Revision deck Flashcards
What antibiotics target small ribosomal unit? How do they work?
Target decoding site: prevents tRNA binding or moving through ribosome
Doxycylin, streptomycin
What antibiotics target large ribosome unit? Function?
Erythromycin
Prevents polypeptide chain elongation
tRNA function?
serves as link between amino acids and mRNA
3 methods of proteins getting into organelles?
nuclear pores: for nuclear proteins
protein translocators: cytosol to ER, mitochondria, peroxisomes
transport vesicles: ER onwards
How do ribosomes know how to get to ER?
signal peptide on protein being made
What is signal peptide?
sequence on n-terminal amino acid (end of polypeptide)
What happens in exocytosis in golgi apparatus?
protein anchored to ER membrane
vesicles from ER fuse with plasma membrane
What happens in endocytosis in golgi apparatus? example?
address label added in golgi apparatus for mannose-6-phosphate
bind to specific receptor in golgi membrane
go to endosome, matures to lysosome
hydrolase enzyme
What is mannose-6-phosphate?
lysosomal sugar chain
What things are degraded by protaosomal degregation?
short half life
key metabolic enzymes
defective proteins
proteins tagged with ubiquitin
What things are degraded by lysosomal degregation? how are they brought into cell?
long half life
membrane proteins
extracellular proteins
endocytosis
examples of lysosomal enzymes? what are they activated by?
lipases
nucleases
proteases
lysosomal acidic environment
What is proteasomal degradation dependent on? Where does it happen?
atp
cytosol in protasomes
What proteins are in PEST sequence?
proline
glutamic acid
serine
threonine
2 ways to segregate molecules?
organelles
multicomponent complexes e.g. organelles
where are proteins made?
cytosol on ribosomes
2 parts of ribosome?
60s+40s=80s
where is polypeptide threaded through?
protein channel translocon on ER membrane
What does electron transport chain require?
cytochrome c on inner membrane
how is apoptosis initiated?
release of cytochrome c from mitochondria to cytosol
peroxisome function? how? example?
degrades fatty acids by beta oxidation egg, oxidative enzymes, catalase
3 types of cytoskeleton?
microtubules
microfilaments
intermediate filaments
3 types of intermediate filaments?
keratin
vinementin (fibroblasts)
laming (nuclei)
intermediate filaments function?
structure and strength
function and composition of microtubules?
cell movement
organelle transport
mitotic spindle
a and b tubulin
2 yes of microtubules?
kinesics: cargo away from centrosome
dyne’s: cargo toward centrosome
axoneme function?
cytoskeleton of cilia and flagella
allow bending
(microtubules and dynein)
what are microfilaments made of and functions?
actin polymers
microvilli, stereo cilia, shape change, cytokenesis
2 cell-cell junctions and their cytoskeleton?
adherens - actin
desmosomes - intermediate filaments
2 cell-ecm junctions and their cytoskeleton?
focal adhesions - actin
hemidesmosomes - intermidate filaments
4 anchoring junctions?
adherens
desmosomes
hemidesmosomes
focal adhesions
gate and fence function (tight junctions)?
gate - regulates paracellular permeability
fence- forms apical and basolateral inter membrane diffusion barrier
gate is middle, fence 2 sides
gap junction composition?
hexameters and connexins
what specialisations do plasma cells have to produce antibodies?
RER, golgi apparatus
hepatocyte function?
lipid biosynthesis
leydig cell function?
steroid hormone biosynthesis
3 cilia functions?
mucus clearance
circulate csf
help ovum to uterus
what happens I Alzheimers?
tau protein dissociated from microtubules causing microtubule dissassembly
tay Sachs disease?
build up of gangliosides (lipids) in brain and spinal cord
deficiency In lysosomal enzyme
what are tight junctions composed of? where?
cluadins
epidermis
adherens composition? function?
cadherins
morphogenesis: contractility
desmosome composition? where?
desmosomal cadherins
keratins in epidermis connection
focal adhesion and hemidesmosome composition? focal adhesion function?
integrins
cell migration
what is membrane of gram negative bacteria?
lipopolysaccharide
order of gram staining?
crystal violet
grams iodine
ethanol
safranin
which cells take up residence in tissues?
dendritic cells
macrophages
mast cells
what activates complement? why does this happen?
plasmin
coagulation system activated in response to trauma
3 parts of complement causing inflammation? what do these activates?
c3a, c4a, c5a
mast cells
how do mast cells cause inflammation?
inflammatory mediators e.g. bradykinin
inflammatory lipids
cytokines
name inflammatory lipids?
prostaglandins
leukotrienes
platelet activating factor
name cytokines?
