respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

How is a pneumothorax managed?

A

if no or minimal symptoms - conservative care regardless of pneumothorax (minimal symptoms is defined as no significant pain, breathlessness and no physiological compromise)

if they are symptomatic - assess for high risk characteristics

high risk characteristics:
haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax)
significant hypoxia
bilateral pneumothorax
underlying lung disease
≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history
haemothorax

if not high risk characteristics are present - either conservative management, ambulatory device, needle aspiration

If high risk characteristics - chest drain

patients with a primary spontaneous pneumothorax that is managed conservatively should be reviewed every 2-4 days as an outpatient
patients with a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax that is managed conservatively should be monitored as an inpatient
if stable, follow-up in the outpatients department in 2-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is ambulatory care for pneumothorax ?

A

an example of an ambulatory device is the Rocketµ Pleural Vent„
it includes an 8FG catheter mounted on an 18G needle and a pigtail catheter to minimize the risk of occlusion
ambulatory devices typically have a one-way valve and vent to prevent air and fluid return to the pleural space while allowing for controlled escape of air and drainage of fluid
many devices also have an indication diaphragm that signals when the catheter tip enters the pleural space and continues to fluctuate with respiration, aiding in the assessment of pneumothorax resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when can you fly after a pneumothorax?

A

absolute contraindication, the CAA suggest patients may travel 2 weeks after successful drainage if there is no residual air. The British Thoracic Society used to recommend not travelling by air for a period of 6 weeks but this has now been changed to 1 week post check x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when can you scuba dive post pneumothorax?

A

the BTS guidelines state: ‘Diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A

a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseasting granulomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the features of sarcoidosis?

A

acute: erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, polyarthralgia
insidious: dyspnoea, non-productive cough, malaise, weight loss
ocular: uveitis
skin: lupus pernio
hypercalcaemia: macrophages inside the granulomas cause an increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how is sarcoidosis investigated?

A

ACE levels have a sensitivity of 60% and specificity of 70% and are therefore not reliable in the diagnosis of sarcoidosis although they may have a role in monitoring disease activity.

Routine bloods may show hypercalcaemia (seen in 10% if patients) and a raised ESR

A chest x-ray may show the following changes:
stage 0 = normal
stage 1 = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL)
stage 2 = BHL + interstitial infiltrates
stage 3 = diffuse interstitial infiltrates only
stage 4 = diffuse fibrosis

spirometry - restrictive defect
tissue biopsy - non-caseating granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is sarcoidosis managed?

A

Indications for steroids
patients with chest x-ray stage 2 or 3 disease who are symptomatic. Patients with asymptomatic and stable stage 2 or 3 disease who have only mildly abnormal lung function do not require treatment
hypercalcaemia
eye, heart or neuro involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what factors in sarcoidosis are associated with poor prognosis?

A

insidious onset, symptoms > 6 months
absence of erythema nodosum
extrapulmonary manifestations: e.g. lupus pernio, splenomegaly
CXR: stage III-IV features
black African or African-Caribbean ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how are pleural effusions classified?

A

Pleural effusions may be classified as being either a transudate or exudate according to the protein concentration.

Transudate < 30g/L protein

Exudate >30g/L proetein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are causes of transudate pleural effusions?

A

heart failure (most common transudate cause)
hypoalbuminaemia
liver disease
nephrotic syndrome
malabsorption
hypothyroidism
Meigs’ syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are causes of exudate pleural effusions?

A

Infection - pneumonia, TB, subphrenic abscess
Connective tissue disease - RA, SLE
Neoplasia - lung Ca, mesothelioma, mets
pancreatitis
PE
Dressler’s syndrome
yellow nail syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when should LTOT be offered to patients?

A

LTOT should be offered to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
secondary polycythaemia
nocturnal hypoxaemia
peripheral oedema
pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the general management of COPD?

A

> smoking cessation advice: including offering nicotine replacement therapy, varenicline or bupropion
annual influenza vaccination
one-off pneumococcal vaccination
pulmonary rehabilitation to all people who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the medical management of COPD?

A

1st line - SABA or SAMA
if they remain breathless or have exacerbations the next step is to determine if the patient has asthmatic features suggesting steroid responsiveness

No asthmatic features
add a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) + long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)
if already taking a SAMA, discontinue and switch to a SABA

Asthmatic features
LABA + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
if patients remain breathless or have exacerbations offer triple therapy i.e. LAMA + LABA + ICS
if already taking a SAMA, discontinue and switch to a SABA
NICE recommend the use of combined inhalers where possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what features suggest a patient with COPD has asthmatic/steroid responsive features?

