Respiratory AI Flashcards
What are some of the diseases/problems that can lead to the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the alveoli?
Some of the diseases/problems that can lead to the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the alveoli include aspiration of gastric content, severe upper-airway obstruction, electric shock, seizures, pancreatitis, smoke inhalation, and DIC.
What is the difference between cardiogenic and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema in dogs?
Cardiogenic edema is typically seen in the perihilar region while non-cardiogenic edema is more frequent in the caudodorsal regions or, if due to aspiration, in the cranioventral regions.
What is the recommended treatment for non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (NCPE)?
Control of the underlying disease/cause is essential in the process of trying to tackle NCPE. Supportive therapy, including oxygen supplementation, is indicated. There is limited evidence that other drugs such as diuretics, inotropes or corticosteroids work. In more severe cases, mechanical ventilation might be necessary.
What is acute lung injury (ALI) and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) associated with?
ALI and ARDS are associated with inflammation and changes in alveolocapillary membrane, leading to the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the alveoli.
What is the treatment for pulmonary haemorrhage or contusion?
Treatment is largely supportive with oxygen supplementation (minimizing stress as much as possible), analgesia, judicious fluid therapy +/- others as needed on a case-by-case basis. Antibiotic use is not routinely recommended unless there is a bacterial pneumonia associated with the contusion.
What are some causes of non-traumatic pulmonary hemorrhage?
Some causes of non-traumatic pulmonary hemorrhage include infectious causes (leptospirosis and Angiostrongylus infection), coagulation anomalies, pulmonary hypertension, neoplasia, lung lobe torsion, vigorous exercise in racing dogs, and iatrogenic (e.g. lung mass aspiration).
What are the common presenting signs for both primary and metastatic neoplasia in the lung?
Coughing is a common presenting sign for both primary and metastatic neoplasia. Older animals are more frequently affected and usually have other chronic non-respiratory systemic signs such as reduced appetite and weight loss.
What are the radiographic findings of metastatic pulmonary disease in dogs and cats?
In dogs, metastatic pulmonary disease is often seen as multiple, discrete nodules of variable sizes or alternatively a diffuse interstitial pattern. In cats, the findings can range from ill-defined nodules to a diffuse alveolar pattern. Pleural effusion may be present concurrently.
What are some possible causes of unilateral nasal discharge in dogs?
Possible causes of unilateral nasal discharge in dogs include foreign body, trauma, tooth root abscess, early fungal infection, neoplasia, and coagulopathy.
How can nasal airflow be assessed in dogs?
Nasal airflow in dogs can be assessed by holding a refrigerated microscope slide in front of each nostril to check for fogging of the glass or by placing a wisp of cotton from a cotton ball in front of each nostril to observe movement.
What is a specific feature of canine sinonasal aspergillosis?
Nasal depigmentation is a relatively specific feature of canine sinonasal aspergillosis, occurring in about 40% of the cases due to the toxins produced by Aspergillus.
Why is it important to evaluate the dental arcade and teeth during a physical examination?
Evaluating the dental arcade and teeth is important because dental-related nasal disease is usually related to the canine or carnassial teeth. Tooth root disease can be present without external evidence of it.
What is dyspnoea and how is it clinically observed in our patients?
Dyspnoea is the feeling of shortness of breath or breathlessness. Clinically, respiratory distress is observed in patients with dyspnoea. Patients in respiratory distress may refuse to lie down, stand with abducted elbows, have extended necks, and exhibit marked flaring of the nares.
What is the importance of minimal restraint and avoiding head and neck manipulation in dyspnoeic patients?
Minimal restraint and avoiding head and neck manipulation are critical in dyspnoeic patients as they are fragile and stressful handling, especially in cats, can lead to cardiopulmonary arrest.
What should be done immediately when faced with a patient in respiratory distress?
When faced with a patient in respiratory distress, immediate oxygen supplementation should be started while assessment is underway.
What should be considered when assessing respiratory patterns and lung sounds in cats?
When assessing respiratory patterns and lung sounds in cats, it should be noted that they are more subtle compared to dogs. Cats can mask significant changes despite significant disease and decompensate quickly when handled.
Define chronic bronchitis.
Chronic bronchitis is defined as an inflammatory disorder of the lower airways that causes a daily cough and for which other causes have been excluded.
Define asthma.