IL - 1,6,8,12 and TNF
Macriphage function? where do they come from?
phagocytose debris and kill with lysosomes, tissue repair
tissue resident or monocytes in blood
how do macrophages kill?
have phagocytic receptors binding microbes
bound material taken into phagosomes and broken down in phagolysosomes
How do toll like receptors work?
recognise PAMPs and then activate macrophages/dendiritic cells
what is interstitial fluid?
portion of plasma not re taken up by blood vessels, instead taken up by lymphatic vessels
where is lymph drained?
upper right body : right subclavian vein
upper left and lower body: left subclavian vein
lymph functions?
carries digestive proteins and fats
transports immune cells
lymph node function?
collects antigen from periphery
activates adaptive immune response
spleen function?
removes cellular waste and old blood cells
controls levels of blood cells
cellular and acellular microorganisms?
cellular: bacteria, fungi, protazoa
acellular- viruses, prions
how does bacteria reproduce?
binary fission
what bacteria is gram stain unreliable?
small, atypical life cycle, atypical structure
name GP cocci and rods, GN cocci and rods.
GP cocci:
staphyloccus aureus
streptococcus pneumonia’s
GP rods:
listeria monocytogenes
corynebacterim diphtheria
GN cocci:
nesseiria meningitidis
GN rods:
salmonella
E COLI
colonisation benefits?
inhibit infection
immune stimulation
vit K and B produced as by products
where are endotoxins found? example? what happens?
gram neg bacteria wall
lipopolysaccharide
when cell dies causes immune stimulation and sepsis
what are super antigens? where found? what happens?
exotoxins
gram positive
produced intracellular and released as mature toxins on infection
staph a, strep pyrogenes
TSS
T cell stimulation
what condition can zika cause?
microcephaly
through mosquitoes
how is monkeypox transmitted?
body fluids
mosquito borne diseases?
zika
elephantitis
malaria
yellow fever
dengue
west nile virus
how is:
plague
leishmanisis
lyme disease
african trypsosomaiis
caused?
fleas
sandflies
ticks
tsetse flies
what does kissing bugs cause?
chronic GI disease
water borne disease?
cholera
salmonella
ecoli
enterovirus
drug for schistosomiasis?
praziquantel
What is involved in innate immune response?
complement
neutrophils
macrophages
how does complement work? what are its activators and outcomes?
series of proteins in plasma, forms complex which is inserted into bacterial wall to kill them
antigen:antibody complexes, pathogen surfaces
inflammatory cell recruitment, opsonisation/killing of pathogens
when is innate and adaptive response?
innate - 4 hrs
adaptive: 96 hrs
how long do neutrophils live?
6-12hrs
primary and secondary neutrophil granules?
primary: lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, proteases/hydrolases
secondary: lysozyme, collegenase, lactoferrin
4 steps of innate migration?
rolling adhesion
tight binding
diapedesis
migration
pseudopodia function?
finger like projections of macrophages encapsulating apoptotic cells
humoral vs cell mediated response?
humoral: B cells make antibodies
cell mediated: T cell attack
what are B cell receptors?
antibodies
what does clonal selection?
antigen
what are epitopes:
things antibodies bind to
what is antibody neutralisation?
blocks adhesion of bacteria and viruses to mucosa
blocks active site of toxin
helper T cell function?
produce cytokines to direct immune response
help B cells and cytotoxic t cells
direct innate responses
what allows thymus to identify T cells?
cd3 complex
what is MHC I involved with?
cd8 cells
recognise antigen presented in context of mHC I in many cells and can be induced to kill
what is MHC II involved with?
CD4 cells
recognise antigen presented in context of MHC II on APCs and help them
what 3 signals do T cells require to activate?
antigen presented in MHC
surface molecule costmulation
cytokines
how are B cells activated?
