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Small Animal Medicine (GP cert) > Canine infectious disease AI > Flashcards

Canine infectious disease AI Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common environments where Leptospira can be found?

A

Drainage ditches, ponds, slow flowing rivers, and lakes.

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2
Q

What are the sources of infection with L.Icterohaemorrhagiae for both dogs and humans?

A

Rats

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3
Q

What is the main reservoir of L.canicola?

A

Dogs

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4
Q

For how long can Leptospira be shed in the urine after clinical infection or by an asymptomatic carrier?

A

Many months

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5
Q

What is the aim of treatment for Leptospira infection?

A

Elimination of the renal carrier state

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6
Q

Under what conditions will Leptospira survive in the environment?

A

Sufficient humidity and moderate temperature

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7
Q

What activates Leptospira?

A

Sunlight or low/high pH

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8
Q

What are the routes through which infection with Leptospira can take place?

A

Penetrating skin or mucous membranes of oral cavity, pharynx, conjunctiva, and intestinal mucosa

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9
Q

After infection, what happens during the initial leptospiraemia phase?

A

Leptospira circulates in the blood for about one week

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10
Q

Which tissues do Leptospira usually localize in after the initial leptospiraemia phase?

A

Liver, spleen, kidneys, and lymph nodes

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11
Q

Which serovar tends to produce a nephropathy and severe inflammation of the interstitium?

A

L.canicola

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12
Q

Which serovar tends to produce acute hepatitis and perivascular haemorrhage with liver involvement?

A

L.Icterohaemorrhagiae

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13
Q

What happens to the levels of protective antibodies after recovery from a Leptospira infection?

A

They remain high for a long time

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14
Q

What are the common clinical signs of Leptospira infection?

A

Lethargy, anorexia, pyrexia, vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice

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15
Q

What can pulmonary haemorrhage indicate during a Leptospira infection?

A

L.Icterohaemorrhagiae infection

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16
Q

What can uraemia with oral ulceration indicate during a Leptospira infection?

A

L.canicola infection

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17
Q

What can be a possible outcome in severe cases of Leptospira infection?

A

Rapid clinical deterioration and death within a few days

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18
Q

Which diagnostic methods can be used for Leptospira infection?

A

Dark field microscopy, silver staining, immunofluorescence, serology, PCR tests

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19
Q

What is the easiest way to distinguish Leptospira infection from vaccination titres?

A

A rising titre (four-fold increase)

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20
Q

Why is culturing Leptospira rarely undertaken?

A

Leptospira are hard to grow in culture

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21
Q

What is the recommended duration of antibiotic therapy for recovering cases of Leptospira infection?

A

At least two weeks

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22
Q

What are the current killed vaccine components for Leptospira in the UK?

A

L.canicola and L.Icterohaemorrhagiae

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23
Q

What has been recently added to the new vaccines for Leptospira due to increased incidences?

A

L.Copenhageni and L.Bratislava

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24
Q

What is the vital first step in treating Leptospira infection?

A

Early treatment with appropriate antibiotics

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25
Q

What can be necessary in severe cases of Leptospira infection with hepatic or renal involvement?

A

Intensive supportive therapy including IVFT, electrolyte and acid base correction, and potentially whole blood

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26
Q

Which cases of Leptospira infection carry a very poor prognosis?

A

Cases with severe hepatic or renal involvement

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27
Q

What is the aim of continuing antibiotic therapy in recovering cases of Leptospira infection?

A

To eliminate the carrier status and infection within the renal tubules

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28
Q

What is the purpose of the recently available bench top serology test for Leptospira?

A

Early diagnosis

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29
Q

What are the antibiotics of choice for treating Leptospira infection?

A

Penicillin, erythromycin, and tetracyclines

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30
Q

What is the disease that is also known as Alabama rot?

A

Idiopathic cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy (CRGV) or Alabama rot.

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31
Q

When was the disease known as Alabama rot first discovered?

A

Late 1980’s.

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32
Q

Which breed of dogs was initially thought to be affected by Alabama rot?

A

Greyhounds.

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33
Q

Which specialist veterinary team is actively evaluating the cause of Alabama rot?

A

Anderson Moores Veterinary specialists (Laura Holm and David Walker) and the Royal Veterinary College.

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34
Q

Where have a majority of the Alabama rot cases been reported in the UK?

A

New Forest area.

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35
Q

What are the symptoms of Alabama rot?

A

Skin lesions and acute kidney injury (AKI).

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36
Q

Which areas of the dog’s body are typically affected by the skin lesions of Alabama rot?

A

Lower limbs, ventrum, and around the muzzle.

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37
Q

What is the histological finding in the kidneys of dogs with Alabama rot?

A

Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA).

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38
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute kidney injury (AKI) in Alabama rot cases?

A

Vomiting, reduced appetite, pyrexia, and lethargy.

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39
Q

What is the cause of Alabama rot?

A

The cause is currently unknown.

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40
Q

What is the known canine disease that causes vasculopathy affecting the small vessels of the kidney and skin?

A

CRGV.

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41
Q

Which other disease is characterized by thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) in dogs?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).

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42
Q

What are some suggested causes of CRGV?

A

Unknown, but possible causes include leptospirosis, borreliosis, heavy metals, and canine circovirus.

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43
Q

What is the main difference between CRGV and HUS in dogs?

A

HUS has been reported in dogs of different breeds, while CRGV has only been reported in Greyhounds.

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44
Q

What is a common cause of HUS in humans?

A

E. coli or Shigella dysenteriae shiga toxin.

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45
Q

What usually precedes the signs of HUS in humans but not in dogs with CRGV?

A

Diarrhea.

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46
Q

What is the mnemonic used to remember the relationship between specificity and a positive result?

A

Sp-P-in - a high Specificity, a Positive result rules In the diagnosis.

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47
Q

What do specificity and sensitivity relate to?

A

The performance of a diagnostic test when compared to a gold standard reference in a test population.

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48
Q

What do predictive values take into account?

A

The disease prevalence in the test population.

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49
Q

What does prevalence refer to in the context of disease?

A

The number of patients within a population that have a particular disease at a specific time.

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50
Q

How is positive predictive value calculated?

A

By dividing the number of animals with true positive results by all animals that give positive results with the test (true and false positives).

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51
Q

What does a high positive predictive value indicate?

A

A positive test result reliably indicates the presence of disease in a patient.

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52
Q

How is negative predictive value calculated?

A

By dividing the number of animals with true negative results by all animals that give negative results with the test (true and false negatives).

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53
Q

What does a high negative predictive value indicate?

A

A negative test result reliably indicates the absence of disease in a patient.

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54
Q

What happens to the predictive value of a negative test with decreased prevalence?

A

It improves.

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55
Q

What happens to the predictive value of a positive test with increased prevalence?

A

It improves.

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56
Q

What happens to the predictive value of a negative test with increased sensitivity?

A

It improves.

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57
Q

What happens to the predictive value of a positive test with increased specificity?

A

It improves.

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58
Q

What is the severity of leptospirosis?

A

The disease is potentially fatal, especially in unvaccinated animals.

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59
Q

Which serovars of Leptospira interogans are most commonly seen in dogs?

A

L.canicola and L.Icterohaemorrhagiae.

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60
Q

What is the geographical distribution of L.Icterohaemorrhagiae and L.canicola in the UK and Europe?

A

Widespread, although the incidents of L.canicola has fallen in recent years.

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61
Q

What is leptospirosis?

A

It is caused by spirochetes of the serovars of Leptospira interogans and is an important zoonosis.

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62
Q

What does leptospirosis cause?

A

Various signs can vary, and the disease is potentially fatal, especially in unvaccinated animals.

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63
Q

Are the individual serovars of leptospirosis distinguishable morphologically?