Asthma is defined as a disease of the lower airways that causes airflow limitation (usually a combination of airway inflammation, accumulation of airway mucus, and smooth muscle contraction), which can resolve spontaneously or in response to treatment.
What is the postulated hypersensitivity type responsible for asthma and chronic bronchitis?
The changes seen in asthma and chronic bronchitis are postulated to result from a type I hypersensitivity reaction within the airways.
What are some clinical signs of asthma and chronic bronchitis?
Some clinical signs of asthma and chronic bronchitis include chronic coughing, wheezes, tachypnea, and acute respiratory distress.
What are some radiographic changes associated with asthma and chronic bronchitis?
Radiographic changes associated with asthma and chronic bronchitis include a bronchial pattern, alveolar pattern areas, lung hyperinflation, and evidence of hyperinflation (presence of the diaphragmatic crus at the level of L1-L2).
What should be considered as a potential differential prior to diagnosing chronic lower airway disease?
Parasitic disease should be considered as a potential differential prior to diagnosing chronic lower airway disease.
What is the recommended treatment for cats with frequent clinical signs (1-2 times per week) of chronic bronchitis?
Prednisolone has traditionally been the treatment of choice for cats with frequent clinical signs (1-2 times per week) of chronic bronchitis.
What are some potential side effects of long-term treatment with prednisolone?
Potential side effects of long-term treatment with prednisolone include weight gain, possible diabetes mellitus, or iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism.
What are the three stages of laryngeal collapse?
Stage 1 involves laryngeal cartilage fatigue and degeneration, leading to partial laryngeal collapse. Stage 2 includes further reduction of the lumen of the larynx, and Stage 3 is the most advanced stage with complete laryngeal collapse.
What is the controversial treatment for laryngeal collapse?
The removal of the laryngeal saccules is controversial, as it has been associated with increased pre-operative complications and should be considered on a case-by-case approach.
What is the most common type of neoplasia in the larynx of dogs and cats?
Squamous cell carcinoma and lymphoma are the most common types of neoplasia in the larynx of dogs and cats.
What is the group of abnormalities that result in upper airway obstruction known as?
The group of abnormalities that result in upper airway obstruction is known as brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome (BOAS).
What are some of the congenital abnormalities associated with brachycephalic syndrome?
Some of the congenital abnormalities associated with brachycephalic syndrome are stenotic nares, shortening and flattening of the nasal cavity and pharynx, elongation and thickening of the soft palate, and possible tracheal hypoplasia.
What are some acquired abnormalities that can occur in cases of brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome?
Acquired abnormalities that can occur in cases of brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome include oedema and further thickening of the soft palate, eversion of the laryngeal saccules, oedema of the pharyngeal and laryngeal mucosa, enlargement of the tonsils, and progressive laryngeal dysfunction that can culminate in laryngeal collapse.
Which breeds are most commonly affected by brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome?
English Bulldog, Pug, Boston Terrier, Shih Tzu, and Persians are breeds most commonly affected by brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome, although it can occur in other breeds as well.
What surgical treatments are recommended for brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome?
Surgical treatment includes correction of stenotic nares, resection and thinning of the soft palate, and resection of the everted laryngeal saccules.
What is the most common disease in the group of lung diseases mentioned in the course notes?
Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy (EBP)
What are the clinical signs exhibited by patients with Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
Coughing, retching, increased respiratory effort, and dyspnoea
What imaging findings are reported in cases with Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
Moderate to severe diffuse bronchoalveolar pattern, alveolar pattern, bronchiectasis, peribronchial cuffing, nodular pattern, and bronchial obstruction with fluid or tissue
What is the main differential diagnosis for Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
Angiostrongylus infection, Dirofilaria infection pulmonary migration of parasites, and eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy
What is the treatment for Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
Corticosteroid treatment, with the clinical signs usually disappearing within 1 week. In some cases, low-dose long-term medication may be necessary.
What is the most common interstitial lung disease mentioned in the course notes?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
What are the clinical signs exhibited by patients with Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
Chronic history of coughing, exercise intolerance, tachypnea, and sometimes a right-sided systolic murmur if secondary pulmonary hypertension developed
What are the treatment options for Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
Treatment options are limited, and if there is secondary pulmonary hypertension, treatment should be initiated. Prognosis is guarded.
What is Pulmonary thromboembolism (PTE) and how can it occur?