T cells recognise antigen and produces effecter molecules to mature it
what 2 cell tyoes do B cells form?
memory
antibody secreting plasma cells
3 things required for clotting?
clotting factors
ca ions
negative phospholipid surfaces
capsule and pilli function in bateria?
capsule: slimy to avoid phagocytosis
pilli: attachment to host cell
how do bacteria bind to host cells?
adhesins - pilli coated in these
when are eosinophils active?
parasitic worms
allergic reaction
when are basophils active?
allergic reaction
plasma composition?
92% water
8% proteins, immunoglobulins, electrolytes
plasma functions?
collects waste around the body and transports to kidneys
maintain body temp
fibrinogen production
electrolytes maintain blood ph
how long do RBCs live and where are they broken down?
120 days
spleen/liver
how is platelet plug formed?
endothelium disrupted exposing collagen and von willebrand factor
platelets activated and adhere
release granules to recruit more platelets
what happens in extrinsic pathway?
activated when tissue factor III exposed
III binds with Ca and VIIa to activate X
factor VII requires vit K to activate
what happens in intrinsic pathway?
activated by activate dplatelets
IXa, VIIIa, Ca form complex to active X
how is factor VIII activated?
thrombin
what happens in final common pathway?
prothrombin to thrombin (Xa and V)
fibrinogen (soft clot) to fibrin (hard clot) by cross linking
how are clots lysed?
plasminogen converted to active plasmin by tpA
explain order of emergency triage
red - immediate - cardiac arrest
orange - 10-15 mins
yellow -60 mins
green - 4 hrs
blue go home
describe 4 types of shock?
distributive: severe peripheral dilation, anaphylaxis (histamine), sepsis (cytokines), neurogenic
hypovolaemic: loss of intracellular volume, e.g. haemorrhage, burns, trauma, GI bleeding, DKA
cariogenic: pump failure, arrythmia, MI
obstructive: barriers e.g. cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism
cardiac output formula?
HR x SV
What is a blood shunt?
take blood from non vital organs to allow heart to pump
triad of blood loss?
decreased coagulation = increased lactic acid in blood
acidosis = decreased heart performance
hypothermia = decreased coagulation
laceration vs incision wound?
laceration -blunt force trauma
incision - slash/stab
start codon and 3 stop codons?
AUG
UGA, UAG,UAA
degeneracy meaning?
different amino acids can make same protein in case of mutation
how do amino acids join?
condensation
sickle cell aneamia cause?
beta globin gene mutation
cystic fibrosis cause? usual function of gene?
CFTR
mucus transport in lungs/pancreas, chloride ion channel
mucus composition?
proteoglycans
glycocalyx function?
physical barrier around cells
Why do lipids appear optically empty?
dissolved in processing
how is Lyme disease contracted?
tick bites
what structure is staphylococcus aureus?
blue cocci in clusters
what cell is in pus?
neutrophils
IL-8 function?
attracts neutrophils
T helper 1 function?
macrophage activaton
which cells are MHC II?
dendritic cells
macrophages
B cells
which cells are MHC I?
nucleated cells
what happens to B cells in spleen?
activation and expansion
which is the first antibody produced in response to infection?
IgM
2 soluble components?
complement
antiboies
alteplase function?
converts plasminogen to plasmin
tranexamic acid function?
binds to plasminogen to decrease fibrinolysis
prevents excessive blood loss
which bones are
short bones
flat bones
irregular bones
sesamoid bones
short: wrist and ankle
flat: ribs, skull, sternum, scapula
irregular: vertebrae, sacrum, facial bones
sesamoid - patella
axial vs appendicular skeleton?
axial - body
appendicular - limbs
how many bones in viscerocranium and neurocranium?
viscero (face bones) 14
neuro 8
3 parts of pelvic girdle?
ilium
iscium
pubis
how many carpals, metacarpals, phalanges?
8,5,14 per limb
how many tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges?
7,5,14 per limb
what is implantation?
connection between embryo and maternal endometrium
what does trophoblast differentiate into?
cut-trophoblast, synctiotrophoblast (invasive, produces HCG)
where can ectopic pregnancy occur?
uterine tube
surface of ovary
peritoneal cavity
gi wall
amnion, yolk sac, chorion, allantois function?
amino - hypoblast, amniotic cavity, til brith
yolk sac - epiblast, nutrient transfer week 2-3, blood cell/gut formation, goes by week 20
chorion - double layer membrane, from trophoblasts, chorionic cavity, disappears when amnion expands, fetal component of placenta
allantois: outgrowth of yolk sac, umbilical arteries and fetal bladder,
what are germ cell teratomas formed from?
germ cells failed to develop into oocyte/sperm
3 CKIs? how do they work?
p21
p16
p27
block CDK activity by making inactive complex or acting as competitive ligand
what is maturation promoting factor?