A

any previous, secure diagnosis of asthma or of atopy
a higher blood eosinophil count - note that NICE recommend a full blood count for all patients as part of the work-up
substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)
substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)

Interestingly NICE do not recommend formal reversibility testing as one of the criteria. In the guidelines they state that ‘routine spirometric reversibility testing is not necessary as part of the diagnostic process or to plan initial therapy with bronchodilators or corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is theophylline used in COPD?

A

NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot used inhaled therapy
the dose should be reduced if macrolide or fluoroquinolone antibiotics are co-prescribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is prophylactic abx therapy indicated in COPD ?

A

azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients
patients should not smoke, have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations
other prerequisites include a CT thorax (to exclude bronchiectasis) and sputum culture (to exclude atypical infections and tuberculosis)
LFTs and an ECG to exclude QT prolongation should also be done as azithromycin can prolong the QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when should a rescue pack for COPD be provided to patients?

A

have had an exacerbation within the last year
understand how to take the medication, and are aware of associated risks and benefits
know to when to seek help and when to ask for replacements once medication has been used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when are PDE-4 inhibitors recommended in COPD?

A

Phosphodiesterase-4 (PDE-4) inhibitors

oral PDE-4 inhibitors such as roflumilast reduce the risk of COPD exacerbations in patients with severe COPD and a history of frequent COPD exacerbations

NICE recommend if:
the disease is severe, defined as a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) after a bronchodilator of less than 50% of predicted normal, and
the person has had 2 or more exacerbations in the previous 12 months despite triple inhaled therapy with a long-acting muscarinic antagonist, a long-acting beta-2 agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which type of lung cancer is not necessarily associated with smoking?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the features of squamous cell lung Ca?

A

Squamous cell lung cancers are strongly associated with smoking
They can cavitate and sometimes appear as cavitating lesions on chest x-ray. In addition, they are associated with hypercalcemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the features of small cell lung cancer?

A

Small cell carcinomas account for about 20% of lung cancers. They are the most aggressive type of lung cancer and have usually metastasized by the time of diagnosis
The are also associated with hyponatraemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are risk factors for lung cancer?

A

Smoking
increases risk of lung ca by a factor of 10

Other factors
asbestos - increases risk of lung ca by a factor of 5
arsenic
radon
nickel
chromate
aromatic hydrocarbon
cryptogenic fibrosing alveoli’s

Smoking and asbestos are synergistic, i.e. a smoker with asbestos exposure has a 10 * 5 = 50 times increased risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the mechanism of action of bupropion and what is it used for

A

Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist. Bupropion is an atypical antidepressant and smoking cessation aid.

should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patients target stop date
there is a small risk of seizures
contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy and breast feeding
having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication

26
Q

what is the mechanism of action of Vareniciline and what is it used for ?

A

Nicotinic receptor partial agonist
Varenicline works by partially activating the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, reducing cravings for nicotine and withdrawal symptoms.

should be started one week prior to the target stop date
course of treatment is 12 weeks
nausea is the most common adverse effect. Other common problems include headache, insomnia, abnormal dreams
varenicline should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. There are ongoing studies looking at the risk of suicidal behaviour in patients taking varenicline
contraindicated in pregnancy and breast feeding

27
Q

what are predisopsing factors for OSA?

A

obesity
macroglossia: acromegaly, hypothyroidism, amyloidosis
large tonsils
Marfan’s syndrome

28
Q

what are the symptoms of OSA?

A

daytime somnolence
compensated respiratory acidosis
hypertension

29
Q

how do you diagnose OSA?

A

Assessment of sleepiness
Epworth Sleepiness Scale - questionnaire completed by patient +/- partner
Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) - measures the time to fall asleep in a dark room (using EEG criteria)

Diagnostic tests
sleep studies (polysomnography) - ranging from monitoring of pulse oximetry at night to full polysomnography where a wide variety of physiological factors are measured including EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring and pulse oximetry

30
Q

how is OSA managed?

A

weight loss
CPAP
intraoral devices

the DVLA should be informed if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness

31
Q

which investigations are indicated in COPD?