A

No.

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64
Q

What is the purpose of PCR?

A

To amplify DNA or RNA for detection

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65
Q

What is the process called when RNA is transcribed back to DNA before amplification?

A

Reverse transcription or RT-PCR

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66
Q

What is the advantage of PCR tests?

A

They are very sensitive and give rapid results

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67
Q

What does PCR only tell you about?

A

The presence of the antigen

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68
Q

What can PCR detect even if the organism is dead?

A

DNA

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69
Q

What can serology detect?

A

Antibodies or immunoglobulins formed against infections

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70
Q

Which antibody is typically produced early in an infection?

A

IgM

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71
Q

What is the lag period between IgM production and IgG production called?

A

Seroconversion

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72
Q

How can exposure or previous antibody responses be determined in some cases?

A

Taking pair convalescence titres after 10-14 days

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73
Q

What is the expected increase in antibody levels after 10-14 days?

A

A 4 times increase

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74
Q

What are some methods used for measuring antibody levels?

A

ELISA, immunofluorescent assays, and western immunoblotting

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75
Q

How long are antibodies stable in refrigeration?

A

Around 7-10 days

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76
Q

When should serum samples be frozen if stored for longer periods?

A

Longer than 7-10 days

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77
Q

What characteristics define diagnostic tests?

A

Sensitivity and specificity

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78
Q

What does the sensitivity of a test measure?

A

The true positives divided by the true positives and false negatives

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79
Q

What mnemonic is used to remember the relationship between sensitivity and a negative result?

A

Sn-N-out

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80
Q

What does the specificity of a test measure?

A

The true negatives divided by the true negatives and false positives

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81
Q

How can a negative result of a test with high specificity help?

A

In excluding the diagnosis

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82
Q

Who is the module developer for Canine Infectious Diseases?

A

Simon Tappin

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83
Q

What are the learning objectives for this module?

A
  1. Explain diagnostic tests for infectious diseases. 2. Understand false positive and false negative test results. 3. Know sensitivity and specificity in infectious disease. 4. Consider disease prevalence and predictive values. etc.
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84
Q

What is the principle of diagnosing an infectious disease?

A

Specific tests detect the presence of the organism or evidence of infection through immune response.

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85
Q

What factors are helpful in directing investigations for infectious diseases?

A

Consistent history, clinical signs, and considering the type of organism suspected.

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86
Q

Why is a cystocentesis urine sample more appropriate than a free catch sample?

A

Cystocentesis reduces contamination risk for evaluating potential urinary tract infections.

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87
Q

How can a pooled sample be useful in diagnosing certain infections?

A

A pooled sample over 3 days improves the likelihood of finding intermittently excreted faecal pathogens like Giardia.

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88
Q

What is one standard way to document the presence of infection?

A

Culturing the organism allows rapid identification and assessment of antibiotic therapy.

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89
Q

What is the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)?

A

It is the lowest antimicrobial concentration that inhibits macroscopic bacterial growth.

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90
Q

How quickly should urine grows be present in the laboratory?

A

Urine grows should be present within 24 hours for identification and antibiotic assessment.

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91
Q

What are the considerations for handling samples?

A

Samples should arrive quickly, replicate the sample environment, and follow proper handling and storage techniques.

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92
Q

How many doses of vaccine are needed for immunity?

A

Two doses

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93
Q

At what age is the first dose of vaccine usually given?

A

6 to 9 weeks

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94
Q

At what age is the second dose of vaccine usually given?

A

10 to 12 weeks

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95
Q

Do killed vaccines provide prolonged immunity?

A

No

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96
Q

Is annual revaccination necessary for killed vaccines?

A

Yes

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97
Q

What can Leptospira cause in humans?

A

Serious disease

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98
Q

What is the most common risk for developing leptospirosis?

A

Swimming in infected waterways

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99
Q

How does human disease usually present?

A

Flu-like symptoms

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100
Q

What can flu-like symptoms progress to if not treated effectively?

A

Severe renal or hepatic signs and even death

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101
Q

What has caused an increase in feline cases of leptospirosis?

A

Exposure to rodents while hunting

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102
Q

Are feline cases of leptospirosis treated similarly to dog cases?

A

Yes

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103
Q

Where can further information on Leptospira be found?

A

ACVIM and European consensus statements

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104
Q

When was Angiostrongylus vasorum first documented?

A

1853

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105
Q

What are the clinical signs of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?

A

Respiratory, coagulopathic, and neurological signs

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106
Q

Where are the geographic hotspots for Angiostrongylus vasorum in the UK?

A

South west and south east England, and south Wales

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107
Q

What are the primary hosts for Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

Domestic dogs and foxes

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108
Q

How do dogs become infected with Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

Eating infected intermediate hosts or paratenic hosts

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109
Q

Where do larvae of Angiostrongylus vasorum migrate to mature?

A

Pulmonary vasculature

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110
Q

What is the variable pre-patent period for Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

28 to 108 days

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111
Q

Where do the ova of Angiostrongylus vasorum develop into larvae?

A

Pulmonary capillaries and alveoli

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112
Q

How long can untreated dogs excrete Angiostrongylus vasorum larvae post-infection?

A

Nearly 2 years

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113
Q

Where is the distribution of Angiostrongylus vasorum patchy but fairly widespread?

A

Most of Western Europe

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114
Q

What are the historically well-defined areas of infection in the United Kingdom?

A

Cornwall and south Wales

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115
Q

What are the potential causes of the change to the reported distribution of Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

Changes to environmental conditions, increased abundance of mollusc hosts, and better awareness of clinical signs

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116
Q

Which breed of dogs were found to be at higher risk of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection in southern England?

A

Cocker, Springer and Cavalier King Charles Spaniels, Jack Russell and Staffordshire Bull Terriers

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117
Q

What tests are traditionally used to diagnose Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

Modified Baermann floatation, direct faecal smear, tracheobronchial secretions or tracheal wash samples, and PCR tests

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118
Q

What is the sensitivity of a direct faecal smear test for Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

54-61%

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119
Q

What is the sensitivity of an in-house ELISA test for Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

85 - 96%

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120
Q

What imaging findings can provide supportive evidence of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?

A

Patchy alveolar pattern in the peripheral lung fields

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121
Q

What hematological finding is commonly reported in Angiostrongylus vasorum cases?

A

Eosinophilia

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122
Q

What biochemical finding is commonly reported in Angiostrongylus vasorum cases?

A

Hyperglobulinaemia

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123
Q

In some cases of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection, what has been reported in terms of calcium levels?

A

Hypercalcaemia

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124
Q

What are the two focuses of treatment for Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?

A

Killing the parasites and supportive therapy.

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125
Q

What are the two licensed products to treat Angiostrongylosis in the United Kingdom?

A

Imidacloprid/moxidectin (Advocate®) and mibemycin/praziquantel (Milbemax®).

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126
Q

How is Advocate® administered for the treatment of Angiostrongylosis?

A

As a monthly spot-on.

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127
Q

How are Milbemax® tablets administered for the treatment of Angiostrongylosis?

A

Orally once a week for four weeks.

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128
Q

What is the efficacy of imidacloprid/moxidectin in treating Angiostrongylus stages?

A

85% according to a blinded randomised controlled field study.

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129
Q

What is the recommended dose of fenbendazole for treating Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

25-50mg/kg SID for 3-21 days.

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130
Q

What signs are most commonly seen in dogs with Angiostrongylosis?

A

Cardiorespiratory signs, including coughing.

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131
Q

When may steroids need to be administered to dogs with Angiostrongylosis?

A

If respiratory signs worsen after adulticides are administered, especially if worms are killed rapidly.

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132
Q

What type of therapy is usually not needed for Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?