CDK1/cyclin b
microtubule associated protein function?
spindle formation
what happens in restriction point?
RB binds to E2F which usually transcribes genes for S phase
when growth factor detected, was produces cyclin D and activated CDK4/6
kinase phosphorylates rb
3 tumor suppressors?
RB - cell cycle entry
p53 - DNA damage
BRCA1 - dna repair
what happens when p53 detects damage in G1/G2 checkpoints?
p53 produces p21 to prevent production of CDKs
cyclins/CDKs in:
G1
G1/S
S
M
g1: cyclin D, cdk4/6
g1/s: cyclin E, cdk2
s: cyclin a, cdk1/2
m: cyclin b, cdk1
thrombopoeitin function?
produces platelets
colony stimulating factor function?
myeloid lineage in haematopoeisis
name some protooncogenes?
EGFR, HER2, ABL, BRAF, RAS, cyclin d, myc
ras, braf, egfr, erb2 function?
ras: g protein transfusing signals from cell surface receptors
braf: kinase transducing signals
egfr: transmembrane receptor
erb b2: transmembrane receptor, breast cancer
where is bcr-abl found?
chronic myeloidleukaemia
bcl2 function?
inhibits apoptosis
mmp-8 and upa function?
mmp-8: breaks down collage in BM
upa: activates plasmin which is a protease
cyclopean is a failure of?
SHH signalling in development
herceptin/tranzutamab target?
HER2 (brest cancer)
salbutamol target?
b2 receptor
Gleevec/imatinib target?
bcr-abl in chronic myeloid leukaemia
where are steroid hormones derived from?
cholestrol
where are eiconaoids derived from?
lipids e.g. prostaglandins
how do steroid hormones work?
bind to intracellular receptors
hormone receptor complex acts as transcription factor
complex binds to dna and alters gene expression
which cyclin is regulated by mitogens? what are mitogens?
B
growth facto inducing proliferation
which cell cycle stage dependent on mitogens?
G1
Which molecule is a tetramer?
p53
which molecule binds to enzyme linked cell surface receptor?
EGF
5 parts of ecm?
collagen
elastin
proteoglycan
hyluoran
glycoproteins
fibrillin function?
assembles elastin
when is van giesen stain used?
connective tissue
IgG structure and functions?
pentamer
in blood plasma
most common
can cross placental barroer
IgA structure and function?
dimer
present in secretions
IgM function?
first line of defense
IgE function?
parasitic infections
activates mast cells and basophils
IgD function?
B cell maturation and actvation
haemophilia a cause?
VIII deficiency
haemophilia b cause?
IX deficiency - intrinsic
warfarin effect on coagulation?
effects vitamin k dependent clotting factors in extrinsic pathway = pt
anticoagulant drug
heparin effect on coagulation? usual function?
inhibits extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
anticoagulant
what is bronchiolitis?
cold progressing to coughing/wheezig/difficulty breathing
croup symtpom?
barking cough
influenza a surface proteins?
neuraminidase
haemagluttinin
normal cd4 count?
450-1660 cd4 cells/cm3
m protein function?
binds nucleocapsid to envelope
what enhances phagocytosis in TB eradication?
TNF alpha and interferon gamma enhance phagocytosis in macrophages
activated macrophages produce IL-12 AND 18 which produce INTERFERON GAMMA
macrophages prevent spread of tb but don’t eradicate it
how is disseminated disease caused?
lack of interferon gamma and its receptor
makes you more susceptible to getting TB
what is caseous necrosis?
form of cell death where cells resemble cheese
which hiv receptor binds to receptors of cd4 and ccr5?
GP120
granules in mast cell?
histamine, prostaglandin
primary vs secondary mast cell response? how are they activated?
IgE binds
primary: degranulation, histamine/proteases causes local irritation
secondary: arachidonic acid produces prostaglandin and luekatrienes to cause allergic response
which type of hypersensitivity is T cell mediated?
4
what 3 things are produced in islet of langerhans?
a - glucagon
b - insulin
d - somatostatin
what happens in diabetic islet?
