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Pharmacology > Revision Questions > Flashcards

Revision Questions Flashcards

0
Q 
Which of the following is a common adverse effect associated with long term use of NSAIDs 
A. Skin rash
B. Constipation
C. Gastric bleeding
D. Nausea and vomiting
A

Gastric bleeding

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1
Q 
Which of the following drugs can be used to treat angina pectoris? 
A. Prazosin 
B. Salbutamol
C. Glyceryl trinitrate 
D. Captopril
A

Glyceryl trinitrate

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2
Q 
Monteleukast and zafirlukast are used in the treatment of asthma. Both drugs are examples of:
A. Glucocorticosteroids
B. Leukotriene receptor antagonists 
C. Muscarinic antagonists
D. Beta-2 agonists
A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists

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3
Q 
Within what time period after the start of a stroke should altepase treatment be started 
A. . 1 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 3-5 hours
D. 1 day
A

3-5 hours

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4
Q 
Azoles, most commonly used to treat fungal disease, target
A. Protein synthesis
B. Ergosterol biosynthesis 
C. DNA replication
D. Repair of the cell wall
A

Ergosterol biosynthesis

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5
Q

The nitrosourea compounds, lomustine and carmustine, are useful because they
A. Cross the blood-brain barrier easily
B. Reduce the ability of cancer cells to grow
C. Block hormone receptors
D. Act if cancer cell metabolism

A

Cross the blood brain barrier easily

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6
Q

Ionising radiation
A. Damages all cells with no recovery
B. Targets only cancer cells
C. Should only be used as treatment once a month
D. Penetrates all tissues causing damage to cells

A

Penetrates all tissues causing damage to cells

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7
Q

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower BP by preventing the
A. Formation of angiotensin 1 from angiotensinogen
B. Breakdown of angiotensin 2
C. Formation of angiotensin 2 from angiotensin 1
D. Stimulation of renin release from the kidney

A

Formation of angiotensin 2 from angiotensin 1

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8
Q

Which if the following will decrease brain serotonin levels
A. Venlafaxine
B. A low tryptophan diet
C. Minoamine oxidase inhibitors
D. Selective serotonin re uptake inhibitors

A

A low tryptophan diet, this amino acid is necessary for the synthesis of serotonin

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9
Q 
For patients with diabetes, which one of the following is a potential direct complication of injecting insulin 
A. Hypoglycaemia 
B. Hyperglycaemia 
C. Hypertension 
D. Glaucoma
A

Hypoglycaemia

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10
Q 
Which of the following oral antiemetics is a non-selective antagonist of Muscarinic receptors, and drug of choice for motion sickness? 
Hyoscine
Cinnarizine
Prochloropramazine 
Ondansetron
A

Hyoscine

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11
Q 
Nitrates (nitrovasodilators) 
A. Administered orally
B. Rarely have side effects
C. Slow acting 
D. Rapidly metabolised by the liver
E. Can be used as antihypertensive treatment
A

Rapidly metabolised by the liver

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12
Q 
The thrombolytic drug altepase activates the enzyme precursor 
A. Fibrinogen
B. Pepsinogen 
C. Plasmin 
D. Plasminogen 
E. Trypsin oven
A

Plasminogen

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13
Q 
Which of the following drugs is not an NSAID 
A. Aspirin 
B. Diclofenac
C. Ibuprofen 
D. Paracetamol
E. Piroxicam
A

Paracetamol

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14
Q 
Alkylating agents used in cancer treatment 
A. Cross-link DNA 
B. Chemically reduce folic acid
C. Cause breakup of DNA in G0 phase
D. Inhibit spindle formation 
E. Block the actions of oestrogen
A

Cross link DNA

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15
Q

Muscarinic antagonists are effective in the treatment of asthma because they
A. Stimulate adrenergic receptors
B. Are anti inflammatory
C. Stabilise mast cells
D. Dilate bronchioles in asthmatic patients
E. Inhibit release if leukotrienes

A

Dilate bronchioles in asthmatic patients

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16
Q 
Calcium channel antagonists used in the treatment of hypertension can produce adverse effects such as
A, nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Joint pain
D. Muscle relaxation 
E. Ankle oedema
A

Ankle oedema

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17
Q 
Which region of the CNS can detect endogenous toxins of drugs in the blood and initiate the vomiting reflex? 
A. Hypothalamus
B. Cardioaccelatory centre
C. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
D. Vomiting centre
E. Cerebral cortex
A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

18
Q 
Carbamazepine, anti epileptic medication also used in analgesia decreases the plasma concerntration of 
A. Opioids 
B. Antidepressants 
C. Antihistamines
D. NSAIDs 
E. General anaesthetics
A

Opioids

19
Q 
Which of the following drugs stimulates release of insulin from pancreatic B-cells by closing ATP-sensitive K+ channels 
A. Thiazolidinedione
B. Biguanides
C. Glibenclamide
D. Incretin 
E. Insulin
A

Glibenclamide

20
Q 
Typical anti psychotics such as haloperidol may cause
A. Bradycardia
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Dry mouth
D. Sedation.
E. Diarrhoea
A

Sedation

21
Q 
A drug which inhibits the biosynthesis of RNA
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cefemenoxime
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
E. Penicillin 
D. Trimethoprim
A