A

Antimicrobial therapy, unless there is secondary bacterial infection.

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133
Q

What is occasionally indicated for the treatment of severe pulmonary hypertension in dogs with Angiostrongylosis?

A

Sildenafil.

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134
Q

What is the cause of bleeding in patients with Angiostrongylosis?

A

It is not well understood and likely has many factors.

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135
Q

What are the clinical findings and experimental work suggesting about Angiostrongylus vasorum?

A

It triggers a compensated state of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

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136
Q

What may be required if bleeding is clinically significant in patients with Angiostrongylosis?

A

Whole blood or fresh frozen plasma.

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137
Q

What is the preventative use of Advocate® and Milbemax® for Angiostrongylus?

A

Four weekly administrations to reduce parasite burden.

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138
Q

What are some other measures to reduce the risks of exposure to Angiostrongylosis?

A

Removing toys from the garden overnight, limiting access to areas with slugs and snails, and regular removal of faecal matter.

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139
Q

What is the treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) in dogs?

A

Intravenous fluid therapy and supportive treatment including continuous renal replacement therapy.

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140
Q

What is the only definitive method of confirming the disease CRGV?

A

Histopathology (plasma exchange suggested as a possible treatment option).

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141
Q

Which canine breed is commonly affected by cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy?

A

Greyhounds.

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142
Q

What is the cause of seasonal canine illness (SCI)?

A

Currently unknown, ongoing research to find the cause.

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143
Q

When are cases of seasonal canine illness (SCI) usually seen?

A

Between August and November, with most numbers reported in September.

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144
Q

What are some potential causes investigated for the cause of SCI?

A

Harvest mites, toxins from plants, fungi, and algae blooms.

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145
Q

What are some reported signs of seasonal canine illness (SCI)?

A

Sudden onset gut upset, vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, pyrexia, tremors, rash.

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146
Q

What percentage of dogs died from SCI in 2010?

A

20% of the dogs developing this syndrome died.

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147
Q

What is the lowest concentration that inhibits growth of microorganisms?

A

The MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration)

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148
Q

What is the purpose of culturing fungal samples in a designated laboratory?

A

To assess for zoonotic risk and perform antifungal sensitivity testing.

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149
Q

What is the alternative to viral culture now that PCR tests are widespread?

A

PCR tests for detecting viral presence.

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150
Q

What can direct assessment of samples like aspirates and urine provide?

A

Rapid assessment of bacterial presence and likely type of infection.

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151
Q

What stain can be used to differentiate Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Gram staining.

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152
Q

What stain is used to detect acid-fast bacteria, such as mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelson staining.

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153
Q

What stains can be used to identify fungi?

A

Potassium hydroxide on skin samples and Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stains.

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154
Q

What types of tests allow detection of microorganism antigens?

A

ELISA, direct immunofluorescent (IFA), indirect immunofluorescent, and microscopic agglutination assays.

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155
Q

What technology is used to detect DNA or RNA of microorganisms?

A

Nucleic acid technology, such as Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assays and PCR.

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156
Q

What is the purpose of real-time or quantitative PCR?

A

To quantify the amount of DNA from microorganisms.

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157
Q

What is the percentage of cases of SCI in 2012?

A

2%

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158
Q

What may cause a weak positive result on ELISA tests for CPV?

A

Vaccination with a modified live CPV vaccination may cause a weak positive result.

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159
Q

How long can a weak positive result last on ELISA tests post-vaccination?

A

A weak positive result can last for 5 to 15 days post-vaccination.

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160
Q

Is ELISA snap test sensitivity comparable to PCR or electron microscopy?

A

ELISA snap tests are less sensitive when compared to PCR or electron microscopy.

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161
Q

When should PCR-based methods be used to confirm negative results on ELISA tests?

A

PCR-based methods should be used when a patient testing negative on in-house tests still has a clinical suspicion of CPV.

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162
Q

Are PCR tests more sensitive than conventional methods for detecting CPV antigens in faeces?

A

PCR tests have higher sensitivities than conventional methods of viral antigen determination in faeces.

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163
Q

What can real-time PCR identify in dogs shedding CPV in their faeces?

A

Real-time PCR can identify dogs shedding low titres of CPV in their faeces.

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164
Q

What can serology (using haemagglutination inhibition) be used to document?

A

Serology can be used to document an immune response to CPV, indicating a current or previous infection.

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165
Q

When do antibodies to CPV become detectable?

A

Antibodies to CPV become detectable when clinical signs are first seen.

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166
Q

Can a single positive serology alone confirm active CPV infection?

A

A single positive serology is not diagnostic for active CPV infection.

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167
Q

What is required along with consistent clinical signs to diagnose current CPV infection by serology?

A

Detection of anti-CPV IgM or a rising IgG titre is required along with consistent clinical signs.

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168
Q

What cleaning methods are effective in eliminating CPV from the environment?

A

Hypochlorite solutions and steam cleaning are effective in eliminating CPV from the environment.

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169
Q

What are the aims of fluid therapy in treating CPV?

A

The aims of fluid therapy are to treat shock, correct dehydration, and anticipate loss from ongoing diarrhoea and vomiting.

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170
Q

What should be given by rapid infusion to improve peripheral perfusion in patients presenting in shock?

A

A bolus of 10-20ml/kg of a balanced electrolyte solution (e.g. lactated Ringers solution) should be given by rapid infusion.

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171
Q

What signs indicate improved peripheral perfusion in patients receiving fluid therapy for CPV?

A

Improvement in peripheral pulse quality, reduction of heart rate, and improved demeanour indicate improved peripheral perfusion.

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172
Q

How long can boluses be repeated if there is no improvement in peripheral perfusion?

A

Boluses can be repeated up to 60-90ml/kg if there is no improvement in peripheral perfusion.

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173
Q

What is Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV)?

A

Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) are RNA viruses with large club-like projections on their outer surface.

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174
Q

What are the signs of Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) infection?

A

Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) alone does not cause clinical signs, but it can lead to damage to the respiratory mucosa and predispose to secondary infection.

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175
Q

How is Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) diagnosed?

A

Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) is diagnosed using PCR.

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176
Q

Is there a vaccine available for Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV)?

A

At this point, there is no vaccine available for Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV).

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177
Q

What are the potential complications of Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) infection?

A

Complications of Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) infection include reversible damage to the respiratory mucosa, leading to a predisposition to secondary infection.

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178
Q

What precautions should be taken to minimize the risk of outbreaks of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)?

A

Environments with a large, transient population of dogs should maintain exemplary hygiene measures to minimize the risk of outbreaks of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB).

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179
Q

What antibiotics can be used in cases of suspected Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)?

A

In cases of suspected Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB), suggested antibiotic choices include Doxycycline, Trimethoprim/sulphonamide, and Potentiated amoxicillin.

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180
Q

Which medications may be helpful in uncomplicated cases of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB) with severe coughing?

A

In uncomplicated cases of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB) with severe coughing, anti-tussives (butorphanol or prednisolone) and/or bronchodilators (theophylline, terbutaline) may be helpful.

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181
Q

What should be avoided when using anti-tussives in cases of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)?

A

Anti-tussives should not be used in cases with severe airway secretions or bronchopneumonia. Nebulization and coupage would be indicated in these cases.

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182
Q

What is the cause of tetanus infections?

A

Tetanus infections are caused by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium tetani.

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183
Q

Where is Clostridium tetani commonly found?

A

Clostridium tetani is widespread in the soil and animal feces.

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184
Q

What are the toxins produced by Clostridium tetani?

A

Clostridium tetani produces tetanolysin and tetanospasmin, with tetanospasmin causing the clinical effects.

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185
Q

How does tetanospasmin affect the body?

