Clinical Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

What is Niacin ?

A

Vitamin B3 -
It is a precursor to NAD+ and NADP+ and hence plays an essential metabolic role in cells.

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2
Q

what does B3 deficiency lead to?

A

pellagra: dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia

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3
Q

what are the different types of molecular biology techniques?

A

Southern blotting Detects DNA

Northern blotting Detects RNA

Western blotting Detects proteins
Uses gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins by 3-D structure
Examples include the confirmatory HIV test

SNOW (South - NOrth - West)
DROP (DNA - RNA - Protein)

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4
Q

what are interferons?

A

Interferons (IFN) are cytokines released by the body in response to viral infections and neoplasia. They are classified according to cellular origin and the type of receptor they bind to. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta bind to type 1 receptors whilst IFN-gamma binds only to type 2 receptors.

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5
Q

what produces interferon alpha?
what is its action and what are the adverse effects?

A

produced by leucocytes
antiviral action
useful in hepatitis B & C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, hairy cell leukaemia
adverse effects include flu-like symptoms and depression

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6
Q

what produces interferon beta ?
what is it action and what is it useful in?

A

produced by fibroblasts
antiviral action
reduces the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting MS

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7
Q

what is interferon gamma?
what produces it, what is its action and what is it useful in ?

A

predominately natural killer cells. Also by T helper cells
weaker antiviral action, more of a role in immunomodulation particularly macrophage activation
may be useful in chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis

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8
Q

What HLA antigen is haemochromatosis associated with?

A

HLA-A3

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9
Q

What HLA antigen is Behçet’s disease associated with?

A

HLA-B51

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10
Q

What conditions are associated with HLA B27?

A

ankylosing spondylitis
reactive arthritis
acute anterior uveitis
psoriatic arthritis

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11
Q

What HLA antigen is Coeliac associated with?

A

HLA-DQ2/DQ8

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12
Q

What conditions are associated with HLA-DR2?

A

narcolepsy
Goodpasture’s

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13
Q

What conditions are associated with HLA-DR3?

A

dermatitis herpetiformis
Sjogren’s syndrome
primary biliary cirrhosis

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14
Q

what conditions are associated with HLA-DR4?

A

type 1 diabetes mellitus
rheumatoid arthritis - in particular the DRB1 gene (DRB104:01 and DRB104:04 hence the association with DR4)

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15
Q

What is the chloride shift?

A

The chloride shift is a process where chloride ions move into red blood cells while bicarbonate ions move out, maintaining electrical neutrality within the cell

CO2 diffuses into RBCs
CO2 + H20 —- carbonic anhydrase -→ HCO3- + H+
H+ combines with Hb
HCO3- diffuses out of cell,- Cl- replaces it

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16
Q

what is the Bohr effect?

A

increasing acidity (or pCO2) means O2 binds less well to Hb

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17
Q

what is the Haldane effect?

A

increase pO2 means CO2 binds less well to Hb

The Haldane effect describes the phenomenon where oxygenation of blood in the lungs displaces carbon dioxide from hemoglobin, increasing the removal of carbon dioxide.

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18
Q

what is IL-1?
What secretes IL-1?

A

Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a key mediator of the immune response. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.

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19
Q

what are the effects of IL-1?

A

increasing the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium. By stimulating the release by the endothelium of vasoactive factors such as PAF, nitric oxide and prostacyclin it also causes vasodilation and increases vascular permeability. It is therefore one of the mediators of shock in sepsis. Along with IL-6 and TNF, it acts on the hypothalamus causing pyrexia.

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20
Q

What are examples of IL-1 inhibitors and what’re they used for?

A

anakinra
IL-1 receptor antagonist
used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis

canakinumab
monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta
used systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease

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21
Q

What is Phenylketonuria?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive condition caused by a disorder of phenylalanine metabolism. This is usually due to defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase, an enzyme which converts phenylalanine to tyrosine. In a small number of cases the underlying defect is a deficiency of the tetrahydrobiopterin-deficient cofactor, e.g. secondary to defective dihydrobiopterin reductase. High levels of phenylalanine lead to problems such as learning difficulties and seizures.

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22
Q

where is the gene for phenylalanine hydroxylate located?

A

he gene for phenylalanine hydroxylase is located on chromosome 12.

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23
Q

What are the features of Phenylketonuria?

A

usually presents by 6 months e.g. with developmental delay
child classically has fair hair and blue eyes
learning difficulties
seizures, typically infantile spasms
eczema
‘musty’ odour to urine and sweat*

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24
Q

How is Phenylketonuria diagnosed?

