malariae accounting for the other cases. Plasmodium vivax is often found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent whilst Plasmodium ovale typically comes from Africa. ## Footnote Plasmodium knowlesi is another non-falciparum species which causes clinical pathology, found predominantly in South East Asia.
108
Features of non-falciparum malaria?
Features general features of malaria: fever, headache, splenomegaly Plasmodium vivax/ovale: cyclical fever every 48 hours. Plasmodium malariae: cyclical fever every 72 hours Plasmodium malariae: is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may therefore relapse following treatment.
109
Treatment of non-falciparum malaria?
in areas which are known to be chloroquine-sensitive then WHO recommend either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine in areas which are known to be chloroquine-resistant an ACT should be used ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse
110
What does Cryptosporidiosis causes?
Cryptosporidiosis is the commonest protozoal cause of diarrhoea in the UK. Two species, Cryptosporidium hominis and Cryptosporidium parvum account for the majority cases. Cryptosporidiosis is more common in immunocompromised patients (e.g. HIV) and young children.
111
Features of cryptosporidosis?
watery diarrhoea abdominal cramps fever in immunocompromised patients, the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected resulting in complications such as sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatitis
112
Diagnosis of Cryptosporidiosis
stool: modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of Cryptosporidium
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Management of Cryptosporidiosis?
is largely supportive for immunocompetent patients if the patient has HIV and is not on antiretroviral therapy then this should be started and often will be enough to resolve the infection nitazoxanide may be used for immunocompromised patients rifaximin is also sometimes used for immunocompromised patients/patients with severe disease
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What are the main tests available for HIV?
HIV antibody - enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) are often used for screening HIB antibody and HIV antigen p24 antigen can be detected as early as 2-3 weeks after exposure the sensitivity of these fourth-generation tests approaches 100% for patients with chronic HIV infection now the first-line test for HIV screening of asymptomatic individuals or patients with signs and symptoms of chronic infection HIV RNA (qualitative or quantitative) - may be useful for diagnosis of neonatal HIV infection and screening blood donors ## Footnote most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks but 99% do by 3 months
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What is Schistosomiasis?
Schistosomiasis, or bilharzia, is a parasitic flatworm infection. The three main species of schistosome are S. mansoni, S. japonicum and S. haematobium.
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How may acute infection with schistosomiasis present?
Acute manifestations may include: swimmers' itch acute schistosomiasis syndrome (Katayama fever) fever urticaria/angioedema arthralgia/myalgia cough diarrhoea eosinophilia
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What is Schistosoma haematobium?
These worms deposit egg clusters (pseudopapillomas) in the bladder, causing inflammation. The calcification seen on x-ray is actually calcification of the egg clusters, not the bladder itself. Depending on the site of these pseudopapillomas in the bladder, they can cause an obstructive uropathy and kidney damage. This typically presents as a 'swimmer's itch' in patients who have recently returned from Africa.
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What cancer is Schistosoma haematobium a risk factor for?
squamous cell bladder cancer.
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Features of Schistosoma haematobium?
frequency haematuria bladder calcification
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Investigations and management for Schistosoma haematobium
Investigation for asymptomatic patients serum schistosome antibodies are generally preferred for symptomatic patients the gold standard for diagnosis is urine or stool microscopy looking for eggs Management single oral dose of **praziquantel**
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Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma japonicum
These worms mature in the liver and then travel through the portal system to inhabit the distal colon. Their presence in the portal system can lead to progressive hepatomegaly and splenomegaly due to portal vein congestion. These species can also lead to complications of liver cirrhosis, variceal disease and cor pulmonale.
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Vancomycin Mechanism of action Mechanism of rsistance Adverse effects
Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic used in the treatment of Gram-positive infections, particularly methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Mechanism of action inhibits cell wall formation by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, preventing polymerization of peptidoglycans Mechanism of resistance alteration to the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits (normally D-alanyl-D-alanine) to which the antibiotic binds Adverse effects nephrotoxicity ototoxicity thrombophlebitis red man syndrome; occurs on rapid infusion of vancomycin3
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What is valency?
t refers to the number of distinct antigenic components or serotypes a vaccine can protect against.
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