T cell destroy beta cells so insulin isn’t produced
what molecule recognises silica acid in. respiratory epithelia?
haemagluittinin - attaches virus to host cells
neuraminidase function?
releases vriions fom cells
HIC coreceptor on T cells?
CCR5
how does measles infect?
respiratory system
primary vs secondary immunodeficiency?
primary - congenital
secondary - acquired
x linked scid cause?
mutated IL-2Ry chain
T and NK cells affected bUT B cells normal
IL-2R function?
scaffolding for receptors for cytokines
ada scid?
t,b,nk cells depleted
cause of hyper igm syndrome? what is seen in lymph nodes?
CD40L on t cells
no germinal centres: b cells not actiavted
foxn1 deficiency cause? what happens?
defective thymus
B cells normal but no T cells
alopecia
brutons aggamaglobulinaemia cause?
mutation in brutons tyrosine gene
no b cell develoment
chronic granulomata disease cause?
no superoxide burst due to mutated napdh enzymes
granulomas form
what happens in familial meditteranian fever?
inflammasome regulators mutated so too much IL-1 produced
Where is plasminogen synthesised?
liver
dengue vs influenza?
dengue has no respiratory symtpoms
What is Activated Plasmin?
a crude solution of plasminogen activated by urokinase.
Glycocalyx function?
-layer of carbohydrate covering cells
- cell recognition
- prominent in gut
What connects bone to bone?
ligaments
what connects muscle to bone?
tendons
what term means bones fused together?
synostosis
what is syndesmosis?
bones joined by connective tissue e.g. ligaments
what happens when ACH binds to ACHR?
sodium ions move in
potassium moves out
what type of virus is influenza?
myxovirus
titin function?
aligns thick filament in each sarcomere
which pathway has 2 neutrons?
visceral efferent
what is corpus callous?
links cerebral hemispheres but fibres cross over so each half of brain controls other half of body
conus medullaris vs cauda equina?
conus medullaris: lower end of spinal cord at L1/2
cauda equina: nerve rootslets from L2-5 , CSF can be extracted here
where are bipolar, unipolar, multipolar neutrons found?
bipolar - interneuron
unipolar- sensory
multipolar - motor/inter/pyramidal
which glial cells are dysfunctional in multiple sclerosis?
oligodendrocyte
which glial cells are dysfunctional in guillan barre syndrome?
schwann cells
what garde of tumor is glioblastoma?
IV
GREY VS WHITE MATTER?
grey: more cell bodies, dendrites, axon termini, astrocytes, blood vessels
white: axons, oligodendrocytes, blood vessels
cerebrum composition?
cerebral cortex, white matter, basal nuclei
diencephalon composition?
thalamus/hypothalamus
what cranial nerves arise from brainstem?
III - XII
What matter is cerebral cortex?
grey
brocas area?
speech impaired, can comprehend
Wernicke area?
speech good but no meaning, comprehension imapired
wankers spew crap
limbic system? functions?
amygdala: emotions
hippocampus: learning/memory
basal ganglia function?
control movement
thalamus function?
relay centre between spinal cord and cerebral cortex
c1-5 spinla nerve function?
breathing
l3-s1 spinal nevre function?
knee and foot movement
where do sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves come from?
sym: T1-12
para: cranial nerves and S2-4
where do sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves come from?
sym: T1-12
para: cranial nerves and S2-4
SPINOTHALAMIc tract vs corticospinal tract?
spinothalamic - ascending, temperature, pain, sensory
corticospinal - descending, motor, voluntary movement
epidural vs subdural space?
epidural: potenial, meningeal arteries supplying dura rupture space fills w blood
subdural: bridging veins connecting to venous sinuses rupture
difference between meninges at spinal cord?
dura is one layer
epidural space contains fat and venous plexus
where to do lumbar puncture?