A

Guthrie test: the ‘heel-prick’ test done at 5-9 days of life - also looks for other biochemical disorders such as hypothyroidism
hyperphenylalaninaemia
phenylpyruvic acid in urine

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25
X-llinked recessive inheritance?
In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner's syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters. Each male child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being affected whilst each female child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being a carrier. The possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally speaking extremely rare. However, in certain Afro-Caribbean communities G6PD deficiency is relatively common and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are seen.
26
How is Vitamin D Resistant rickets inherited? What causes it?
Vitamin D-resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant condition which usually presents in infancy with failure to thrive. It is caused by impaired phosphate reabsorption in the renal tubules
27
Features of Vitamin D-resistant rickets?
failure to thrive normal serum calcium, low phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphotase x-ray changes: cupped metaphyses with widening of the epiphyses
28
Diagnosis and management of Vitamin D resistant rickets?
Diagnosis is made by demonstrating increased urinary phosphate Management high-dose vitamin D supplements oral phosphate supplements
29
what cancers does EBV increase risk of?
Burkitt's lymphoma Hodgkin's lymphoma Post transplant lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
30
What cancers does HPV 16/18 increase risk of ?
Cervical cancer Anal cancer Penile cancer Vulval cancer Oropharyngeal cancer
31
What virus increases risk of Kaposi's sarcoma?
HHV 8
32
What is Penetrance and Expressivity?
Penetrance describes the proportion of a population of individuals who carry a disease-causing allele who express the related disease phenotype. Expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual. Penetrance describes 'how likely' it is that a condition will develop examples of conditions with incomplete penetrance include retinoblastoma and Huntington's disease in contrast, achondroplasia shows 100%, or complete, penetrance Expressivity describes the 'severity' of the phenotype a condition with a high level of expressivity is neurofibromatosis
33
what causes varying gene penetrance and expressivity?
These phenomena are thought to be due to a number of factors, including: Modifier genes Environmental factors Allelic variation
34
what is Riboflavin? What does deficiency in Riboflavin lead to?
Riboflavin is a cofactor of flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and is important in energy metabolism. Consequences of riboflavin deficiency: angular cheilitis
35
how is iron absorbed?
upper small intestine especially the duodenum about 10% of dietary iron absorbed Fe2+ (ferrous iron) much better absorbed than Fe3+ (ferric iron) absorption is regulated according to body's need increased by vitamin C, gastric acid decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, tannin (found in tea)
36
Distribution of iron in the body?
total body iron = 4g haemoglobin = 70% ferritin and haemosiderin = 25% myoglobin = 4% plasma iron = 0.1%
37
what is iron carried by in the plasma?
carried in plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin
38
What is iron stored as?
stored as ferritin in tissues
39
what is the role of IgD in the initiation of immune response?
This role in B cell activation makes IgD crucial for the initiation of immune responses. When an antigen binds to the IgD molecule on a B cell, it triggers the cell to proliferate and differentiate into an antibody-secreting plasma cell.
40
what kind of disease is Weber's optic atrophy?
Mitochondrial disease symptoms typically develop at around the age of 30 years central scotoma → loss of colour vision → rapid onset of significant visual impairment
41
what are examples of mitochndrial disease??
Leber's optic atrophy symptoms typically develop at around the age of 30 years central scotoma → loss of colour vision → rapid onset of significant visual impairment MELAS syndrome: mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes MERRF syndrome: myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibres Kearns-Sayre syndrome: onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa. Ptosis may be seen sensorineural hearing loss
42
characteristics of mitochondrial disease?
inheritance is only via the maternal line as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote none of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease generally, encode rare neurological diseases poor genotype:phenotype correlation - within a tissue or cell there can be different mitochondrial populations - this is known as heteroplasmy e
43
function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
translation and folding of new proteins manufacture of lysosomal enzymes site of N-linked glycosylation examples of cells with extensive RER include pancreatic cells, goblet cells, plasma cells
44
functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
steroid, lipid synthesis examples of cells with extensive SER include those of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, testes, ovaries
45
functions of the Golgi apparatus?
Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome
46
functions of the mitochondrion?
Aerobic respiration. Contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA
47
Functions of the nucleus?
DNA maintenance RNA transcription RNA splicing the process that removes the intervening, non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons)
48
function of the lysosome?
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
49
Functions of the nucleolus?
ribosome production
50
Function of ribosome?
Translation of RNA into proteins
51
Function of peroxisome?
