Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCP > clinical sciences 2 > Flashcards

clinical sciences 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the function of leukotrienes?

A

mediators of inflammation and allergic reactions
causes of bronchoconstriction, mucous production
increases vascular permeability, attracts leukocytes
leukotriene D4 has been identified as the SRS-A (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where are leukoctienes secreted from?

A

secreted by leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are leukotrienes formed from?

A

formed from arachidonic acid by action of lipoxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are examples of mitochondrial disease?

A

Leber’s optic atrophy
symptoms typically develop at around the age of 30 years
central scotoma → loss of colour vision → rapid onset of significant visual impairment

MELAS syndrome: mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes

MERRF syndrome: myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibres

Kearns-Sayre syndrome: onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa. Ptosis may be seen

sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what would histology of mitochondrial disease show?

A

muscle biopsy classically shows ‘red, ragged fibres’ due to increased number of mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is mitochondria disease inherited?

A

only via the maternal line
none of the children of an effected male will inherit the disease
all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which immunoglobulin provides immunity to parasites?

A

IgE

IgE is synthesised to plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is suggestive of LBBB?

A

dominant S wave in V1
QRS > 120ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what releases interferon gamma?

A

It is released by natural kill cells and T helper cells (in particular Th1 cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is Achondroplasia?

A

AD disorder associated with short stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Achondroplasia caused by?

A

A mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the features of achondroplasia ?

A

short limbs (rhizomelia) with shortened fingers (brachydactyly)
large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum
midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge
‘trident’ hands
lumbar lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the site of action of ADH?

A

collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

A

Superomedially: Semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles.
Superolaterally: Biceps femoris muscle.
Inferomedially and Inferolaterally: Medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius muscle, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the content of the popliteal fossa?

A

Popliteal artery
Popliteal vein
Tibial nerve
Common perineal nerve
Popliteal lymph nodes
small saphenous vein
Fat and loose connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dermatomes C2 - C8

A

C2 - posterior half of the skull

C3 - high turtleneck shirt

C4 - low collar shirt

C5 - ventral axial line of upper limb

C6 - thumb and index finger

C7 - middle finger and palm of hand

C8 - ring and little finger

17
Q

Dermatomes T4 - T10

A

T4 - nipples

T5 - inframammary fold

T6 - Xiphoid process

T10 - Umbilicus

18
Q

Dermatomes L1-L5

A

L1 - inguinal ligament

L4 - knee caps

L5 - big toe, dorm of foot (except lateral aspect)

19
Q

Dermatomes S1, 2 and 3?

A

S1 - lateral foot and small toe

S2, S3 - Genitalia

20
Q

definition of p value?

A

P value - is the probability of obtaining a result by chance at least as extreme as the one that was actually observed, assuming that the null hypothesis is true

21
Q

what are microtubules?

A

Microtubules are components of the cytoskeleton of the cytoplasm. They help guide movement during intracellular transport and also help bind internal organelles. Microtubules are found in all cells except red blood cells.

22
Q

what is the structure of microtubules?

A

cylindrical structure composed of alternating α and β tubulin subunits which polymerize to form protofilaments
microtubules are polarized, having a positive and negative end

23
Q

how do ribosomes help guide intracellular transport?

A

attachment proteins called dynein and kinesin move up and down the microtubules facilitating the movement of various organelles around the cell

dynein moves in a retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve)

kinesin moves in an anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve)

24
Q

what is falcon syndrome ?

A

Fanconi syndrome is a disorder of inadequate reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidneys. This commonly presents with hypophosphataemia as well as hyperchloraemia metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, and hypocalcaemia.

25
Q

how do you calculate the likelihood ratio?

A

Likelihood ratio for a positive test result = sensitivity / (1 - specificity)

Likelihood ratio for a negative test result = (1 - sensitivity) / specificity

26
Q

what immunological changes are seen in HIV?

A

reduction in CD4 count
increase B2-microglobulin
decreased IL-2 production
polyclonal B-cell activation
decrease NK cell function
reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

27
Q

what is good pasture’s syndrome caused by?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by autoantibodies against collagen type IV

28
Q

what is the role of collagen Type I

A

bone skin and tendon

(associated condition - osteogenesis imperfect)

29
Q

what is the role of collagen Type II ?

A

Hyaline cartilage, vitreous humour

30
Q

what is the role of collagen type III?

A

Reticular fibre, granulation tissue

(Associated conditions -Vascular variant of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)

31
Q

What is the role of collagen type IV ?

A

Basal lamina, lens, basement membrane

Associate conditions - Alport syndrome (mutations in the genes encoding Type IV collagen), Goodpasture’s syndrome (autoimmune reaction where antibodies attack the Type IV collagen)

32
Q

What is the role of collages type V?

A

Most interstitial tissue, placental tissue

Associated conditions
Classical variant of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

33
Q

what is the structure of collagen?

A

Collagen is characterised by its triple-helix structure, which consists of three polypeptide chains wound around each other, forming a rope-like assembly that provides tensile strength to tissues.

34
Q

how is collagen synthesis and secreted?

A

Synthesis: Collagen synthesis involves several steps, starting with the translation of collagen mRNA to form preprocollagen, which contains extra peptide sequences.
Post-Translational Modifications: Before forming the mature collagen, the procollagen undergoes extensive post-translational modifications such as hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues, crucial for stability and secretion.
Assembly and Secretion: Hydroxylated procollagen forms a triple helix, is processed in the Golgi apparatus, and secreted into the extracellular matrix, where it forms collagen fibres.

35
Q

what HLA is coeliac disease linked to?

A

HLA DQ2

36
Q

what HLA DR3 is Sjogren’s linked to ?

A

HLA DR3

MRCP (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions