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Small Animal Medicine (GP cert) > Emergency critical care 2 AI > Flashcards

Emergency critical care 2 AI Flashcards

1
Q

When can clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity occur?

A

Up to 2-7 days post ingestion.

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2
Q

What should be determined if possible in cases of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?

A

The type of toxin ingested.

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3
Q

What is the preferred route of administration for continuous rate infusion (CRI) therapy?

A

Intravenous

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4
Q

What are the advantages of CRI administration over bolus therapy for hypercalcaemia?

A

Better diuresis and calciuresis

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5
Q

How can sodium bicarbonate be used in the management of an acute hypercalcaemic crisis?

A

To produce alkalosis and reduce serum ionized calcium levels

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6
Q

What are the effects of steroids on hypercalcaemia?

A

Enhance renal excretion, reduce intestinal uptake, and decrease bone absorption

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7
Q

What are the possible differential diagnoses for hypercalcaemia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism, Addison’s disease, renal failure, vitamin D toxicity, idiopathic or infectious disease, osteolysis, neoplasia, and spurious causes

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8
Q

What is the absolute requirement for glucose in the body?

A

The brain has an absolute requirement for glucose

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9
Q

What causes insulin to be released by the pancreas?

A

In response to elevated serum glucose, amino acids, and gastrointestinal hormones

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10
Q

What are the functions of insulin in glucose metabolism?

A

Encourages hepatic glycogen and fatty acid production, inhibits glucose production and glycogen breakdown

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11
Q

How is glucose stored in the body?

A

As glycogen, mainly in the liver

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12
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypoglycaemia?

A

Behavioural changes, ataxia, and seizures

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13
Q

What is the treatment for hypoglycaemia causing neurological signs?

A

Parenteral glucose administration

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14
Q

How can glucose be administered for hypoglycaemia treatment?

A

As a bolus (0.5g/kg i/v) or through a CRI of glucose-containing fluids

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15
Q

What is the recommended solution concentration for glucose administration?

A

2.5-10% glucose saline

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16
Q

What should be done if an insulinoma is suspected in hypoglycaemia treatment?

A

Avoid rapidly giving glucose boluses, consider frequent feeding and glucagon infusions instead

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17
Q

What are the possible differential diagnoses for hypoglycaemia?

A

Excess insulin, growth hormone deficiency, cortisol deficiency, glucagon deficiency, hepatic disease, vascular disease, increased substrate use, fasting hypoglycaemia in pregnancy, neonatal, juvenile, or toy dog hypoglycaemia, insulin overdose, prolonged blood storage, portable analyser error

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18
Q

What are the possible causes of marked hyperglycaemia?

A

Diabetes mellitus or stress in cats

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19
Q

How can mild hyperglycaemia be differentiated from stress in cats?

A

Serial blood glucose measurements, serum fructosamine concentrations, or home urine samples

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20
Q

What are some drugs used for management of post-resuscitation ventricular tachycardia?

A

Lidocaine and specific anaesthetic antagonists

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21
Q

What is the use of sodium bicarbonate during resuscitation?

A

It is used for severe metabolic acidosis

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22
Q

What is recommended for arterial blood flow maintenance after restoring heart rate and rhythm?

A

Dopamine

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23
Q

Why should aggressive fluid therapy be avoided during CPCR?

A

Excessive fluid administration can result in decreased coronary and cerebral perfusion

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24
Q

When is fluid therapy usually given during CPCR?

A

If the animal was hypovolaemic prior to the CPA

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25
Q

What is the routine technique for monitoring forward blood flow during CPCR?

A

Palpation of the femoral pulse

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26
Q

What can be misleading about palpation of the femoral pulse?

A

Compression can generate venous pulses due to backflow of blood in the caudal vena cava

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27
Q

What is the significance of retinal blood flow during resuscitation?

A

If retinal blood flow is present, it suggests adequate cerebral perfusion should be present

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28
Q

What are some signs of effective circulation that should be monitored during CPCR?

A

Improvement in mucous membrane color, reduction in capillary refill time, and reduction in pupil size

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29
Q

Why should pulse oximetry be avoided during CPCR?

A

Pulsatile blood flow is usually inadequate

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30
Q

What information does measurement of ETCO2 with a capnograph provide during CPCR?