PTE is a condition in which a blood clot obstructs the pulmonary artery or its branches. It can occur if there is at least one of the three key elements of Virchow’s triad: blood stasis, hypercoagulability, or vascular wall injury.
What are some common diseases causing upper airway disease?
Some common diseases causing upper airway disease include laryngeal paralysis, tracheal collapse, and brachycephalic syndrome.
What are the major methods of thermoregulation, especially in dogs?
The major method of thermoregulation, especially in dogs, is panting.
Which drug is commonly used in patients with respiratory distress?
Butorphanol is the most commonly used drug in patients with respiratory distress.
When should rapid induction for endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy be performed?
Rapid induction for endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy should be performed if anti-anxiety medication and supportive treatment doesn’t improve/resolve respiratory distress or if the patient is thought to be at risk of imminent arrest.
What are some abnormalities in the pleural cavity?
Some abnormalities in the pleural cavity include pleural effusion, pneumothorax, and space-occupying lesions such as neoplasia or diaphragmatic rupture.
What are the signs of pleural space disease?
Patients with pleural space disease typically have restrictive breathing (short, rapid, shallow breathing).
What are the diagnostic uses of thoracocentesis in cases with pleural effusion?
Thoracocentesis is not only therapeutic but also of diagnostic use in cases with pleural effusion as fluid analysis can help narrow down the differential diagnoses.
What should be performed as soon as possible to stabilize a patient suspected of having pleural effusion or pneumothorax?
Thoracocentesis should be performed as soon as possible to stabilize a patient suspected of having pleural effusion or pneumothorax.
What are some immediate complications of temporary tracheostomy?
Immediate complications of temporary tracheostomy can include plugging of the tube, patient removal of the tube, gagging, coughing, subcutaneous emphysema, pneumomediastinum, pneumothorax, infection, and respiratory distress.
Why is the rate of complications higher in cats compared to dogs after temporary tracheostomy?
The rate of complications is higher in cats (87%) compared to dogs due to cats forming more mucus than dogs, which can lead to more severe complications.
What is the most significant long-term complication of temporary tracheostomy?
The most significant long-term complication of temporary tracheostomy is the development of stenosis of either the site of the stoma, the site of the cuff, or the tube tip.
What is the average decrease in luminal area reported in dogs at 60 days after tube removal?
A study in dogs reported an average decrease in luminal area of 25% at 60 days after tube removal.
When can sedation be used in animals with respiratory distress?
Sedation can be used to improve the dynamic component of upper respiratory obstruction in conditions such as tracheal collapse, brachycephalic syndrome, and laryngeal paralysis.
What should be considered when administering sedation to animals with respiratory distress secondary to congestive heart failure?
The benefits vs side-effects must be weighed carefully when administering sedation to animals with respiratory distress secondary to congestive heart failure.
What is one commonly used drug for sedation in animals with respiratory distress?
Butorphanol is one of the drugs most commonly used for sedation in animals with respiratory distress.
How should hyperthermia be controlled in animals with respiratory distress?
Hyperthermia in animals with respiratory distress should be controlled through active cooling with room temperature fluid therapy, fans, and cool towels around the body.
What is the recommended treatment for patients diagnosed with laryngeal paralysis and hypothyroidism?
Patients diagnosed with laryngeal paralysis and hypothyroidism should be treated with thyroxine, although this does not usually improve the clinical signs associated with laryngeal paralysis.
What is the definitive diagnostic method for laryngeal paralysis?
The definitive diagnosis of laryngeal paralysis most commonly requires visual assessment of the larynx.
How can false positives due to anesthesia be ruled out during laryngeal paralysis diagnosis?
To rule out false positives due to anesthesia, it is important to have an assistant help identify the phase of the breathing cycle and avoid false positives caused by paradoxical movement of the arytenoid cartilages.
What emergency management measures should be taken for dogs in respiratory distress?
Emergency management of dogs in respiratory distress includes supplemental oxygen, sedation, and active cooling of hyperthermic patients.
When should a temporary tracheostomy tube be used in the treatment of laryngeal paralysis?
Placement of a temporary tracheostomy tube should be avoided unless it is not possible to successfully extubate the patient, as it is associated with higher post-surgical complication rates.
What are the goals of surgery for laryngeal paralysis?