L4-5
2 parts of blood brain barrier?
capillaries in nervous tissue, astrocytes cover vessel
ependymocytes have tight junctions, ventricles and spinal canal
where is blood brain barrier less?
area postrema in medulla for vomiting
pituitary gland (secretions)
function of each part of cerebrum?
parietal: sensory integration, language
frontal: executive functions, long term memory, speech, personality
temporal: auditory cortex
occipital: vision
function of:
astrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells
oligodendrocytes
schwann cells
nutrient supply
phagocytotic role
css production and circulation
Nueornal supportand myelin formation in CNS
myelin supply in PNS
which body system has slower nerve impulses?
endocrine
what happens during an ection potential?
sodium channels open and they flow into cell, depolarisation 40mv
potassium chanells open and flow out of cell, repolarisation
hyperpolarisation when too many potassium leave
restored by sodium potassium pump
mecanically gated channel stimuli?
tension in membrane
how is action potential generated?
summation of dendrite inputs
excitatory and inhibitory pre synaptic potentials
membrane potential must reach thereshold voltage e.g. -55mv
spacial vs temporal summation?
spacial: from different dendrites
temporal - repeated inputs from same dendrite
what is action potential frequency coded by?
frequency not magnitude
name:
amino acid neurotransmitters
catecholamine
acetycholine
peptides
glutamate (CNS excitatory) gaba (inhibitory)
dopamine, serotnin
neuromuscular junction
subtance p, endorphins
what happens when gaba binds? what kind of receptor is it? how is it turned off?
chloride ion channel opens
chloride ions flow into cell, theyre negative
hyperpolarisation occurs, hard to reach action potential
reuptaken into cell or degraded by enzymes
when is gaba used clinically?
anaesthetic, ethanol, Benzes as inhibiting action potential has sedative action
effect of ach binding to neuromuscular junction? how is it turned off?
nachr is sodium ion channel receptor
sodium enters and depolarises muscle cell memrbane
causes muscle contraction
acetycholinesterase
myasthenia graves cause?
autoimmune antibodies attach ach at neuromuscular junction
less muscle contraction = weakness of face muscles
ache inhibitors used
transcription factors function? which molecule acts on these?
affect rate of transcription positively or negatively
master regulators control how much protein is made
steroid hormones
what acts as a bridge between DNA and RNA polymerase II?
general/basal transcription factors bind to TATA box
promoter function?
transcription factors bind and affect how much protein is expressed
what happens if mutation in:
tata box of beta globin gene
ccr5 promoter
factor IX promoter
LDLR promoter
thalassaemia
HIV progresses to aids quicker
haemophilia B
familial hypercholestrolaemia
enhancer/silencer functions?
make ir more/less likely for promoter to be activated
oct1 function?
represses TSH production in all cells except thyrotrophs in pituatry
nucleosome function?
keep DNA closed to transcription factors
locus control region function?
opens DNA of all genes
sympathetic output origin? exception?
thoracolumbar origin
cervical ganglia
pre and post ganglionic sympathetic neurotransmitters? exception?
pre - acetycholine
post - noradrenaline
sweat glands and deep muslce vessels = acetycholine in post
functions of alpha 1 and 2 receptors?
1: arteriole constriction, increased blood pressure
2: coronary and venous vasoconstriction, lowers BP
functions of beta 1 and 2 receptors?
1 - increased heart rate and contractility
2- smooth muscle relaxation e.g. pupils, uterus, bladder
parasympathetic origin? neurotransmitters?
craniosacral outflow
acetycholine pre and post
what is in craniosacral outflow?
cranial 3,7,9,10
Sacral 2,3,4
m2 and m3 functions?
m2 - decreased heart rate and contraction
m3 - salivary glands, gut, bladder, eye. Returns to normal
effect of m2 antagonist?
increases heart rate
where are muscarinc receptors in brain?
m1,4,5
function of n1 and n2 receptors?
motor neurons
autonomic nervous system
what happens in brain stem death?
parylysis/unconsiousness, loss of cranial nerve function
c diff effect on body?
lives in gut and releases toxins
why is cell wall common antibiotic target?
humans don’t have peptidoglycan cell wall
which antibiotics target cell wall?
beta lactam e.g. peniclin, ceohalosporins
vancomycin
when is vancomycin used?
gram pos bacteria, cannot penetrate gram negwall
used for penicillin resistant bcateria e.g. MRSA
targets cell wall
which antibiotics are used on ribosomes?
doxyxyxlin, carithromycin
intracellular pathogens
what is ciprofloxacin used for?