A

It reflects the success of ventilation in moving CO2 from peripheral tissues to the lungs

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31
Q

What does a reliable trace of ETCO2 suggest during resuscitation?

A

It is a good indicator of successful perfusion

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32
Q

Should ventilation cease immediately on return of spontaneous respiration?

A

No, it should continue as required until the patient regains consciousness

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33
Q

What complications should be avoided during post-resuscitation monitoring?

A

Pulmonary edema, renal failure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation

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34
Q

What neurological abnormalities can be expected after CPA?

A

Blindness and proprioceptive deficits

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35
Q

Should glucocorticoids be administered to patients with neurological abnormalities after CPA?

A

No, as they may worsen outcomes by causing hyperglycemia

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36
Q

What is the normal anion gap in dogs?

A

Approximately 8-25 mEq/l

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37
Q

What is the normal anion gap in cats?

A

Approximately 10-27 mEq/l

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38
Q

What does the anion gap reflect?

A

The difference in measurable anions and cations

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39
Q

What are the main contributors to the anion gap?

A

Plasma proteins, lactate, and ketones

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40
Q

What causes normochloraemic high anion gap acidosis?

A

Accumulation of inorganic ions, diabetic ketoacidosis, uraemia, lactic acidosis, certain toxins

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41
Q

What causes hyperchloraemic or normal anion gap acidosis?

A

Diarrhoea, renal tubular acidosis, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, acidifying agents

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42
Q

How does hypoalbuminaemia affect the anion gap?

A

Reduces the anion gap, decrease by 3mEq/l for every 10g/l decrease in albumin concentration

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43
Q

What is the strong ion difference (SID)?

A

The difference between sodium and chloride, approximately 36-38mEq/l in dogs and cats

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44
Q

What does an increase in SID indicate?

A

Hypochloraemia and metabolic alkalosis

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45
Q

What does a decrease in SID indicate?

A

Hyperchloremic acidosis

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46
Q

How can strong ion difference be estimated?

A

[Na+] - [Cl-]

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47
Q

How is strong ion difference used in assessing mixed acid-base disorders?

A

In combination with the anion gap

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48
Q

How can arterial samples be used for evaluation?

A

To evaluate respiratory function (PCO3 / PO2)

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49
Q

How can venous samples be used for evaluation?

A

To evaluate acid-base balance

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50
Q

What pH range is considered normal in patients?

A

pH 7.35-7.45

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51
Q

What are the criteria for metabolic acidosis?

A

HCO3 < 20mmol/l or BE <-4mEq/l

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52
Q

What are the criteria for metabolic alkalosis?

A

HCO3 > 24mmol/l or BE > 4mEq/l

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53
Q

What are some causes of hyperglycemia?

A

Diabetes Mellitus, Stress, Postprandial, Hyperadrenocorticism, Pheochromocytoma, Dioestrus, Acromegaly, Head trauma, Drugs

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54
Q

What happens in diabetes due to a lack of insulin?

A

Impaired glucose storage, utilization, and uptake

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55
Q

What is the alternative energy source when there is a lack of available energy in diabetes?

A

Fat

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56
Q

What are fatty acids oxidized into in the liver under the control of glucagon?

A

Ketone bodies

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57
Q

What is the result when ketone body production in diabetes outstrips utilization?

A

Acidosis ketosis

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58
Q

What is one of the most common endocrine emergencies in veterinary patients?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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59
Q

What is the mortality rate of diabetic ketoacidosis in people?

A

5-10%

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60
Q

What should be considered if there are limited facilities or complicating factors in managing diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Referral

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61
Q

What neurological signs are seen in hyperosmolar, non-ketotic diabetes?

A

Increased serum osmolality, treated similarly to DKA

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62
Q

What is the role of magnesium in cellular mechanisms?

A

Essential cofactor for Na/K ATPase and NMDA receptor

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63
Q

What can hypomagnesemia lead to?

A

Refractory hypokalemia

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64
Q

At what rate is magnesium supplementation given?

A

0.01-0.04 mmol magnesium/kg/hour

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65
Q

What should be considered for faster fluid administration and sampling during stabilization in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

A central line

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66
Q

How can serum ketones be measured?