Rifampicin

22
Q 
A drug which interferes with folate synthesis 
A. . Ciprofloxacin
B. Cefemenoxime
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
E. Penicillin 
D. Trimethoprim
A

Trimethoprim

23
Q 
A drug which inhibits protein synthesis 
A . Ciprofloxacin
B. Cefemenoxime
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
E. Penicillin 
D. Trimethoprim
A

Streptomycin

24
Q 
A drug which inhibits the biosynthesis of DNA 
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cefemenoxime
C. Rifampicin
D. Streptomycin
E. Penicillin 
D. Trimethoprim
A

Ciprofloxacin

25
Q

The nitrosourea compounds, lomustine and carmustine are useful because they
A. Act on cancer cell metabolism
B. Cross the blood brain barrier easily
C. Reduce the ability of cancer cells to grow
D. Treat hormone-secreting tumours
E. Kill cancer cells in the g0 compartment B phase

A

Cross the blood brain barrier

26
Q 
Sodium aurothiomalate and auranofin are disease-modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs (DMARDs) that contain which metal? 
Silver
Gold
Platinum
Magnesium
Copper
A

Gold

27
Q 
A new pill designed to protect against heart attacks and stroke could include any of the following types of drugs except
A. Anti hypertensive
B. Lipid lowering 
C. Folate
D. Antiplatlet 
E. Steroids
A

Steroids

28
Q

The mechanism of action of statins involves
A. Blocking Na channels
B. Reducing high density lipoproteins in the blood
C. Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
D. Reducing the excitability of the membrane

A

Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase

29
Q 
Nitrovasodilators such as GTN 
A. Are rapidly metabolised by the liver
B. Are effective in lowering cholesterol
C. Are slow acting 
D. Rarely have side effects
A

Are rapidly metabolised by the liver

30
Q 
The thrombolytic drug altepase activates the enzyme precursor 
A. Trypsinogen 
B. Fibrinogen 
C. Pepsinogen 
D. Plasminogen 
E. Plasmin
A

Plasminogen

31
Q

Aggressive treatment if high BP in stroke patients may cause the following problem
A. Patients may suffer liver damage as a side effect of the B-blockers
B. When stopping the drug the BP increases and causes a further stroke
C. Potentiation of asthma in asthmatics
D. Low BP causes blood flow to the brain to fall to a critically low level
E. Patients may feel dizzy

A

Potentiation of asthma attack in asthmatics

32
Q 
Alkylating agents used to treat cancer
A. Block the actions of oestrogen 
B. Cross-link DNA 
C. Chemically reduce folic acid 
D. Inhibit spindle formation
E. Cause the breakup of DNA in g0 phase
A

Cross link DNA

33
Q 
Ciclosporin is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following best describes it's effect on the body 
A. Anti-inflammatory
B. Analgesic 
C. Local anaesthetic
D. Immunosuppressant 
E. Antibiotic
A

Immunosuppressant

34
Q

NSAIDs can block the cox1 and cox2 enzymes - blocking cox2 reduces inflammation, while blocking cox1
A. Affects liver function
B. Reduces swelling in the periphery
C. Blocks prostaglandins that protect the stomach lining
D. Reduces gastric acid secretion
E. Regulates fever

A

Blocks prostaglandins that protect the stomach lining

35
Q

Benzodiazepines interact with
A. Noradrenaline receptor sites in the sympathetic nervous system
B. Serotonin metabolism
C. Acetylcholine receptor types in parasympathetic nervous system
D. GABA receptor sites
E. Dopamine receptor sites

A

GABA receptor sites

36
Q 
Captopril is a drug which blocks the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). It may be used in the treatment of
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Cardiac failure
D. Anxiety
E. Pulmonary embolism
A

Cardiac failure

37
Q 
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug associated with
A. Severe sedation
B. Severe hypotension 
C. Serve anticholinergic effects
D. Rash
R. Gastrointestinal disturbances
A

Severe sedation

38
Q

Which blocks the action of angiotensin II by acting on angiotensin II receptors
A. Amlodipine. E. Furosemide
B. Captopril. F. Nifedipine
C. Losartan G. Enalapril
D. Prazosin. H. Bumetanide

A

Losartan - an angiotensin II receptor antagonist

39
Q

Which inhibits noradrenaline by a selective action at alpha-1 adrenoceptors
A. Amlodipine. E. Furosemide
B. Captopril. F. Nifedipine
C. Losartan G. Enalapril
D. Prazosin. H. Bumetanide

A

Prazosin - an alpha blocker

40
Q

Which acts on the loop of henle in the nephron to reduce Na reabsorption
A. Amlodipine. E. Furosemide
B. Captopril. F. Nifedipine
C. Losartan G. Enalapril
D. Prazosin. H. Bumetanide

A

Furosemide

Bumetanide

41
Q

Which inhibits agonist-induced Ca entry into vascular smooth muscle by acting on voltage-sensitive Ca channels
A. Amlodipine. E. Furosemide
B. Captopril. F. Nifedipine
C. Losartan G. Enalapril
D. Prazosin. H. Bumetanide

A

Amlodipine

Nifedipine

42
Q

Which inhibits the enzyme responsible for the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II
A. Amlodipine. E. Furosemide
B. Captopril. F. Nifedipine
C. Losartan G. Enalapril
D. Prazosin. H. Bumetanide

A

Captopril

Enalapril

Pharmacology (13 decks)

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