DNA damage
what does trimethroprim used for and what’s its target?
cell metabolism
non severe UTI
aorta branches?
brachiocephali - carotid and subclavian
left carotid - head and neck
left subclavian - left lib
ductus venosus function? what does this become at birth?
allows bypass of fetal liver
ligamentum venosum
foramen ovale function? what does it become at birth?
allows blood to flow from right to left atrium
fossa ovalis
umbilical arteries function?
takes deoxygenated blood to placenta
where is external pacemaker usually positioned?
right atrial appendage
what arteries do left and right coronary arteries give rise to?
r - marginal artery
left - circumflex, Interventricular
name cardiac veins?
great cardiac vein
anterior cardiac vein
small cardiac vein
middle cardiac evin
coronary sinus
which lung has horizontal fissure?
right
which pressure becomes more negative in respiration?
pleural
how is information from RARs sent to brain? how does efferent info reach diaphragm ?
vagus nrve
phrenic nerve
what is a respiratory unit?
gas exchanging unit
respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli
where does co2 and o2 move in terms of alveoli?
co2 enters from capillary and o2 leaves to capillary
what is the respiratory tree?
conducting and respiratory airways
1st and 2nd heart sound?
1 av valves closing
2 pulmonary and aortic valves closing
what is stroke volume?
amount ejected per beat
what determines HR and why? what can act as secondary pacemaker?
sinoatrial node- fastest intrinsic rate
AV node
what is excitation contraction coupling?
purkinje fibres interdigitate with myocytes to spread impulses across ventricles
describe
P wave
QRS wave
T wave
P-R interval
ST interval
atrial depolarisation
ventricular depolarisation
ventricular repolarisation
delay through av node - gives atria time to eject more blood to ventricle
plateau phase of ap - sodium entering and potassium leaving, allows refractory period
which ions enter and leave in sa node? what happens if k+ permeability increases? what if Ca permability increase
calcium in, potassium out
bpm decrease and HR slows due to ACh
shorter time to thereshold and HR increases due to noradrenaline
where does r and l vagus terminate?
r - sa node
l -av node
vascular smooth muscle function?
determine vessel radius
secrete ecm for elasticity
what is mean arterial pressure? formula?
average pressure pushing blood round body
diastolic - 1/3 systolic-diastolic
explain the movements of the eyeball
superior rectus: eyeball elevation
inferior rectus: eyeball depression
lateral rectus: eyeball abducts
medial rectus: eyeball adducts
superior oblique: eyeball depression and abduction
inferior oblique: eyeball elevaes and abducts
what nerve innervates nearly all eye movements? exceptions?
oculomotor
trochlear: superior oblique
abducens: lateral rectus
which muscle keeps eyelid open
levator palpebrae superioris
which cranial nerve tase signals from cochlea to brain?
vestibulocochlear nerve
function of:
foramen caecum
vallate papillae
filliform papillae
fungiform papillae
where thyroid developed in early life
boundary between front and back of tongue
rough surface for food maniulation
taste buds
hypogastric, pudenal and pelvic sphlancnic nerve functions?
h - detrusor, inhibits contraction
h - internal urethral spincter, contraction
p - external urethral contraction
pelvic sphlancnic - detrusor contraction
psoas major function?
hip flexion
name the different ligaments in ovary?
Round ligament
Broad ligament
Suspensory ligament
Ovarian ligament
Rectouterine pouch
Round ligament maintains anteflexion of the uterus.
Broad ligament: mesentery
Suspensory ligament: blood supply of ovaries
Ovarian ligament: connects ovary and lateral aspect of uterus
Rectouterine pouch: double fold of peritoneum where fluid can collect
which joint is interpharangeal joints? plane? pivot?
hinge
acromioclavicular
atlantoaxial
what does hertz measure? what is sound pressure? what is difference between sound pressure against normal hearing? what is loudness?
pitch
frequency ofvibrations
db spl
db hl
strength of vibrations
what does first vs second branchial arch form in ears?
1 - malleus and incus
2 stapes
2 protective muscles in ears?
stapedius reflex
tensor tympani
describe muscle excitation
tonus vs tetany?
tightness vs sustained contaraction
tetanus order?
twitch
wave summation
imcomplete tetanus
complete tetanus
parts of muscle sarcomere
z line
a band
i band
h band
z - boundary of sarcomere
a - myosin and actin
I band - reduce in size, only actin
h - disappear, only myosin
summarise muscle contraction
nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction
ach released and binds with receptors on muscle membrane to allow sodium to enter
soium entry generate actin potential