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids Results in the formation of hydrogen peroxide
52
Function of Proteasome?
Along with the lysosome pathway involved in degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin
53
T-helper 1 ? what is it involved in what does it secrete?
involved in the cell-mediated response and delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity secrete IFN-gamma, IL-2, IL-3
54
T-helper cell 2 what is it involved in what does it secrete?
involved in mediating humoral (antibody) immunity e.g. stimulating production of IgE in asthma secrete IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13
55
Characteristic features of toxoplasmosis?
Cerebral calcification Chorioretinitis Hydrocephalus other features: anaemia hepatosplenomegaly cerebral palsy Up to 70% of infected and untreated children will remain clinically well at birth and will exhibit signs of the infection later in life. Chorioretinitis remains the most common presentation of congenital toxoplasmosis. It is seen as a white focal lesion with surrounding exudate located adjacent to an old scar. Small pigmented/atrophic scars can also be seen.
56
Characteristic features of Congenital Cytomegalovirus?
Low birth weight Purpuric skin lesions Sensorineural deafness Microcephaly Other features: Visual impairment Learning disability Encephalitis/seizures Pneumonitis Hepatosplenomegaly Anaemia Jaundice Cerebral palsy
57
Characteristic features of congenital Rubella?
Sensorineural deafness Congenital cataracts Congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus) Glaucoma Other features: Growth retardation Hepatosplenomegaly Purpuric skin lesions 'Salt and pepper' chorioretinitis Microphthalmia Cerebral palsy
58
What is the role of vitamin D?
Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a key role in calcium and phosphate metabolism. It is converted into the prohormone calcifediol in the liver. Circulating calcifediol is then converted into calcitriol (the biologically active form of vitamin D) in the kidneys.
59
what are the functions of Vitamin D?
increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium increases osteoclastic activity increases renal phosphate reabsorption Vitamin D increases serum calcium primarily through raising its absorption via the small intestine
60
what does vitamin D deficiency lead to?
Osteomalacia
61
what are the three types of troponin and what do they bind to?
Subunits of troponin troponin C: binds to calcium ions troponin T: binds to tropomyosin, forming a troponin-tropomyosin complex troponin I: binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place
62
what is meant by the poor genotype:phenotype correlation in mitochondrial disease?
the same genetic defect can result in a wide range of clinical manifestations. This variability is due to factors such as heteroplasmy - the presence of both normal and mutated mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) within a cell - and other genetic or environmental influences.
63
Cardiac complications of Down syndrome?
multiple cardiac problems may be present endocardial cushion defect (most common, 40%, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects) ventricular septal defect (c. 30%) secundum atrial septal defect (c. 10%) tetralogy of Fallot (c. 5%) isolated patent ductus arteriosus (c. 5%)
64
clinical features of Down;s syndrome?
face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small low-set ears, round/flat face flat occiput single palmar crease, pronounced 'sandal gap' between big and first toe hypotonia congenital heart defects (40-50%, see below) duodenal atresia Hirschsprung's disease
65
Later complications of Down's syndrome?
Subfertility learning difficulties short stature repeated respiratory infections acute lymphoblastic leukaemia hypothyroidism Alzheimers disease atlantoaxial instability
66
what are the different forms of trials when testing a new drug?
superiority: whilst this may seem the natural aim of a trial one problem is the large sample size needed to show a significant benefit over an existing treatment equivalence: an equivalence margin is defined (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs lies within the equivalence margin then the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect non-inferiority: similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to lie within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). Small sample sizes are needed for these trials. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior large studies may be performed to show superiority
67
What is the function o interferon-gamma?
activates macrophages
68
What is Kearns-Sayre syndrome?
a rare mitochondrial disorder characterized by the triad of onset before 20 years of age, progressive external ophthalmoplegia (PEO), and pigmentary retinopathy (retinitis pigmentosa).
68
What is Lawrence Moon Biedl syndrome?
a rare genetic disorder characterized by obesity, intellectual disability, retinitis pigmentosa, polydactyly (extra fingers or toes), and hypogonadism.
69
what are the features of Usher syndrome?
Genetic disorder characterized by sensorineural hearing loss at birth and progressive vision loss due to retinitis pigmentosa
70
What is Refuse disease?
a rare metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of phytanic acid alpha-hydroxylase enzyme resulting in an accumulation of phytanic acid in tissues. The clinical features include retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia, anosmia (loss of smell), and ichthyosis (dry scaly skin).
71
Refsum disease Usher syndrome Lawrence-Moon-Biedl Kearns-Sayre syndrome Alport's syndrome
Refsum disease: AR -cerebellar ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, deafness, ichthyosis, anosmia, Usher syndrome- AR, deafness - most common form of deaf blind abetalipoproteinemia Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is a rare AR It is characterized predominantly by hypogonadism, polydactyly, retinitis pigmentosa, obesity, and mental retardation. Kearns-Sayre syndrome- mitochondria deletion, <20 year old, prog external ophthalmoplegia, assoc with heart block, cerebellar ataxia, ragged red fibre on muscle biopsy Alport's syndrome- x linked- renal (GBM t4 collagen), deafness, protrusion of lens, ret pigment