A

post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction: FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%
chest x-ray: hyperinflation, bullae, flat hemidiaphragm. Also important to exclude lung cancer
full blood count: exclude secondary polycythaemia
body mass index (BMI) calculation

** Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

32
Q

How is COPD severity categorised?

A

FEV1 (of predicted value)

> 80% Stage 1 - Mild - symptoms should be present to diagnose COPD in these patients

50-79% Stage 2 - Moderate

30-49% Stage 3 - Severe

< 30% Stage 4 - Very severe

33
Q

what is the most common organism found in bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae (most common)

other common organisms
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella spp.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

34
Q

how is bronchiectasis managed?

A

physical training (e.g. inspiratory muscle training) - has a good evidence base for patients with non-cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis
postural drainage
antibiotics for exacerbations + long-term rotating antibiotics in severe cases
bronchodilators in selected cases
immunisations
surgery in selected cases (e.g. Localised disease)

35
Q

what is bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis describes a permanent dilatation of the airways secondary to chronic infection or inflammation

36
Q

what are the main indications for placing a chest tube in pleural infection ?

A

Patients with frankly purulent or turbid/cloudy pleural fluid on sampling should receive prompt pleural space chest tube drainage.
The presence of organisms identified by Gram stain and/or culture from a non-purulent pleural fluid sample indicates that pleural infection is established and should lead to prompt chest tube drainage.
Pleural fluid pH < 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection indicates a need for chest tube drainage.

37
Q

pleural aspiration

A

as above, ultrasound is recommended to reduce the complication rate
a 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used
fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology and microbiology

38
Q

what is light’s criteria ?

A

Light’s criteria was developed in 1972 to help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate.

exudates have a protein level of >30 g/L, transudates have a protein level of <30 g/L

if the protein level is between 25-35 g/L, Light’s criteria should be applied. An exudate is likely if at least one of the following criteria are met:
pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5
pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6
pleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limits of normal serum LDH

39
Q

what do the following characteristics of pleural fluid suggest:
- low glucose
- raised amylase
- heavy blood staining

A

low glucose: rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis
raised amylase: pancreatitis, oesophageal perforation
heavy blood staining: mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, tuberculosis

40
Q

what are pleural plaques?

A

Pleural plaques are benign and do not undergo malignant change. They, therefore don’t require any follow-up. They are the most common form of asbestos-related lung disease and generally occur after a latent period of 20-40 years.

41
Q

What are the features of asbestosis?

A

The severity of asbestosis is related to the length of exposure. This is in contrast to mesothelioma where even very limited exposure can cause disease. The latent period is typically 15-30 years. Asbestosis typically causes lower lobe fibrosis.

Features
dyspnoea and reduced exercise tolerance
clubbing
bilateral end-inspiratory crackles
lung function tests show a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer

It is treated conservatively - no interventions offer a significant benefit.

42
Q

what is mesothelioma?

A

Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura. Crocidolite (blue) asbestos is the most dangerous form.

Possible features
progressive shortness-of-breath
chest pain
pleural effusion

Patients are usually offered palliative chemotherapy and there is also a limited role for surgery and radiotherapy. Unfortunately, the prognosis is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months.

43
Q

what is the most common form of cancer caused by asbestos ?

A

Whilst mesothelioma is in some ways synonymous with asbestos, lung cancer is actually the most common form of cancer associated with asbestos exposure. It also has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke in terms of the increased risk. Therefore, smoking cessation is very important as the risk of lung cancer in smokers who have a history of asbestos exposure is very high.

44
Q

what are the contraindication to surgery in patients with non-small cell lung cancer?

A

stage IIIb or IV (i.e. metastases present)
FEV1 < 1.5 litres is considered a general cut-off point*
malignant pleural effusion
tumour near hilum
vocal cord paralysis
SVC obstruction

45
Q

how is non-small cell lung cancer managed?

A

only 20% suitable for surgery
mediastinoscopy performed prior to surgery as CT does not always show mediastinal lymph node involvement
curative or palliative radiotherapy
poor response to chemotherapy

46
Q

what are the most common causes of COPD exacerbation?

A

bacteria
Haemophilus influenzae (most common cause)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis

*if CXR showed pneumonia then step pneumonia would be the most common causative organism

respiratory viruses
account for around 30% of exacerbations
human rhinovirus is the most important pathogen

47
Q

how is exacerbation of COPD managed?