A

By placing serum onto a urine dipstick

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67
Q

What is the recommended fluid for volume resuscitation in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

0.9% NaCl or Hartmann’s solution

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68
Q

What is the suggested volume for fluid boluses in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

10ml/kg given over 10-20 minutes

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69
Q

When can insulin therapy be initiated in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Once volume resuscitation is complete

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70
Q

What does the Base Balance (BE) measure?

A

Base Balance (BE) provides a quantitative estimation of surplus acid or base.

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71
Q

What does a positive Base Balance (BE) value indicate?

A

Positive BE values reflect an excess of base or deficit of acid.

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72
Q

What is the normal value of Base Balance (BE) for a neutral environment?

A

A normal animal should have a BE value of zero.

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73
Q

How is Base Balance (BE) defined?

A

BE is the amount of strong acid required to titrate 1L of blood to a pH of 7.4 at 37°C.

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74
Q

What does Base Excess < -4 mEq/l or HCO3 < 20mmol/l indicate?

A

Base Excess < -4 mEq/l or HCO3 < 20mmol/l reflects metabolic acidosis.

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75
Q

What are common causes of metabolic acidosis?

A

Common causes include gain of acid (e.g. diabetic ketoacidosis), lactic acidosis, toxins, renal failure, and loss of bicarbonate.

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76
Q

What does Base Excess >4mEq/l or HCO3 >24mmol/l indicate?

A

Base Excess >4mEq/l or HCO3 >24mmol/l reflect metabolic alkalosis.

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77
Q

What are common causes of metabolic alkalosis?

A

Common causes include acute profuse vomiting, excessive use of diuretics, pyloric outflow obstruction, and bicarbonate therapy.

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78
Q

What does PaO2 measure?

A

PaO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood.

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79
Q

What is the normal range for PaO2 at sea level?

A

The normal range for PaO2 is 90-100mmHg at sea level, breathing room air.

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80
Q

How does altitude affect PaO2?

A

Altitude results in ‘normally’ lower PaO2 values, with compensatory increases in red blood cells.

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81
Q

What PaO2 value is considered hypoxia?

A

PaO2 < 80mmHg is considered hypoxia.

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82
Q

How is the Alveolar-Arterial O2 Difference (A-a Gradient) calculated?

A

A-a gradient = PAO2 - PaO2

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83
Q

What does the Alveolar-Arterial O2 Difference (A-a Gradient) measure?

A

The A-a Gradient measures the difference in O2 tension between the alveolus and artery, providing information about lung function.

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84
Q

What are the normal values for the A-a gradient?

A

Normal values for the A-a gradient are 5-15 mmHg.

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85
Q

What does O2 saturation (SaO2) measure?

A

O2 saturation (SaO2) measures the percentage of O2 bound to hemoglobin.

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86
Q

What is considered a normal value for O2 saturation (SaO2)?

A

SaO2 > 95% is considered normal.

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87
Q

What is the potential cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?

A

Anaesthetic overdose, acute hypoxia, acidosis, toxicity, and cardiogenic shock

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88
Q

What are the potential causes of ventricular fibrillation?

A

Unknown in small animals, but common in humans

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89
Q

How can ventricular fibrillation be distinguished from PEA?

A

By observation of an ECG

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90
Q

What is the recommended treatment for PEA?

A

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPCR) and adrenaline

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91
Q

What is the recommended treatment for ventricular fibrillation?

A

Defibrillation with a defibrillator or mechanical defibrillation

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92
Q

Which route offers the quickest access to the central circulation for drug administration?

A

Central venous access

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93
Q

What should be done after administering drugs through peripheral venous access?

A

Followed by a large volume flush to move the drug into the central circulation

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94
Q

What is the recommended replacement interval for drawn-up drugs in syringes?

A

Every 2-4 weeks

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95
Q

What are the effects of adrenaline on α-adrenergic receptors?

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and blood flow to the head

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96
Q

What are the effects of adrenaline on β-adrenergic receptors?

A

Increased heart rate and contractility

97
Q

What is the risk associated with high dose adrenaline?

A

Increased myocardial oxygen demand

98
Q

When is low dose adrenaline suggested as the initial treatment?

A

In the first instance, moving to high doses if there is no response

99
Q

Which drug is recommended to treat sinus bradycardia, 3rd degree AV block, or increased vagal tone?

A

Atropine

100
Q

What is the caution advised with atropine dosing?