The goals of surgery for laryngeal paralysis are to improve the size of the rima glottis to prevent severe respiratory distress and reduce stridor, although the patient is likely to continue coughing.
What percentage of dogs may experience post-operative aspiration pneumonia following laryngeal paralysis surgery?
Post-operative aspiration pneumonia has been reported in 8-19% of dogs who have undergone laryngeal paralysis surgery.
Why should dogs with laryngeal paralysis not go swimming?
Dogs with laryngeal paralysis should not go swimming because there is a risk of aspiration.
What were the types of heart disease observed in the cats referred for cardiac evaluation?
Most of the cats had some form of cardiomyopathy but some had other forms of heart disease (e.g., congenital heart disease).
What were the sensitivity and specificity values for the test used to identify cats with moderate-severe subclinical HCM?
The test was found to be 84% sensitive and 83% specific (accuracy 83%).
When can the NT-proBNP test be used?
The NT-proBNP test can be used to help strengthen (or weaken) other diagnostic findings, but should never be evaluated in isolation.
What are the types of drugs commonly used for treatment without achieving a definitive diagnosis?
The types of drugs commonly used are antibiotics, diuretics, bronchodilators, vasodilators, and glucocorticoids.
What are the potential complications associated with excessive use of diuretics?
Excessive use of diuretics can be associated with severe dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia, and metabolic alkalosis), and pre-renal azotaemia.
What is the role of Pimobendan in treating congestive heart failure?
Pimobendan has inotropic and vasodilator properties and can help stabilize patients with congestive heart failure.
What are the bronchodilators commonly used for respiratory diseases?
Theophylline, terbutaline, and salbutamol are commonly used bronchodilators.
What should be considered for patients in severe respiratory distress that fail to respond to supportive treatment?
Intubation and IPPV (Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation) should be considered.
What are some points to inquire about when assessing a respiratory patient?
NAME?
What are some physical examination points specifically relevant to the respiratory system?
NAME?
How is respiratory effort classified?
Respiratory effort can be classified as inspiration, expiratory, or mixed.
What is stertor and what does it indicate?
Stertor is a low-pitched snoring sound generally associated with obstructive diseases affecting the nasal passages and nasopharynx. It is frequently encountered in brachycephalic breeds.
What is stridor and when is it heard?
Stridor is a high-pitched noise heard during inspiration, as there is rapid flow of air past a rigid obstruction. It is heard frequently with diseases affecting the larynx, laryngeal paralysis, laryngeal collapse, cervical tracheal collapse, and nasopharyngeal stenosis.
What is cyanosis and when is it visible?
Cyanosis is the greyish to purplish color of tissues that occurs due to the presence of deoxygenated hemoglobin. It is a late sign of hypoxemia and is visible when the amount of deoxygenated hemoglobin is above 3-5g/dL.
Why is auscultation essential in assessing patients?
Auscultation is essential in assessing patients as it allows for the evaluation of breath sounds and can provide important information about the condition of the respiratory system.
What is the purpose of using tubing held adjacent to or within 2cm of the patient’s nostrils in an emergency?
The purpose is to provide oxygen supplementation to the patient during triage and assessment.
What is the recommended oxygen flow rate for delivering oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask?
The recommended oxygen flow rate is 2-5L/min.
What is one disadvantage of using oxygen hoods made in the hospital using cling film, tape, and a rigid Elizabethan collar?
One disadvantage is that incorrectly built collars can lead to carbon dioxide accumulation and hyperthermia.
How can oxygen concentration, humidity, and temperature be controlled for oxygen administration in cats?
Oxygen cages are available commercially and allow control over these parameters.
What is one potential problem with using oxygen cages?
Whenever the cage door is opened, the FiO2 quickly decreases.
When should placement of a nasal or nasopharyngeal catheter be considered for oxygen supplementation?
It should be considered when oxygen supplementation is needed for more than 24 hours.
What is the advantage of placing a catheter directly into the trachea (trans-tracheal oxygen supplementation)?
It is an effective means of administering increased FiO2 to patients that are intolerant to nasal or hood oxygen, and have upper airway obstruction.
How can a catheter be connected to a humidified source of oxygen during trans-tracheal oxygen supplementation?
It can be connected using a cut-off of a 1ml syringe or a Xmas tree.
What is the main function of the respiratory system?
The main function of the respiratory system is to supply oxygen to the cells in the body for aerobic respiration and remove carbon dioxide.