A

Tetanospasmin binds to the axons of peripheral nerves, preventing the release of glycine and causing overactivity of motor neurons.

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186
Q

How is infection with Clostridium tetani usually acquired?

A

Infection with Clostridium tetani is usually acquired through a penetrating wound that introduces spores into an anaerobic environment.

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187
Q

Where are the most common sites of tetanus infection?

A

Wounds are usually found around the feet, but bite wounds, non-healing infections, and surgery sites can also be sites of tetanus infection.

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188
Q

What is cryptogenic tetanus?

A

Cryptogenic tetanus refers to cases where a wound is never identified, and the site of infection is not found.

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189
Q

Are dogs and cats sensitive to tetanus?

A

Dogs are 600 times less sensitive to tetanus compared to horses, and cats are 7200 times less sensitive than horses.

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190
Q

What are the clinical signs of tetanus infection in dogs?

A

Clinical signs of tetanus infection in dogs include retracted lips causing a ‘sardonic grin’, erect ears, trismus (lock jaw), and a stiff gait.

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191
Q

What complications can arise from tetanus infection?

A

Complications of tetanus infection in animals include respiratory distress, aspiration pneumonia, arrhythmia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and hyperthermia.

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192
Q

What are the focal signs commonly seen in tetanus infection in cats?

A

Cats more commonly have focal signs compared to dogs, with extensor rigidity in a single limb.

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193
Q

What are the classic history and clinical exam findings for tetanus infection?

A

History and clinical exam findings are typically classic for tetanus infection.

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194
Q

What are the signs of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

Bone marrow hypoplasia, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia, and platelet dysfunction.

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195
Q

Why do only some dogs develop signs of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

The reason is not clear, but it appears to be more common in German shepherd dogs.

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196
Q

Which organ system is important in determining the pathogenesis of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

The spleen and its mononuclear phagocytic system.

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197
Q

What is the prognosis associated with chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

The prognosis is very guarded.

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198
Q

What does biochemistry usually reveal in the phase of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

A marked increase in globulins.

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199
Q

What diagnostic method can be used to identify Ehrlichia morulae in leucocytes?

A

Microscopic examination of blood collected from a peripheral capillary vessel or buffy coat analysis.

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200
Q

What is the serological evidence of exposure to Ehrlichia canis?

A

Immunofluorescence antibody titres >40 to 80.

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201
Q

What confirms active infection in Ehrlichia canis using serology?

A

A rising titre of a fourfold increase over a two week period.

202
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Ehrlichia canis?

A

Doxycycline (5mg/kg q12hrs po or 10mg/kg q24hrs for 21 days).

203
Q

When is chloramphenicol used in the treatment of Ehrlichia canis?

A

In cases of resistant infections or for puppies younger than 5 months.

204
Q

Which clinical findings are associated with a poor prognosis in Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

Pancytopenia, prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time, severe anaemia, and hypokalaemia.

205
Q

What is the causative agent of granulocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilium.

206
Q

How is Anaplasma phagocytophilium transmitted?

A

Through several species of Ixodes ticks.

207
Q

What is the prevalence of Anaplasma phagocytophilium in Ixodes ticks in the United Kingdom?

A

0.74%.

208
Q

Where were the first canine cases of Anaplasma phagocytophilium reported?

A

In Switzerland, Sweden, and North America.

209
Q

What supportive therapy may be required in the treatment of Ehrlichia canis?

A

Fluid therapy and blood transfusions.

210
Q

What medication can be used in cases of life-threatening thrombocytopenia in Ehrlichia canis?

A

Short-term use of steroids.

211
Q

What percentage of I.scapularis ticks in Canada are infected with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Over 50%

212
Q

What percentage of Ixodes ticks in Switzerland are infected with Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Up to 47%

213
Q

What percentage of cats in the UK are seropositive to B.burgdorferi?

A

4.20%

214
Q

Do cats with seroconversion to B.burgdorferi show signs associated with lameness or recent disease?

A

No

215
Q

In experimental studies, do cats develop lameness with Borrelia infection?

A

Yes, but at much higher doses than dogs

216
Q

What are the initial signs of borreliosis in dogs?

A

Acute fever (>40˚C), shifting limb lameness, lethargy, joint swelling, and enlargement of local lymph nodes

217
Q

Which dogs are most likely to show severe signs of borreliosis?

A

Younger dogs and immunocompromised animals

218
Q

In dogs, where is the lameness usually first seen in borreliosis?

A

In the limb closest to the site of tick attachment

219
Q

What is the condition called when dogs develop chronic non-erosive polyarthritis?

A

Immune-mediated polyarthritis

220
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of protein-losing nephropathy (PLN) in dogs with Borrelia infection?

A

Unclear

221
Q

What are the signs of PLN in dogs with Borrelia infection?

A

Weight loss, lethargy, and anorexia

222
Q

What is the classic skin lesion associated with Lyme disease in people?

A

Erythema migrans, also known as a ‘bull’s eye’ lesion

223
Q

Do dogs often develop a ‘bull’s eye’ skin lesion like people with Lyme disease?

A

No, but a reddish rash can be seen after tick attachment

224
Q

Are neurological signs secondary to Borrelia infection common in dogs?

A

No, they are extremely rare

225
Q

What cardiac condition can occur secondary to Borrelia infection in dogs?

A

Arrhythmia, similar to Lyme carditis in humans

226
Q

Is clinical diagnosis of Lyme disease challenging?

A

Yes

227
Q

What is the best marker of proteinuria in dogs with PLN?

A

UPC ratio

228
Q

What changes are seen in joint taps of dogs with borreliosis?

A

High numbers of non-degenerate neutrophils and increased protein content

229
Q

What is the recommended monitoring method for protein-losing nephropathy in dogs?

A

Regular urinalysis

230
Q

What happens to Borrelia organisms during infection?

A

They change their outer surface proteins (Osp)

231
Q

What is the title of the article in the Journal of Small Animal Practice?

A

Autochthonous babesiosis in the United Kingdom.

232
Q

What is the DOI number for the article in the Journal of Small Animal Practice?

A

10.1111/jsap.12487

233
Q

Who are the authors of the article ‘Canine babesiosis: autochthonous today, endemic tomorrow?’

A

Cook S. & Swann J.W.

234
Q

What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about ticks in Essex?

A

Babesia canis infection in ticks in Essex.

235
Q

What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about a case of babesiosis in an untravelled British dog?

A

Fatal babesiosis in an untravelled British dog.

236
Q

Who are the authors of the article ‘The pathophysiology of canine babesiosis: new approaches to an old puzzle’?

A

Jacobson L.S. & Clark I.A.

237
Q

What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about surveillance for exotic ticks on companion animals in the UK?

A

Surveillance for exotic ticks on companion animals in the UK.

238
Q

What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about the detection of Babesia canis in dogs and associated ticks from Essex?

A

Babesia canis detected in dogs and associated ticks from Essex.

239
Q

What is the title of the article in Veterinary Parasitology about prophylactic activity of imidocarb against experimental infection with Babesia canis?

A

Prophylactic activity of imidocarb against experimental infection with Babesia canis.

240
Q

What is the title of the article in Veterinary Parasitology about feline babesiosis in South Africa?

A

Feline babesiosis in South Africa, a review.

241
Q

What is the title of the report by Toth B. & Roberts H.?

A

Risk of Incursion and Estabilshment of Certain Exotic Disease and Tick Species to the UK via International Pet Travel.

242
Q

Who are the authors of the article ‘First case of babesiosis caused by Babesia canis canis in a dog from Norway’?

A

Oines O., Storli K. & Brun-Hansen H.

243
Q

What is the title of the article in Veterinary Parasitology about Babesia gibsoni in dogs in Western Europe?