72
what is MELAS ?
mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes (MELAS)
73
what are the 4 phases of clinical trials?
0 - Exploratory studies I - safety assessment II - Assess efficacy III - assess effectiveness IV - postmarketing surveillance
74
what is phase 0 clinical trial?
Exploratory studies Involves a very small number of participants and aim to assess how a drug behaves in the human body. Used to assess pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. Phase 0 trials help in determining whether it is feasible to move on to further phases.
75
What is phase I clinical trial?
Safety assessment Determines side-effects prior to larger studies. Conducted on healthy volunteers
76
What is phase II clinical trial?
assess efficacy Involves small number of patients affected by particular disease May be subdivided into IIa - assesses optimal dosing IIb - assesses efficacy
77
What is phase III clinical trial?
Assess effectiveness Typically involves 100-1000's of people, often as part of a randomised controlled trial, comparing new treatment with established treatments
78
What is phase IV clinical trial?
Post marketing surveillance? Monitors for long-term effectiveness and side-effects
79
what are trinucleotide repeat disorders?
Fragile X (CGG) Huntington's (CAG) myotonic dystrophy (CTG) Friedreich's ataxia* (GAA) spinocerebellar ataxia spinobulbar muscular atrophy dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy
80
What is Homocystinuria?
Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal recessive disease caused by a deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase. This results in severe elevations in plasma and urine homocysteine concentrations.
81
what are the features of homocystinuria?
often patients have fine, fair hair musculoskeletal > Marfanoid body habitus: arachnodactyly etc >osteoporosis > kyphosis neurological: may have learning difficulties, seizures ocular >downwards (inferonasal) dislocation of lens > severe myopia increased risk of arterial and venous thromboembolism also malar flush, livedo reticularis
82
What is Fabry Disease?
Fabry disease is an X-linked recessive disorder characterised by a deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A.
83
clinical features of Fabry disease?
Severe neuropathic/limb pain brought on by stress, heat, or cold Angiokeratomas Renal features: proteinuria, polyuria, polydipsia Cardiac: left ventricular hypertrophy, coronary artery disease, valvular abnormalities and heart failure Cerebrovascular: TIAs/strokes
84
management of Fabry disease?
Enzyme replacement therapy with agalsidase alfa
85
what drugs interfere with folic acid metabolism?
Drugs which interfere with metabolism trimethoprim methotrexate pyrimethamine Drugs which can reduce absorption phenytoin
86
What types of tumour will metastases to the brain?
lung (most common) breast bowel skin (namely melanoma) kidney
87
What is a Glioblastoma multiforme? On imaging Histology Treatment
Glioblastoma is the most common primary tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis (~ 1yr). On imaging: Solid tumour with central necrosis and a rim that enhances with contrast. Histology: Pleomorphic tumour cells border necrotic areas Treatment is surgical with postoperative chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. Dexamethasone is used to treat the oedema.
88
What is a meningioma? Where are they located? Histology? Investigations?
Meningiomas are typically benign, extrinsic tumours of the central nervous system. They arise from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges and are typically located next to the dura and cause symptoms by compression rather than invasion. * They typically are located at the falx cerebri, superior sagittal sinus, convexity or skull base. * Histology: Spindle cells in concentric whorls and calcified psammoma bodies * Investigation is with CT (will show contrast enhancement) and MRI, and treatment will involve either observation, radiotherapy or surgical resection.
89
Vestibular Schwannoma? Histology Treatment?
A vestibular schwannoma (previously termed acoustic neuroma) is a benign tumour arising from the eighth cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear nerve). Often seen in the cerebellopontine angle. It presents with hearing loss, facial nerve palsy (due to compression of the nearby facial nerve) and tinnitus. * Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas. * Histology: Antoni A or B patterns are seen. Verocay bodies (acellular areas surrounded by nuclear palisades) * Treatment may involve observation, radiotherapy or surgery.
90
what is the most common primary Brian tumour in children?
The most common primary brain tumour in children Histology: Rosenthal fibres (corkscrew eosinophilic bundle)
91
what is a medulloblastoma? Histology
A medulloblastoma is an aggressive paediatric brain tumour that arises within the infratentorial compartment. It spreads through the CSF system. Treatment is surgical resection and chemotherapy. * Histology: Small, blue cells. Rosette pattern of cells with many mitotic figures
92
where are Ependyomas seen ? what would histology show?
* Commonly seen in the 4th ventricle * May cause hydrocephalus * Histology: perivascular pseudorosettes
93
What is Oligodendroma? Histology?
* Benign, slow-growing tumour common in the frontal lobes * Histology: Calcifications with 'fried-egg' appearance
94
What Is a haemangioblastoma? What is seen on histology?
Vascular tumour of the cerebellum * Associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome * Histology: foam cells and high vascularity
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