A

Can cause marked rebound tachycardia, increasing myocardial oxygen demand

101
Q

What are some other useful drugs in specific circumstances?

A

Not mentioned in the course notes

102
Q

What action is required to determine the cause of thoracic disease stopping chest expansion?

A

Thoracic auscultation +/- thoracocentesis

103
Q

What are the potential complications of over forceful ventilation?

A

Lungs barotrauma, haemorrhage, and pneumothorax

104
Q

What are the potential consequences of rapid ventilation causing hypocapnia?

A

Reduced cerebral perfusion

105
Q

What are the potential consequences of prolonged long inspiratory times?

A

Increased intrathoracic pressure reducing venous return

106
Q

What can be done if spontaneous ventilation resumes during CPR?

A

A full CPA may have been avoided

107
Q

What acupuncture point can be considered in a respiratory arrest?

A

Jen Chung (GV26)

108
Q

Where should a hypodermic needle be inserted during acupuncture of GV26?

A

Mid-line of the nasal philtrum below the nares

109
Q

What should be avoided as a reversal agent for drugs that cause apnea?

A

Doxapram

110
Q

Why should doxapram be avoided?

A

It decreases cerebral blood flow and leads to increased oxygen requirements

111
Q

What is an essential component of successful CPR?

A

Effective chest compressions

112
Q

What is the aim of chest compressions in terms of chest wall compression?

A

At least 25-33% compression

113
Q

What is the recommended compression rate during CPR?

A

80-120 compressions per minute

114
Q

Should compressions be continued during ventilation?

A

Yes

115
Q

What technique is suggested for performing chest compressions in cats and small dogs?

A

Cardiac pump technique

116
Q

What technique is recommended for larger dogs or when the cardiac pump technique is ineffective?

A

Thoracic pump technique

117
Q

When should open-chest CPR be considered?

A

In larger dogs (>20kg) or animals with pleural space disease, pericardial effusion, or chest wall trauma

118
Q

What is performed during open-chest CPR in order to directly compress the heart?

A

Rapid left sided lateral thoracotomy

119
Q

What can be considered to direct forward blood flow to the brain during open-chest CPCR?

A

Cross clamping the aorta

120
Q

What should be done after successful open-chest CPCR?

A

Thoroughly lavage the chest, collect samples for culture, and close the incision aseptically

121
Q

What should be placed as soon as possible after CPR to identify the underlying arrest rhythm?

A

ECG

122
Q

What are the most common arrest rhythms in small animals?

A

Asystole and PEA (Pulseless Electrical Activity)

123
Q

What is the recommended treatment for asystole?

A

Aggressive CPR and adrenaline

124
Q

What is pulseless electrical activity (PEA) previously known as?

A

Electromechanical dissociation (EMD)

125
Q

What are the learning objectives of this module?

A

The learning objectives include understanding emergency data bases, electrolyte abnormalities, acid base analysis, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

126
Q

What is the purpose of an initial laboratory database in emergency medicine?

A

The initial laboratory database is used to assess PCV/TS, buffy coat, total solids, blood smear, and platelet counts.

127
Q

How is PCV/TS measured and what does it indicate?

A

PCV/TS is measured on a microhaematocrit centrifuge and indicates the level of white blood cells and total proteins in the blood.

128
Q

What is the normal range for total solids (TS) and what does it signify?

A

The normal range for TS is 60-80g/l (or 6-8g/dL) and it provides an estimation of total proteins in untreated patients.

129
Q

How can jaundice and haemolysis be assessed using the laboratory database?

A

Jaundice can be assessed by visually examining the serum color, and haemolysis can be detected through the buffy coat and blood smear analysis.

130
Q

Why is it important to make a smear at the time of blood sampling?

A

Making a smear at the time of blood sampling allows for further assessment of anaemia, white cell numbers, platelet numbers, and morphology.

131
Q

Why is manual evaluation of platelet counts essential?

A

Platelets may clump easily and not be counted correctly during automated counting, requiring manual evaluation for accurate platelet numbers.

132
Q

What is the significance of breed variation in platelet counts?

A

Certain breeds like greyhounds have lower normal platelet counts, while Cavalier King Charles Spaniels have circulating macrothrombocytes.

133
Q

What is the recommended anticoagulant to prevent platelet clumping during counting?

A

Citrate anticoagulant is recommended if platelet clumping is a consistent problem during counting.

134
Q

What tools are needed to evaluate a blood smear in-house?

A

Evaluating a blood smear in-house requires a practice microscope and appropriate stains.

135
Q

When should a blood smear be prepared?

A

A blood smear should be prepared as soon as possible after blood sampling.

136
Q

What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in critically ill patients?

A

Hypokalemia

137
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypokalemia?

A

Muscle weakness, cramping, and lethargy

138
Q

What are the effects of hypokalemia on the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Ileus due to smooth muscle weakness

139
Q

What are the effects of hypokalemia on the urinary system?

A

Urinary retention secondary to detrusor muscle atony

140
Q

What cardiac abnormalities may occur with hypokalemia?

A

Prolongation of the QT interval and arrhythmias

141
Q

How can hypokalemia lead to metabolic acidosis?

A

Chronic hypokalemia may lead to defective renal tubular acidification

142
Q

What is the treatment for hypokalemia?

A

Treating the underlying cause and improving serum potassium levels through infusion

143
Q

What is the maximum rate of intravenous infusion for potassium in hypokalemia treatment?

A

0.5mmol/kg/hour

144
Q

What other electrolyte may need supplementation if hypophosphatemia is present?

A

Potassium phosphate

145
Q

What is the recommended oral supplementation for long-term treatment of hypokalemia?

A

Potassium gluconate of 2-6 mmol/l/cat/day

146
Q

What are the possible causes of hypokalemia due to decreased intake?

A

Anorexia and potassium deficient IVFT

147
Q

What are the possible causes of hypokalemia due to translocation?

A

Alkalosis, insulin/glucose-containing fluids, and catecholamine β-agonist overdosage

148
Q

What are the possible causes of hypokalemia due to increased loss?

A

GIT loss (vomiting or diarrhea) or renal loss (chronic renal failure, renal tubular acidosis, mineralocorticoid excess, drugs)

149
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalemia?

A

Increased intake, decreased excretion, or translocation out of cells

150
Q

What are the life-threatening consequences of hyperkalemia?

A

Change in cardiac resting membrane potential leading to bradycardia, widened QRS complexes, ventricular fibrillation, and cardiac arrest

151
Q

How can the effects of hyperkalemia on cardiac output be reduced in the emergency situation?

A

By increasing the difference between the resting potential and threshold with increased serum calcium concentrations

152
Q

What is the treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

Treating the underlying cause and reducing the hyperkalemia and its effects

153
Q

What can be used to increase the difference between the resting potential and threshold in the emergency treatment of hyperkalemia?

A

Calcium gluconate

154
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypernatraemia?

A

Dullness, lethargy, anorexia, coma, seizures.

155
Q

At what serum sodium level do neurological signs usually appear?

A

When serum sodium levels exceed 170mmol/l.

156
Q

What are idiogenic osmoles?

A

Osmotically active osmoles produced by the brain to balance the increase in plasma osmolarity.

157
Q

What is the suggested rate of sodium reduction when treating hypernatraemia?

A

No greater than 0.5mol/l/hour.

158
Q

How long will it take to reduce a serum sodium of 200mol/l to normal (150mmol/l)?

A

100 hours i.e. 4 days.

159
Q

What fluid is usually used for volume resuscitation in hypernatraemia?

A

0.9% sodium chloride.

160
Q

What fluid may be used if solute gain has occurred in hypernatraemia?

A

5% glucose.

161
Q

How does frusemide help in hypernatraemia?

A

It helps spread sodium excretion by enhancing it by loss by approximately 17 times.

162
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for hypernatraemia?

A

Pure water deficit, primary hypodipsia, diabetes insipidus, high environmental temperature, hypotonic fluid loss, osmotic diuresis, renal failure, impermeant solute gain, salt poisoning, hypertonic fluid administration, hyperaldosteronism, hyperadrenocorticism.

163
Q

What is the equation used to predict the effects of infusing various fluids?

A

Change in serum Sodium = Infusate [Na+] - Serum [Na+] / [Body weight (kg) x 0.6] + 1.

164
Q

How long is the recommended treatment for Coumarin (warfarin) products?

A

7 days

165
Q

What is the recommended treatment duration for Indanediones?

A

3-4 weeks

166
Q

Which generation of compounds has the longest half-lives?

A

Second generation

167
Q

Where can screens for rodenticides be performed?

A

Nutristasis Unit of Guys and St Thomas’s Hospital, London

168
Q

How can falsely negative samples be avoided for rodenticide testing?

A

Samples taken in the early stages of the disease

169
Q

What can be measured to support exposure to anticoagulant rodenticides?

A

Vitamin K1 and Vitamin K1 reductase

170
Q

What can be administered to stop significant absorption of rodenticides?

A

Activated charcoal

171
Q

How long are animals treated with oral vitamin K for after rodenticide ingestion?

A

7 days

172
Q

When is i/m dosing of Vitamin K1 recommended?

A

Initially, as absorption is rapid

173
Q

What should be done if clotting factors are diluted further during volume resuscitation?

A

Consider colloids

174
Q

What should be done if local bleeding occurs during rodenticide treatment?

A

Control local bleeding with pressure, surgery, packs, or phenylephrine

175
Q

How should Vitamin K be administered to avoid haematoma formation?

A

Given in several small doses with a fine needle

176
Q

How long is the suggested treatment duration if the toxin ingested is unknown?

A

4-6 weeks

177
Q

What can be done to improve vitamin K absorption?

A

A fatty meal

178
Q

When should PT be rechecked after the last dose of Vitamin K?

A

48 hours

179
Q

How long should treatment be continued if PT remains elevated after the initial treatment?

A

2 weeks

180
Q

What is the main intracellular cation?

A

Potassium

181
Q

Which tissues are affected by disruption to normal potassium levels?

A

Heart, muscles, and nerves

182
Q

Where are serum potassium levels controlled?

A

By the kidneys

183
Q

What is the normal range for serum potassium levels?

A

3.5-5 mmol/l

184
Q

Why are serum potassium levels elevated compared to plasma samples?

A

Potassium released during the clotting process

185
Q

What can increase blood potassium levels?

A

Thrombocytosis

186
Q

Which animals have similar concentrations of potassium in their red cells and plasma?

A

Adult feline and canine

187
Q

What can cause elevated potassium concentrations in serum?

A

Haemolysis

188
Q

How are potassium concentrations controlled within red cells?

A

By sodium potassium ATPase activity

189
Q

Which breed may genetically lack membrane sodium potassium ATPase activity?

A

Shiba Inu

190
Q

What are the possible respiratory acid-base disorders?

A

Respiratory acidosis (PCO2 > 45mmHg) and respiratory alkalosis (PCO2 < 35mmHg)

191
Q

What is the compensatory mechanism for primary base disorders?

A

Changes in either the respiratory or metabolic compartments induce a compensatory change in the opposite compartment

192
Q

How quickly can the lungs compensate for changes?

A

Lungs can compensate within minutes by altering minute volume

193
Q

When does renal compensation typically start?

A

Renal compensation starts after a few hours and has maximal effect at 4-5 days

194
Q

What does the presence or absence of compensation indicate?

A

Presence of compensation indicates chronicity while absence suggests a mixed disorder

195
Q

How can we evaluate oxygenation?

A

Arterial PO2 should be approximately 5 times the inspired O2 concentration (FiO2)

196
Q

What does venous PO2 provide information about?

A

Venous PO2 gives information about oxygen extraction by the tissues and delivery adequacy

197
Q

What is the purpose of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?

A

To provide circulatory and respiratory support and produce the return of spontaneous circulation

198
Q

What are the two categories of patients in cardiac arrest studies?

A

Irreversible cases (end-stage disease) and reversible causes (anaesthetic overdoses, electrolyte imbalances)

199
Q

What is essential for successful CPR?

A

Good preparation, teamwork, and access to necessary equipment

200
Q

How many team members are needed to perform effective CPR?

A

At least three team members

201
Q

What is the recommended duration for chest compressions before changing operators?

A

2-3 minutes

202
Q

What should be done when an arrest is discovered?

A

Move the animal onto a suitable firm surface in a well-lit and accessible area

203
Q

What should be included in a well-stocked crash box?

A

Endotracheal tubes, laryngoscope, gauze bandage, ambubag, intravenous catheters, tape, needles, syringes, urinary catheters

204
Q

Can effective CPCR be performed alone?

A

No, but chest compressions alone may prevent short-term hypoxia until help arrives

205
Q

What are some drugs that should be included in the tracheal drug administration kit?

A

Adrenaline, atropine, lignocaine

206
Q

What is the purpose of administering oxygen during CPR?

A

To assist and improve ventilation

207
Q

What is a relatively common cause of cardiopulmonary arrest in veterinary medicine?

A

Vasovagal syncope

208
Q

How can vasovagal syncope be treated to prevent cardiac arrest?

A

Timely treatment with low-dose atropine

209
Q

What does basic life support consist of?

A

Establishing airway, providing positive pressure ventilation, generating effective circulation

210
Q

What is the first priority in basic life support?

A

Establishing a patent airway

211
Q

How can correct endotracheal tube placement be confirmed?

A

By visualisation, cervical palpation, appropriate chest wall excursion

212
Q

What is the ideal way to provide positive pressure ventilation?

A

Using an Ambu bag with 100% oxygen

213
Q

What ventilatory rate is appropriate for most patients during CPR?

A

8-12 breaths/minute

214
Q

What should be observed during positive pressure ventilation?

A

Normal degree of chest excursion with even inflation and relaxation

215
Q

What is the loading dose of insulin for i/m protocol?

A

0.2 IU/kg.

216
Q

How frequently should the i/m dose be decreased?

A

Every hour.

217
Q

What is the recommended dose of neutral insulin for subcutaneous injections?

A

6 hourly.

218
Q

How often should blood glucose concentrations be measured?

A

Every 1-2 hours.

219
Q

What is the suggested supplementation if blood glucose is less than 12 mmol/l?

A

2.5% glucose solution.

220
Q

How much 50% glucose should be added to a 500ml bag if blood glucose is less than 12 mmol/l?

A

25ml.

221
Q

When should lente insulin be commenced?

A

Once the patient is eating and ketonuria has resolved.

222
Q

What is the rate of intravenous infusion for potassium supplementation?

A

Not exceed 0.5mmol/kg/hour.

223
Q

How much KCl should be added to 250ml 0.9% NaCl if serum potassium is less than 2 mmol/l?

A

20 mmol.

224
Q

What is the gold standard for assessment of respiratory function?

A

Arterial blood gas analysis.

225
Q

What is the recommended anti-coagulant for arterial blood samples?

A

Heparin.

226
Q

Where are arterial blood samples commonly taken from?

A

Dorsal pedal artery.

227
Q

How long should samples be stored before running the analysis?

A

As quickly as possible.

228
Q

What significant changes in PO2 occur after 12 minutes at room temperature?

A

Significant changes.

229
Q

What changes occur in acid-base balance after 30 minutes at room temperature?

A

Significant changes.

230
Q

What are the three forms of calcium in the extracellular space?

A

Ionized calcium, protein-bound calcium, and complexed calcium

231
Q

Which form of calcium more accurately reflects biologically active calcium?

A

Ionized calcium

232
Q

How can changes in serum proteins affect serum total calcium levels?

A

Changes in serum proteins can markedly change serum total calcium levels

233
Q

How does pH affect the proportion of bound calcium without altering the total amount present?

A

Changes in pH can change the proportion of bound calcium without altering the total amount present

234
Q

What is the normal reference interval for ionized calcium?

A

The normal reference interval for ionized calcium is usually around 1.1 to 1.4 mmol/l

235
Q

At what calcium concentration do clinical signs of hypocalcaemia usually present?

A

Clinical signs of hypocalcaemia usually present at calcium concentrations below 2mmol/l

236
Q

What are some initial clinical signs of hypocalcaemia?

A

Initial clinical signs can be subtle e.g. fascial irritation or prolapse of the 3rd eyelids

237
Q

What are some signs of increased neuromuscular excitability related to hypocalcaemia?

A

Muscle twitching, stiffness, ataxia, and seizures are frequently seen signs of increased neuromuscular excitability related to hypocalcaemia

238
Q

What can result from increased muscle activity in hypocalcaemia?

A

Hyperthermia can result from increased muscle activity in hypocalcaemia

239
Q

What are some cardiac manifestations of hypocalcaemia?

A

Tachyarrhythmias, a prolonged Q-T interval, and hypotension are cardiac manifestations of hypocalcaemia

Small Animal Medicine (GP cert) (22 decks)

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