A

First evidence of Babesia gibsoni (Asian genotype) in dogs in Western Europe.

244
Q

What is the title of the article in Veterinary Record about ticks and tickborne disease?

A

A ticking clock for tickborne disease?

245
Q

Who are the authors of the article ‘Babesia canis and other tick-borne infections in dogs in Central Poland’?

A

Welc-Faleciak R., Rodo A., Siński E. & Bajer A.

246
Q

What cell lines are mainly affected by Rickettsiea?

A

White cells and platelets.

247
Q

What are the genera of tick-borne diseases?

A

Ehrlichia and Anaplasma.

248
Q

What is the most common rickettsial disease in Southern Europe?

A

Ehrlichia canis.

249
Q

What disease is caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilium in the United Kingdom?

A

Anaplasmosis.

250
Q

What is the distribution of Ehrlichia canis?

A

Temperate regions.

251
Q

What is the distribution of Babesia gibsoni in Western Europe?

A

Western Europe.

252
Q

What is the reservoir for Babesia canis?

A

Dogs.

253
Q

What are the target cells for Rickettsiea?

A

White cells and platelets.

254
Q

What genus includes Ehrlichia canis?

A

Ehrlichia.

255
Q

What genus includes Anaplasma phagocytophilium?

A

Anaplasma.

256
Q

What are some factors that have caused confusion in the nomenclature of rickettsial diseases?

A

Advances in DNA sequencing and reclassification of the order Rickettsiales.

257
Q

What is the full name of the disease caused by Ehrlichia canis?

A

Canine monocytotrophic ehrlichiosis.

258
Q

Where has Anaplasma phagocytophilium been isolated within the United Kingdom?

A

Ixodes ticks.

259
Q

What are the learning objectives of this module?

A

Explain the aetiology of canine endemic diseases and their clinical signs.

260
Q

What is the canine distemper virus?

A

The canine distemper virus is a large enveloped single stranded RNA virus.

261
Q

What is the incidence of distemper?

A

The incidence of distemper has reduced dramatically since the 1960s.

262
Q

Which animals are susceptible to distemper?

A

Most terrestrial carnivores are susceptible to distemper.

263
Q

Where is distemper most commonly seen?

A

Disease is most commonly seen in areas of low vaccination rates and high density areas.

264
Q

How is distemper transmitted?

A

Distemper is usually transmitted by inhalation and direct dog-to-dog transmission.

265
Q

When does shedding from the respiratory tract start in distemper?

A

Shedding from the respiratory tract starts seven days post-infection.

266
Q

Do recovered dogs shed the distemper virus?

A

Recovered dogs generally have lifelong immunity and do not shed the virus.

267
Q

Can distemper virus remain in the CNS?

A

The virus can remain in the CNS for long periods of time.

268
Q

Is distemper a zoonotic disease?

A

There is no zoonotic risk associated with distemper.

269
Q

What is the carrier status of distemper?

A

There is no carrier status for distemper.

270
Q

What other animals can be affected by distemper?

A

The disease has mutated to affect seals (phocid distemper).

271
Q

What are the clinical signs of Borrelia infection?

A

Recall the clinical signs associated with Borrelia (Lyme disease).

272
Q

How can you make a diagnosis of Borrelia infection?

A

Outline how to make a diagnosis of Borrelia infection.

273
Q

What are the treatment options for Borrelia infection?

A

Consider the treatment options for Borrelia infection.

274
Q

What is the PET travel scheme?

A

Reflect on the PET travel scheme and its impact on imported diseases.

275
Q

What is the life cycle of tick-borne diseases caused by Babesia and Rickettsia?

A

Explain the life cycle of the tick-borne diseases caused by Babesia and Rickettsia species.

276
Q

What are the clinical signs of Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease?

A

Recall the clinical signs associated with infection of Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease.

277
Q

How can you diagnose Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease?

A

Discuss how to make a diagnosis of these conditions.

278
Q

What are the treatment options for Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease?

A

Consider the treatment options for Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease.

279
Q

What are the preventative strategies available for tick-borne diseases?

A

Outline the preventative strategies available for tick-borne diseases.

280
Q

Which cells are most susceptible to the virus?

A

Macrophages and lymphoid cells are most susceptible.

281
Q

What is the timeline of viraemia development post-infection?

A

Viraemia develops about two days post-infection.

282
Q

How long does it take for the virus to spread to other lymphoid tissue?

A

Spread to other lymphoid tissue occurs over a 5-7 day period.

283
Q

What allows the virus to affect epithelial tissue?

A

Immunosuppression allows the virus to affect epithelial tissue.

284
Q

What factors contribute to the variation of clinical signs in infected dogs?

A

The tissues in which the virus is most active, the stage of disease, and the susceptibility of the individual.

285
Q

What type of response is important for recovery and elimination of the virus?

A

The T-cell cytotoxic response is important for recovery and elimination of the virus.

286
Q

What allows dogs showing minimal clinical signs to recover quickly?

A

High levels of neutralising antibody production that persists for many years.

287
Q

What may explain breed sensitivities to Distemper?

A

The T-cell response modulating the recovery process.

288
Q

What are the common clinical signs of Distemper in dogs?

A

Mild pyrexia, inappetence, depression, ocular/nasal discharge, gastrointestinal signs, lower respiratory tract disease, and CNS signs.

289
Q

What are some possible complications of Distemper infection?

A

Secondary bacterial infections, nocardiosis, toxoplasmosis, generalised demodecosis, and metaphyseal osteopathy.

290
Q

What can transplacental infection with CDV result in?

A

Infertility, stillbirth, abortion, and neurological signs in puppies at 4 to 6 weeks of age.

291
Q

Where can eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies be documented for histopathological diagnosis?

A

Respiratory and bladder mucosa are the best sites for documenting eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.

292
Q

What is the most sensitive test for diagnosing Distemper?

A

PCR using mononuclear cells in the buffy coat, conjunctival smears, or bronchial washes.

293
Q

What changes may be observed in CSF analysis of cases with neurological signs?

A

Increased protein and mononuclear cells in the CSF.

294
Q

What is diagnostic for Distemper in animals with an intact blood-brain barrier?

A

The presence of antibody is diagnostic for Distemper in animals with an intact blood-brain barrier.

295
Q

What can prevent a rising antibody titre, making serology interpretation difficult?

A

Immunosuppression can prevent a rising antibody titre.

296
Q

What can canine babesiosis result in?

A

Canine babesiosis can result in severe and life-threatening anemia in dogs.

297
Q

Where is babesiosis particularly prevalent?

A

Babesiosis is particularly prevalent in France.

298
Q

What tick vectors are widespread and endemic in most of Southern Europe?

A

Tick vectors for babesiosis are widespread and endemic in most of Southern Europe.

299
Q

Where were cases of Babesia canis infection reported in 2016?

A

Cases of Babesia canis infection were reported in the Essex area in 2016.

300
Q

Besides France, where else has canine babesiosis become established in the UK?

A

Canine babesiosis has become established in specific areas of the United Kingdom, including the Essex area and Kent.

301
Q

When were the first reports of babesiosis in dogs made?

A

The first reports of babesiosis in dogs were made in Africa in the 1890s.

302
Q

How many genetically distinct intraerythrocytic piroplasm parasites have been identified?

A

At least nine genetically distinct intraerythrocytic piroplasm parasites have been identified.

303
Q

How are Babesia species divided morphologically?

A

Babesia species are divided morphologically into large and small forms.

304
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with babesiosis caused by Babesia canis?

A

The clinical findings include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and fever.

305
Q

What tick is the vector for Babesia canis?

A

The tick vector for Babesia canis is Dermacentor reticulates.

306
Q

Where has Dermacentor reticulatus historically been found?

