Revision Flashcards

1
Q

Normal oeseophageal histology

A

Non-keratinised squamous epithelium, lots of mucous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition of reflux oesophagitis

A

Inflammation of oesophagus due to refluxed low pH gastric content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Microscopic findings in reflux oesophagitis

A

Basal zone epithelial expansion

Intraepithelial neutrophils, lymphocytes and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Infections with what virus causes squamous papilloma?

A

Infection with HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a Kruckenberg tumour?

A

A tumour in the ovary that has metastasised from a primary site (usually GI e.g. stomach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The most metabolically active part of the bowel wall

A

The mucosa - therefore most sensitive to infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amyloidosis is a rare but serious complication which may occur in which disease?

A

In Crohn’s
(basically protein is deposited and ruins organs- most commonly the kidneys and patients present with nephrotic syndrome/impaired renal function/renal failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rare features of pancreatitis

A

Ischaemic (Purtscher) retinopathy

-may cause temporary or permanent blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Two potentially life-threatening causes of epigastric pain in young people?

A
  • appendicitis

- peptic ulcer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Preferred diagnostic test for pancreatitis?

A

CT pancreas WITH contrast - look for calcification
(with contrast gives clearer resolution than non-contrast)
(MRI poor at picking up calcifications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is pain worse in pancreatitis?

A

Typically worse 15-30 minutes after a meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gradual onset obstructive jaundice without a palpable gallbladder

A

Think cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Typically painless jaundice WITH palpable gallbladder

A

Pancreatic cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why do you need to manage jaundice?

A

Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a much higher incidence of septic complications, bleeding and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of suture should be used for vascular anastamoses?

A

Non-absorbable monofilament suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are retractile testis?

A

A testis that appears in warm conditions, or which can be brought down on clinical examination and does not immediately retract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Boas’ sign

A

This is when you get pain under the right scapula in acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

This is when you press on the left lower quadrant and get pain in the right lower quadrant (appendicitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do you see Cullen’s sign?

A

Seen in pancreatitis and in other causes of intra-abdominal haemorrhage (e.g. ectopic pregnancy rupture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When would you see Grey-Turner’s sign?

A

In pancreatitis, or other retroperitoneal haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A thyroidectomy may damage which nerve?

A

The laryngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inguinal hernia surgery may damage which nerve?

A

The ilioinguinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A carotid endarterectomy may damage which nerve?

A

The hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 34-year-old lady presents with a long standing offensive discharge from the ear and on examination is noted to have a reduction in her hearing of 40 decibels compared to the opposite side