A

Increase the frequency of bronchodilator use and consider giving via a nebuliser

give prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 days

it is common practice for all patients with an exacerbation of COPD to receive antibiotics. NICE do not support this approach. They recommend giving oral antibiotics ‘if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia’

the BNF recommends one of the following oral antibiotics first-line: amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline.

48
Q

when is admission required in exacerbation of COPD?

A

severe breathlessness
acute confusion or impaired consciousness
cyanosis
oxygen saturation less than 90% on pulse oximetry.
social reasons e.g. inability to cope at home (or living alone)
significant comorbidity (such as cardiac disease or insulin-dependent diabetes)

49
Q

when is NIV indicated in exacerbation of COPD?

A

typically used for COPD with respiratory acidosis pH 7.25-7.35
the BTS guidelines state that NIV can be used in patients who are more acidotic (i.e. pH < 7.25) but that a greater degree of monitoring is required (e.g. HDU) and a lower threshold for intubation and ventilation should be used

bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPaP) is typically used with initial settings:
Expiratory Positive Airway Pressure (EPAP): 4-5 cm H2O
Inspiratory Positive Airway Pressure (IPAP): RCP advocate 10 cm H20 whilst BTS suggest 12-15 cm H2O

50
Q

how is acute asthma classified?

A

moderate
PEFR 50-75% best or predicted
Speech normal
RR < 25 / min
Pulse < 110 bpm

Severe
PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Can’t complete sentences
RR > 25/min
Pulse > 110 bpm

life threatening
PEFR < 33% best or predicted
Oxygen sats < 92%
‘Normal’ pC02 (4.6-6.0 kPa)
Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort
Bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension
Exhaustion, confusion or coma

‘Near-fatal asthma’, is also recognised characterised by a raised pC02 and/or requiring mechanical ventilation with raised inflation pressures.

51
Q

how is asthma attack managed?

A

admission - life threatening, severe if they do not respond to treatment, previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy

oxygen
bronchidialation - SABA
Corticosteroid - 40mg of prednisone daily
Ipratropium bromide
IV magnesium sulphate
IV aminophylline

intubation
ECMO

52
Q

what are the indications for NIV?

A

COPD with respiratory acidosis pH 7.25-7.35
type II respiratory failure secondary to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea
cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP
weaning from tracheal intubation

53
Q

what is catamenial pneumothorax ?

A

Catamenial pneumothorax is an uncommon and rather complex clinical condition which occurs due to endometrial tissues and is generally encountered in reproductive women. The mean ages are between 32-35 years old. In most of the cases, it involves the right side presenting with shortness of breath or difficulty breathing, fatigue, and dry cough. It can produce monthly episodes of chest pain which may radiate to the shoulder.

54
Q

what is Meigs’ syndrome?

A

Meigs’ syndrome consists of the classical triad of ascites, pleural effusion, and benign ovarian tumour e.g. ovarian fibroma and usually resolves following resection of the tumour.

55
Q

what is eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis ?

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) is now the preferred term for Churg-Strauss syndrome. It is an ANCA associated small-medium vessel vasculitis.

Features
asthma
blood eosinophilia (e.g. > 10%)
paranasal sinusitis
mononeuritis multiplex
pANCA positive in 60%

Leukotriene receptor antagonists may precipitate the disease.

56
Q

what medication should be avoided in Churg-Strauss syndrome?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists may trigger eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)

Montelukast

57
Q

What are the steps of asthma management?

A

1 - Newly-diagnosed asthma Short-acting beta agonist (SABA)

2 - Not controlled on previous step
OR
Newly-diagnosed asthma with symptoms >= 3 / week or night-time waking SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

3 - SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)

4- SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
Continue LTRA depending on patient’s response to LTRA

5- SABA +/- LTRA
Switch ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART), that includes a low-dose ICS

6- SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART
OR consider changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA

7- SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options:
increase ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART)
a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline)
seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma

57
Q

what is MART?

A

Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)
a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment in which a single inhaler, containing both ICS and a fast-acting LABA, is used for both daily maintenance therapy and the relief of symptoms as required
MART is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component (for example, formoterol)

58
Q

what are the investigations for lung cancer?

A

CXR (10% of CXR are reported as normal)
CT
Bronchoscopy
PET scanning
Bloods - may have raised platelets

59
Q

what is Lofgren’s syndrome ?

A

Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form sarcoidosis characterised by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), erythema nodosum, fever and polyarthralgia.

It typically occurs in young females and carries an excellent prognosis.