A

Dermacentor reticulatus has historically been found in the southern parts of Europe.

307
Q

Which tick vector has recently been found in Poland, Belgium, and Germany?

A

Dermacentor reticulatus has recently been found in Poland, Belgium, and Germany.

308
Q

Where are pockets of Dermacentor reticulatus found within the UK?

A

Pockets of Dermacentor reticulatus are found in west Wales, parts of Essex, and coastal areas of North and South Devon.

309
Q

Which tick vectors mirror the geographic incidence of Babesia canis infection?

A

Dermacentor reticulates and Rhipicephalus sanguineus mirror the geographic incidence of Babesia canis infection.

310
Q

What other parasite is Babesia canis transmitted by?

A

Babesia canis is also transmitted by Rhipicephalus sanguineus.

311
Q

Where is Rhipicephalus sanguineus found?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus is found worldwide, particularly in warm and humid areas.

312
Q

What is the risk of Rhipicephalus sanguineus becoming endemic in the UK?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus is unlikely to become endemic in the UK due to the cold climatic conditions.

313
Q

What disease may be less effective against Ehrlichia canis?

A

Rickettsial Disease

314
Q

What journal published the study on immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia associated with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Journal of Small Animal Practice

315
Q

What is the molecular evidence supporting Ehrlichia canis-like infection in cats?

A

Breitschwerdt E.B., Abrams-Ogg A.C.G., Lappin M.R., et al. (2002). Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 16, 642-649

316
Q

What drug failed to clear experimentally induced Ehrlichia canis infection in dogs?

A

Imidocarb dipropionate

317
Q

What tick can transmit Ehrlichia canis when feeding on dogs?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus ticks

318
Q

What are the prognostic indicators for canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

Shipov A, Klement E, Reuveni-Tager L, et al. (2008). Veterinary Parasitology 153,131-138

319
Q

What is the prevalence of Babesia and Anaplasma in ticks infesting dogs in Great Britain?

A

Smith F.D., Ellse L. & Wall R. (2013). Veterinary Parasitology 198, 18-23

320
Q

What tick species is mentioned in the document regarding the risk of incursion and establishment of exotic diseases and ticks in the UK?

A

Certain Tick Species

321
Q

What is the infection mentioned in a dog with no history of travel outside the United Kingdom?

A

Ehrlichia canis

322
Q

When should protective wear be used when taking tissue samples?

A

When an invasive fungus such as Coccidioides immitis is suspected.

323
Q

Where can culture samples be submitted for fungal culture for Coccidioides infection?

A

Health Protection Agency.

324
Q

How should culture samples be handled when a tissue invasive fungal organism is suspected?

A

Very carefully.

325
Q

Where is serological testing for Coccidioides immitis possible?

A

Only in the USA.

326
Q

What is the recommended treatment duration for coccidioidomycosis beyond clinical cure?

A

4-6 months.

327
Q

What is the preferred drug for animals with bony involvement in coccidioidomycosis treatment?

A

Itraconazole.

328
Q

What is the recommended monitoring for liver enzymes with azole antifungal therapy?

A

Periodic monitoring after 4-6 weeks and then every 3-4 months.

329
Q

When should treatment with Amphotericin-B be reserved for coccidioidomycosis?

A

Severe disease failing traditional azole therapy.

330
Q

What is the causal agent of Lyme disease in veterinary species?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato.

331
Q

Where were the symptoms of infectious polyarthritis first described in Lyme disease?

A

In the town of Lyme, Connecticut, USA.

332
Q

What are the classic signs of canine Lyme disease?

A

Fever, lethargy, and shifting limb lameness.

333
Q

When are signs of Lyme disease usually seen in dogs?

A

Within a month of the tick bite.

334
Q

Which tick species is the most common vector for Lyme disease in the UK?

A

Ixodes ricinus (sheep tick or castor bean tick).

335
Q

Which tick species has a 2-3 year life cycle and can harbor Borrelia for most of that period?

A

Ixodes ricinus.

336
Q

How is B.burgdorferi transmitted to the host by nymph or adult ticks?

A

During feeding.

337
Q

Which Borrelia species have been found to cause borreliosis in people in Northern Europe?

A

Borrelia afzelii and Borrelia garinii.

338
Q

What advantage do sedation and nasogastric tubes have?

A

Assessment of gastric residual volume and gastrointestinal motility.

339
Q

When should parenteral nutrition be considered?

A

If prolonged anorexia and/or vomiting occurs.

340
Q

What caution should be taken when using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in young and dehydrated patients?

A

They can cause gastrointestinal ulceration and nephrotoxicity.

341
Q

What is the result of recombinant feline interferon (rFeIFN-ω) treatment in parvovirus enteritis?

A

Reduction in mortality and clinical signs.

342
Q

What is the recommended therapeutic intervention for dogs with CPV enteritis?

A

Early aggressive interventions, including enteral nutrition.

343
Q

What can persist in some cases of CPV enteritis?

A

Persistent intestinal villous atrophy and chronic gastrointestinal dysfunction.

344
Q

What is a possible complication of CPV infection in puppies infected before 8 weeks of age?

A

Myocarditis and subsequent myocardial dysfunction.

345
Q

Which virus causes Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Canine adenovirus 1 (CAV-1).

346
Q

What is the most common route of exposure for Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Direct dog-to-dog contact.

347
Q

Where does viral replication take place in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Pharyngeal lymphoid tissue and intestinal lymphoid structures.

348
Q

What can cause jaundice in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Hepatocellular destruction and biliary obstruction.

349
Q

What can result from endothelial damage in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Effusions in the pericardial sac, thoracic and abdominal cavities.

350
Q

What causes the ‘blue eye’ phenomenon in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Interaction of CAV-1 antigen in the corneal endothelium with antibody in the aqueous humour.

351
Q

What follows immune response in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

High levels of neutralizing antibodies that persist for many years.

352
Q

What is the cause of anterior uveitis in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?

A

Widespread ocular inflammation.

353
Q

What are the clinical signs of CPV enteritis?

A

Large volumes of foul-smelling and bloody diarrhea, severe dehydration

354
Q

How does CPV infection lead to intestinal protein loss?

A

Inflammation causes hypoalbuminemia, resulting in protein loss

355
Q

What can cause neutropenia in CPV enteritis?

A

Damage to bone marrow progenitors can lead to neutropenia

356
Q

What can puppies infected with CPV develop?

A

Myocarditis due to viral replication in the myocardium

357
Q

What type of CPV vaccines are available in the UK?

A

Modified live CPV vaccines based on CPV type 2 or 2b subtypes

358
Q

What are the recommended vaccination protocols for CPV?

A

Initial vaccination at 8-9 weeks, second vaccination 3-4 weeks later, third vaccination between 14-16 weeks, followed by a booster after 12 months

359
Q

What is the duration of immunity conferred by CPV infection?

A

Lifelong immunity in the majority of cases

360
Q

Which breed is at increased risk of CPV infection due to poor humoral response?

A

Rottweilers, Doberman pinschers, Staffordshire bull terriers

361
Q

What is the window of susceptibility for CPV infection?

A

Between six weeks and six months of age when declining maternal antibodies interfere with vaccine-induced response

362
Q

What is the risk factor for CPV infection in intact male dogs?

A

They are infected disproportionately to their population

363
Q

When is there an increase in CPV cases reported in temperate climates?

A

Between the months of July and September

364
Q

What are the hematological findings associated with CPV enteritis?

A

Leukopenia, lymphocytolysis, and neutropenia

365
Q

What is a diagnostic sign for distemper in a not recently vaccinated dog?

A

Elevated IgM levels

366
Q

How long does IgM remain elevated after infection?