What are the structures that air passes through in the respiratory system?
Air passes through the nares, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.
What is the role of the pleural fluid?
The pleural fluid allows the visceral pleura and parietal pleura to slide over each other without friction, linking the thorax with the lungs.
Which muscle is the main inspiratory muscle?
The main inspiratory muscle is the diaphragm.
How does inspiration occur?
During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and pulls caudally, increasing the intra-abdominal pressure, enlarging the thoracic cavity, and creating a negative pressure for air to move into the lungs.
What is the total arterial blood oxygen content dependent on?
The total arterial blood oxygen content is dependent on the concentration of hemoglobin, its degree of saturation, and the amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood.
What is hypoxia and hypoxemia?
Hypoxia is a decrease in the level of oxygen supply to the body tissues, while hypoxemia is the inadequate oxygenation of the arterial blood.
What are methods for evaluating the ability of the lungs to oxygenate arterial blood?
Arterial blood gas analysis and pulse oximetry are methods for evaluating the ability of the lungs to oxygenate arterial blood.
What are some common causes of Pulmonary Thromboembolism (PTE) in dogs?
Some common causes of PTE in dogs are immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, sepsis, hyperadrenocorticism, and cardiomyopathy.
What are the most frequent culprits of PTE in cats?
In cats, neoplasia and cardiomyopathy are the most frequent culprits of PTE.
What are some features of the underlying disease often encountered on physical examination in patients with PTE?
Some features of the underlying disease often encountered on physical examination in patients with PTE are pale mucous membranes and a pot-bellied appearance.
What radiographic patterns can be seen in PTE?
In PTE, it is possible to see an alveolar pattern or blunting of the pulmonary vessels on radiographs.
What diagnostic technique is preferred for confirming a PTE diagnosis?
Thromboelastography is preferred for confirming a PTE diagnosis.
What is the preferred imaging technique for diagnosing PTE?
CT angiography is the technique of choice for diagnosing PTE, although it is rarely performed for this purpose in veterinary medicine.
What is the recommended treatment for PTE?
Treatment of PTE is largely supportive with medication to try to prevent further thromboembolic disease (e.g. low-molecular weight heparin or anti-platelet drugs) while also addressing the underlying cause.
When should prophylactic treatment for PTE be started?
Prophylactic treatment for PTE should be started if a patient is diagnosed with a disease that predisposes to it, as the prognosis for PTE is guarded.
What is the recommended rate of fluid administration in ml/kg/min?
The recommended rate of fluid administration is 50-100mls/Kg/min.
How should the catheter be secured to the neck?
The catheter should be secured to the neck with lengths of white tape.
What technique can be used to keep excess skin out of the way during catheter placement?
Horizontal mattress sutures can be used to keep excess skin out of the way during catheter placement.
What is the range of achievable inspired oxygen (in %) for an oxygen cage?
The achievable inspired oxygen for an oxygen cage ranges from 21% to 60%.
What is the mean FiO2 achieved with positive pressure ventilation?
The mean FiO2 achieved with positive pressure ventilation is 21-100%.
Why is a FiO2 below 50% usually chosen for patients that require oxygen supplementation for a reasonable period of time?
A FiO2 below 50% is usually chosen to avoid oxygen toxicity.
What should be performed if clearing the airway is not possible for patients with upper airway obstruction?
If clearing the airway is not possible, endotracheal intubation should be performed to secure the airway and ventilation.
What factors are considered when selecting an antibiotic for a patient?
The patient’s overall health status is usually considered when selecting an antibiotic.
Which antibiotics may be adequate for cases of mild disease?
Oral trimethoprim/sulphonamide, doxycycline, cephalexin, or potentiated amoxicillin may be adequate for cases of mild disease.
What type of treatment is recommended for patients with severe disease?
Patients with severe disease would benefit from intravenous antibiotics and other supportive treatment.
When should the simultaneous use of 2 or more antibiotics be reserved?
The simultaneous use of 2 or more antibiotics should be reserved for individual selected cases where there is very severe disease, especially when culture and sensitivity is not possible.
What is the minimum period of treatment for most cases?
The minimum period of treatment should be 10 days, although a much longer course is advisable in most cases.
How long should patients with recurrent pneumonia or a known underlying disorder be treated?
Patients with recurrent pneumonia or a known underlying disorder should be treated for 4 to 6 weeks as a minimum.