A

Cholesteatoma

combination of offensive discharge and hearing loss is strongly suggestive of cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Treatment for C.diff
Vancomycin
26
Where would you find peyers patches?
Small intestine
27
Mucosal defence of large intestine
Enterocytes do defence
28
What do paneth cells release and where would you find them?
Release defensins | Found in small intestine
29
What could cause dry mouth?
Lack of saliva (e.g. infection, dehydration) Salivary gland disease (sjogrens syndrome, radiotherapy) Diabeties (diuretics!)
30
What might raise PSA levels?
benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prostatitis and urinary tract infection (NICE recommend to postpone the PSA test for at least 1 month after treatment) ejaculation (ideally not in the previous 48 hours) vigorous exercise (ideally not in the previous 48 hours) urinary retention instrumentation of the urinary tract
31
What might cause orofacial granulomatosis?
Allergy Crohn's disease Sarcoidosis
32
H. pylori can either increase acid secretion and cause ulceration, or decrease acid secretion and predispose to gastric cancer, how does the latter occur?
IL-1 beta production in stimulated by H. pylori infection | IL-1 beta is a powerful inhibitor of acid secretion
33
Imaging studies for oesophageal cancer?
Upper GI endoscopy Barium meal CT (MRI) scan of chest and abdomen Bronchoscopy
34
Treatment of oesophageal cancer
Surgery is only chance of "cure" (not suitable for T4/M1) Radiotherapy
35
Gastric cancer treatment
Total gastrectomy for proximal lesions Partial gastrectomy for distal lesions Radiotherapy Chemotherapy
36
Treatment of typhoid
Chloramphenicol and ciprofloxacin
37
How would you diagnose typhoid?
Blood culture is key to diagnosis
38
Which strains of hepatitis may cause fever and jaundice?
Hep A and Hep E (occasionally hep B)
39
Side effects of steroids
``` MSK - avascular necrosis, osteoporosis GI Cutaneous - acne, thinning of the skin Metabolic - weight gain, diabetes, hypertension Neuropsychiatric Cataracts Growth failure ```
40
Treatment of rectal gonorrhoea
Cephalosporin e.g. ceftriaxone | IM in the bum stat
41
Treatment of rectal chlamydia
Azithromycin (STAT dose) Doxycycline (7/7 course) Test of cure at 6 weeks
42
What is the nutcracker angle?
Angle between the abdominal aorta and superior mesenteric vein (renal vein may become compressed here in renal cancer --> varicocele)
43
Treatment of lymphogranuloma venerum
Doxycycline
44
Triad of Budd-Chiari syndrome
Abdominal pain Ascites Enlarged liver
45
What is Fitz-High curtis syndrome?
This is when pelvic inflammatory disease (usually chlamydia) causes adhesions between the abdominal wall and the liver
46
Usually recent upper respiratory tract infection. High grade fever. Generalised abdominal discomfort
Mesenteric adenitis
47
You think someone might have appendicitis, what other test must you do?
Pregnancy test
48
What is mittelschmerz?
Only seen in females - midcycle pain Usually occurs two weeks after last menstrual period Pain is usually suprapubic location. Usually subsides over a 24-48 hour period
49
Only seen in females - midcycle pain Usually occurs two weeks after last menstrual period Pain is usually suprapubic location. Usually subsides over a 24-48 hour period
Mittelschmerz
50
US findings of Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome?
Abdominal ultrasound may show free0flui
51
Management of Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
Usually managed medically - doxycylcine or azithromycin
52
Most common type of renal carcinoma?
Renal cell carcinoma (adenocarcinoma)
53
Is vasectomy effective immediately?
No, need to perform semen analysis at 16 and 20 weeks
54
Complications of vasectomy
Bruising, haematoma, sperm granuloma | Chronic testicular pain (affects between 5 and 30% of men)
55
"Someone is taking analgesia for a sore hip what do they have"
Perforated peptic ulcer (LOL MOST VAGUE PASSMEDICINE Q ever)
56
Which type of transplants are at risk of hyperacute rejection?
Renal transplants at greater risk, liver transplants least risk
57
Name a class of drugs that are nephrotoxic
NSAIDS | e.g. diclofenac
58
What type of cells are responsible for acute organ transplant rejection?
T cells
59
Someone has bubbly urine and frequent UTI, what causes this and what should you investigate for?
Enterovesical fistula - must investigate for underlying colorectal malignancy
60
Acute management of renal colic
IM diclofenac
61
Kidney stone treatment: 1) 0.7cm stone associated with hydronephrosis 2) A 1cm left sided ureteric caculus with no associated hydronephrosis 3) large staghorn calculus that measures 2.3cm in diameter
1) nephrostomy/uteroscopy and IV antibiotics 2) Extracorpeal shock wave lithotripsy 3) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (nephrolithotomy for large unusual shaped stones)
62
Thiazide diuretics may cause which type of stone?
Calcium stones
63
Cholestyramine may cause which type of stone?
Oxalate stones
64
Allopurinol may cause which type of stone?
Uric acid stone
65
What might raise PSA levels?
benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prostatitis and urinary tract infection (NICE recommend to postpone the PSA test for at least 1 month after treatment) ejaculation (ideally not in the previous 48 hours) vigorous exercise (ideally not in the previous 48 hours) urinary retention instrumentation of the urinary tract
66
Anti-muscarinic for overactive bladder
NICE recommend oxybutynin, tolterodine or darifenacin
67
Management of nocturia
- advise about moderating fluid intake at night - furosemide 40mg in late afternoon may be considered helpful - desmopressin may also be helpful
68
Diagnosis of pagets disease of the nipple
Punch biopsy, mammography and ultrasound of the breast
69
Where would you find Cloquet's lymph node?
In the inguinal canal
70
Borders of the femoral canal
Laterally - femoral vein Medially - lacunar ligament Anteriorly- inguinal ligament Posteriorly - pectineal ligament
71
Differences between hyperacute, acute and chronic organ rejection
Hyperacute - occurs immediately through presence of preformed antigens (e.g. HLA, ABO, complement) Acute - T cell mediated, occurs within first 6 months, MONONUCLEAR CELLS PREDOMINATE Chronic - occurs after 6 months, vascular changes predominate
72
Who is most likely to get intussception and KEY BUZZWORD?
Most likely to occur in children | Symptoms include rectal bleeding and RED JELLY STOOL
73
If Meckel's diverticulum were to present how might it?
Usually asymptomatic, but if it does present then usually before age 2 Symptoms include rectal bleeding, bowel obstruction, intusussception, volvulus or a picture similar to acute appendicitis
74
What is the lowest Gleason score for prostate cancer?
6 (the gleason score is comprised of the sum of the two most common histological patterns seen, the first number reflects the most common grading seen in all the samples, the second number is the highest grade of remaining tissue As such, the score can range from 2 to 10, however grades 1 and2 not usually used so lowest score is 3+3 = 6)
75
What side are varicoceles most likely to present?
Left side
76
What is the most sensitive test of acute pancreatitis?
Lipase
77
What is the nutcracker angle?
Angle between the abdominal aorta and superior mesenteric vein (renal vein may become compressed here in renal cancer --> varicocele)
78
Investigation of suspected renal stone
FIRST do ultrasound and then if you think there is a stone, do non-contrast CT (NON-CONTRAST) - if you use contrast then it basically becomes invisible
79
A 73 year old lady is admitted with a brisk rectal bleed. She is otherwise well and the bleed settles. On examination her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Elective colonoscopy shows a small erythematous lesion in the right colon, but no other abnormality
Angiodysplasia (can be difficult to identify and treat because might be missed if poor bowel preparation) Bleeding may be massive however may cause few symptoms The right side of the colon is more commonly affected