A

Three months

367
Q

How long does IgM remain elevated after vaccination?

A

Three weeks

368
Q

What is the aim of therapy for distemper?

A

Controlling clinical signs

369
Q

What are some non-specific supportive therapies for distemper?

A

Antibiotic therapy, fluid therapy, and careful nursing

370
Q

What can be used in neurological cases of distemper?

A

Sedatives and anticonvulsants

371
Q

What should be considered in cases of distemper with progressive signs?

A

Euthanasia

372
Q

What type of vaccines have greatly reduced the prevalence of distemper in the UK?

A

Modified life vaccines

373
Q

What are the two types of cell culture used in modified life vaccines for distemper?

A

Avian cell culture and canine cell culture

374
Q

Which strain of modified life vaccine for distemper is associated with higher levels of post vaccine encephalitis?

A

The Rockborn strain

375
Q

What animals can live vaccines for distemper be fatal in?

A

Red pandas and black-footed ferrets

376
Q

What vaccines have historically been used to protect puppies with high maternally derived antibody from distemper?

A

Measles vaccines

377
Q

What can be effective in controlling distemper in kennels or rescue centers?

A

Management and disinfectant machines

378
Q

What is the duration of immunity for UK vaccines against distemper?

A

3 years

379
Q

What animal is frequently vaccinated against distemper in the UK?

A

Pet ferrets

380
Q

What is the most common cause of viral enteritis in dogs in the UK?

A

Canine parvovirus

381
Q

What are the three known strains of canine parvovirus?

A

CPV-2a, CPV-2b, and CPV-2c

382
Q

What is the mortality rate without treatment for dogs infected with canine parvovirus?

A

Up to 91%

383
Q

What are parvoviruses?

A

Small, non-enveloped, single-stranded DNA viruses

384
Q

When did canine parvovirus emerge as a clinical problem?

A

In 1978

385
Q

What is the mode of transmission for canine parvovirus?

A

Faecal-oral route

386
Q

Where does viral replication occur after a dog is infected with canine parvovirus?

A

Within lymphoid tissue, rapidly dividing cells, and intestinal crypt epithelium, bone marrow, and myocardium

387
Q

What is the age range of puppies most susceptible to severe infections of canine parvovirus?

A

Under twelve weeks of age

388
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for Bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

Transmission primarily occurs via an airborne route.

389
Q

What are the common signs of respiratory disease caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica in dogs?

A

Mild signs include sneezing, mucopurulent nasal discharge, and a harsh honking cough.

390
Q

How is the diagnosis of Bordetella bronchiseptica made?

A

Diagnosis is made on culture and PCR of nasal or pharyngeal swabs.

391
Q

What is the drug of choice for Bordetella bronchiseptica if culture results are unavailable?

A

Doxycycline becomes the drug of choice.

392
Q

Can Bordetella bronchiseptica be isolated from healthy cats?

A

Yes, Bordetella bronchiseptica can be isolated from healthy cats.

393
Q

What type of virus is canine parainfluenza virus (CPiV)?

A

Canine parainfluenza virus (CPiV) is an RNA virus.

394
Q

What is the recommended method of administering vaccination for CPiV?

A

Intranasal vaccination may provide better and more long-lasting protection.

395
Q

What is the primary site of infection for Canine Adenovirus 2 (CAV-2)?

A

Canine Adenovirus 2 (CAV-2) primarily infects the upper respiratory tract of dogs.

396
Q

What is the duration of cover provided by parenteral vaccination with CAV-2?

A

Parenteral vaccination with CAV-2 provides long-lasting (3 years) cover.

397
Q

What type of viruses are influenza viruses?

A

Influenza viruses are enveloped single-stranded RNA viruses.

398
Q

Where did the first outbreak of canine influenza virus (CIV) occur?

A

The first outbreak of CIV occurred in racing greyhounds in Florida.

399
Q

What is the role of canine Herpes virus (CHV-1) in ITB?

A

The role of CHV-1 in ITB is controversial.

400
Q

What is the vector that transmits Babesia gibsoni?

A

Heamaphysalis species and possibly Rhipicephalus sanguineus.

401
Q

Where is Babesia gibsoni rarely reported?

A

Europe

402
Q

What is the surprising finding in the study of UK tick population?

A

Presence of Babesia gibsoni DNA in Ixodes ricinus ticks

403
Q

Where are clinical cases of Babesia gibsoni recently reported?

A

Germany

404
Q

What is the competent vector for Babesia rossi?

A

Yellow dog tick, Heamaphysalis elliptica

405
Q

Where are clinical cases of Babesia rossi mainly limited to?

A

South Africa

406
Q

Which breed of dogs have a worse prognosis with Babesia rossi infection?

A

Bull terrier breeds

407
Q

Where is clinical disease due to Babesia felis predominately reported in domestic cats?

A

South Africa and Sudan

408
Q

Which Babesia species was isolated from lions in Kruger National Park?

A

Babesia leo

409
Q

What are the clinical signs commonly observed in cats with babesiosis?

A

Lethargy, anorexia, and depression

410
Q

What could lead to the development of clinical disease in cats with babesiosis?

A

Concurrent infection with FIV, FeLV, or mycoplasma haemofelis

411
Q

How is babesiosis transmitted?

A

Through tick saliva during feeding

412
Q

How long does a tick need to be attached for babesiosis transmission to occur?

A

48-72 hours

413
Q

What happens to Babesia organisms in the tick gut after feeding?

A

They differentiate into gametes and undergo sexual reproduction

414
Q

What organ in the tick allows infection of the host during feeding?

A

Tick salivary gland

415
Q

What is an alternative route of fluid administration if venous access is not possible?

A

An intramedullary catheter is an alternative route of fluid administration.

416
Q

How should the fluid deficit be calculated?

A

The fluid deficit should be calculated by multiplying percentage dehydration x body weight in kilograms.

417
Q

Why are subcutaneous and intraperitoneal fluids not recommended for severe dehydration?

A

There will be inadequate fluid distribution due to peripheral vasoconstriction.

418
Q

What should be added to fluids to supplement potassium in cases of vomiting and anorexia?

A

Potassium chloride should be added to fluids.

419
Q

What is the maximum infusion rate of potassium chloride to avoid thrombophlebitis and adverse effects on cardiac function?

A

The maximum infusion rate of potassium chloride should not exceed 0.5mEq/kg/hr.

420
Q

What can be added to fluids to supplement glucose in cases of hypoglycaemia?

A

Concentrated glucose solution can be added to fluids to supplement glucose.

421
Q

What type of antimicrobial therapy is necessary to treat septic shock in cases of CPV infection?

A

Cephalosporin or potentiated amoxicillin with metronidazole provide excellent cover against bacteria.

422
Q

What is an effective antiemetic that also increases gastrointestinal motility?

A

Metoclopramide is an effective antiemetic that also increases gastrointestinal motility.

423
Q

What should be taken into consideration when using maropitant as an antiemetic?

A

Dose reductions may be needed in hypoalbuminemic patients and puppies <8 weeks old.

424
Q

What are the potential benefits of early enteral nutritional therapy in dogs with CPV?

A

Early enteral nutritional therapy can lead to earlier clinical improvement and weight gain.

425
Q

When should enteral nutrition be commenced in dogs with CPV?

A

Enteral nutrition should be commenced as soon as possible if it doesn’t exacerbate vomiting.

426
Q

What type of tubes can be easily placed for enteral nutrition in dogs?

A

Naso-oesophageal and nasogastric tubes can easily be placed with minimal difficulty.

427
Q

What is the causal agent of canine monocytotropic ehrlichiosis?

A

Ehrlichia canis

428
Q

Where was Ehrlichia canis first described?