When should antibiotic therapy ideally be discontinued?
Antibiotic therapy should be discontinued based on documentation of radiographic resolution of the problem; continue antibiotics for 1 to 2 weeks after Xrays back to normal.
What treatment is usually not indicated for patients with bacterial pneumonia?
The use of mucolytics (e.g. N-acetylcysteine) is usually not indicated for patients with bacterial pneumonia.
What is the stress caused by thoracic radiographs in patients with respiratory distress?
Stressful procedure that can cause significant decompensation.
How many views of the thorax should be obtained in a patient who is stabilized?
At least two views, ideally three views.
What does TFAST stand for?
Thoracic focused assessment with sonography for trauma.
What are the 5 points used for TFAST3 exam?
Chest tube site (CTS) right, Chest tube site (CTS) left, Pericardial site (PCS) right, Pericardial site (PCS) left, Diaphragmatico-hepatic site (DH).
What is the best use of CTS views in TFAST3?
Ruling out pneumothorax and surveying for possible lung pathology.
What does DH assess in TFAST context?
Presence of pleural fluid, pericardial fluid, and diaphragmatic rupture.
What is VetBLUE used for?
Extending thoracic ultrasound to non-trauma patients with extra points of assessment of the thorax.
Why is the placement of an intravenous catheter important in dyspnoeic patients?
Allows administration of IV medication and a route to administer fast acting drugs if necessary.
What is the purpose of performing a thoracic focused assessment with sonography in trauma (TFAST)?
It can provide valuable information about the patient’s condition.
When should a TFAST be performed?
It can be performed with the patient in sternal recumbency or standing, but training and experience are needed to use it effectively.
What should be done if further diagnostics are not deemed safe for an unstable patient?
Empirical treatment should be instituted.
When can diagnostic tests be performed?
They can be performed when the patient is stable to help achieve a diagnosis or confirm clinical suspicion.
Why is it important to observe the breathing pattern in dyspnoeic patients?
Observing the breathing pattern can aid in localizing the pathology and help select a more targeted treatment.
What is the normal respiratory rate in a patient?
The normal respiratory rate is 10-30 breaths per minute with expiration being slightly longer than inspiration (ratio inspiration:expiration of 1:1.3).
What are the obstructive and restrictive breathing patterns seen in dyspnoeic patients?
Obstructive breathing patterns are slower and deeper breaths, while restrictive patterns are short, rapid, and shallow breaths.
What is paradoxical breathing and what conditions is it associated with?
Paradoxical breathing is the decreased chest wall movement and inward movement of the abdomen during inspiration. It is most frequently seen in patients with pleural disease and thoracic wall disease.
Why is pain management important in patients with hypoventilation?
Pain has a significant impact on the ventilation status.
What is the term used to describe when an animal with flail chest has a segment of the hemithorax moving paradoxically during breathing?
Flail chest
What are the common signs seen in patients with small airway disease?
Marked expiratory effort, wheezes and/or crackles on auscultation.
What are the treatment options for patients with small airway disease?
Bronchodilators (terbutaline IV or SC) and short-acting corticosteroids.
What types of diseases affect the pulmonary parenchyma?
Problems affecting the alveolar ducts, the alveoli, the pulmonary vasculature, and the pulmonary interstitium.
How can imaging help in diagnosing the cause of respiratory distress in a stable patient?
Imaging can help dramatically narrow down the potential cause.
What are the most common causes of pulmonary parenchymal disease?
A. Pneumonia (bacterial, viral, parasitic, etc) B. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema C. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
What treatment should be started if cardiogenic pulmonary edema is suspected?
Treatment with diuretics, pimobendan +/- other drugs.
What is the name of the curve that plots the relationship between SpO2 and PaO2?
The curve is named the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve.
What shape does the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve have?
The curve has a sigmoid shape.
What important characteristic does the right side of the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve have?
Small changes in SpO2 are associated with large changes in PaO2 on the right side of the curve.
What is the approximate SpO2 value when PaO2 is around 60mmHg?
The SpO2 is still around 90%.
Can SpO2 measurements discriminate PaO2 values above 100?
No, SpO2 measurements can’t discriminate PaO2 values above 100.
What is the gold-standard for assessing arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)?
Arterial blood gases are the gold-standard for assessing PaCO2.