A

Algeria

429
Q

Which animals are susceptible to Ehrlichia Canis infection?

A

Dogs, jackals, foxes, and coyotes

430
Q

What is the vector for Ehrlichia canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (the brown dog tick)

431
Q

Where is Ehrlichia canis infection found?

A

Worldwide in temperate and tropical areas, except Australia

432
Q

Which areas have reported cases of canine Ehrlichia canis infection in Europe?

A

South coast of France, Corsica, Greece, and southern half of Italy

433
Q

Is Ehrlichia canis currently considered endemic in the United Kingdom?

A

No

434
Q

What is the reservoir for Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

Wild and domestic dogs

435
Q

Which tick species has been suggested as a potential alternative vector for Ehrlichia canis?

A

Argas vespertilionis

436
Q

How is Ehrlichia canis transmitted to the next stage in ticks?

A

Ticks must feed on an infected dog in the acute phase

437
Q

What is the incubation period for Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

8-20 days

438
Q

How many phases of ehrlichoisis are seen?

A

Three: acute, subclinical, and chronic

439
Q

What are the typical signs during the acute phase of Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

Fever, anorexia, and lymphadenomegaly

440
Q

What are the usual hematological results in dogs with Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

Thrombocytopenia, leucopenia, and anaemia

441
Q

What is the duration of the acute phase of Ehrlichia canis infection?

A

1-4 weeks

442
Q

What are the possible clinical complaints associated with Babesia canis infection?

A

Acute illness, pyrexia, pallor, splenomegaly, collapse.

443
Q

What can cause haemoglobinuria and bilirubinuria in Babesia infections?

A

Excessive red cell breakdown.

444
Q

What is the term for a more severe syndrome of babesiosis with organ dysfunction?

A

Complicated babesiosis.

445
Q

What are some signs associated with complicated babesiosis?

A

Acute kidney injury, hepatic dysfunction, acute lung injury, cerebral dysfunction, coagulation defects.

446
Q

Which tick-borne disease can be transmitted concurrently with babesiosis?

A

Ehrlichia canis.

447
Q

What is the diagnostic method for canine Babesia?

A

Demonstrating the presence of organisms in infected erythrocytes.

448
Q

Which test is the most sensitive and specific for diagnosing infection?

A

PCR on EDTA anticoagulated blood.

449
Q

What are the typical results of general hematology in babesiosis?

A

Normocytic normochromic anemia which becomes regenerative after a few days.

450
Q

What results can be seen in the biochemistry in Babesia rossi infection?

A

Elevated bilirubin, globulins, liver enzymes, hypoglycemia, azotemia, marked acid-base imbalances.

451
Q

What is the treatment for babesiosis?

A

Symptomatic supportive care and parasite clearance.

452
Q

What are some diseases that can cause acute onset muscular rigidity?

A

Polymyositis and strychnine toxicity

453
Q

What are the common blood test results for a patient with tetanus?

A

Increased CK, AST, and myoglobinuria

454
Q

What is the difficulty in diagnosing C.tetani?

A

The toxin is highly bound within neurons and culture of the organism is difficult

455
Q

What is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy for tetanus?

A

Intravenous metronidazole

456
Q

What can be administered to neutralize free toxin in tetanus?

A

Tetanus antitoxin

457
Q

What is the potential risk of administering tetanus antitoxin?

A

Anaphylactic reactions

458
Q

What is the recommended care for a dog with tetanus?

A

Darkened room, minimized stress and handling, and supportive care

459
Q

How long does it take for dogs to recover from tetanus?

A

Around 3 weeks for new presynaptic terminals to allow recovery

460
Q

Why is vaccination not recommended for dogs and cats for tetanus?

A

Relative rareness of tetanus

461
Q

What were the primary aims of the PETS travel scheme?

A

Reduce the risk of importing rabies, Echinococcus multilocularius, and tick vectors

462
Q

When were quarantine requirements introduced in the UK?

A

1897

463
Q

Why were quarantine requirements introduced?

A

To control rabies

464
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies?

A

2-3 months

465
Q

How many people does rabies currently kill each year?

A

Approximately 55,000

466
Q

What did quarantine hold imported animals in?

A

Secure area

467
Q

What proteins undergo antigenic variation in the Spirochete bacteria?

A

OspA, OspC, and OspF.

468
Q

Which outer membrane protein in Spirochete rapidly changes its structure after infection?

A

VIsE or variable major protein-like sequence.

469
Q

What is the constant non-variable part of VIsE protein in Spirochete?

A

The C6 peptide.

470
Q

What can be used for rapid and definitive diagnosis of canine Lyme disease?

A

Positive serology for C6 antibodies.

471
Q

What is the preferred method for diagnosing B.burgdorferi infection?

A

Quantitative PCR tests, especially tissue PCR of synovial membrane and skin.

472
Q

What are the clinical signs of canine Lyme disease?

A

Lameness, fever, lethargy, anorexia, painful swollen joint, pain/swelling near inability to rise.

473
Q

What are the possible causes of joint disease in dogs?

A

Borreliosis, metabolic disease, immune-mediated disease, cardiopulmonary disease, etc.

474
Q

Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for treating B.burgdorferi infection?

A

Doxycycline.

475
Q

How long is the recommended treatment duration for B.burgdorferi infection?

A

4 weeks.

476
Q

What are the alternatives to Doxycycline for growing animals?

A

Amoxicillin.

477
Q

Besides its antimicrobial effect, what other benefits does Doxycycline offer in canine Lyme disease treatment?

A

Immunomodulatory and chondroprotective effects.

478
Q

What should be instigated alongside antibiotic therapy when proteinuria is documented?

A

Early treatment for glomerular nephritis.

479
Q

Which enzyme inhibitors reduce renal protein loss in glomerular nephritis?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.

480
Q

What is the purpose of worming animals with praziquantel under the PETS scheme?

A

To prevent the tapeworm Echinococcus multilocularis from entering the United Kingdom

481
Q

What are the clinical consequences of an aberrant infection with Echinococcus multilocularis in humans?

A

Alveolar echinococcosis, which is an extremely debilitating disease with a high mortality rate

482
Q

How do people become infected with Echinococcus multilocularis?

A

By ingesting eggs excreted by infected foxes, dogs, or cats

483
Q

Why are tick borne diseases of interest in human and veterinary medicine?

A

Ticks are efficient vectors of disease with long life cycles

484
Q

What is the most effective drug for clearance of Babesia canis?

A

Imidocarb dipropionate

485
Q

Why is imidocarb dipropionate used off-label for the treatment of canine babesiosis in the UK?

A

There is no licensed product available in the UK for the treatment of canine babesiosis

486
Q

What is the suggested alternative treatment for canine babesiosis if imidocarb dipropionate is not immediately available?

A

High dose clindamycin

487
Q

What are the commonly seen side effects of imidocarb dipropionate?

A

Excessive salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, diarrhea, unsettled/agitated behavior

488
Q

What is the suggested premedication to prevent the common side effects of imidocarb dipropionate?

A

Atropine

489
Q

What is the mechanism of action of imidocarb dipropionate?

A

Interferes with parasite DNA metabolism and aerobic glycolysis

490
Q

What are the suggested methods of reducing the risk of canine babesiosis?

A

Preventing tick attachment and killing ticks before disease transmission, regular use of topical products or long-acting oral treatments

491
Q

What measures should be taken by immunosuppressed or splenectomized individuals when handling babesiosis-infected animals?

A

Exercise caution in removing ticks and handling blood samples

492
Q

Is there a zoonotic risk associated with canine and feline Babesia species?

A

In general, no, but rare cases of human babesiosis have been reported in specific patient populations

493
Q

What are the clinical signs of CAV-1 infection?

A

Clinical signs may include mild malaise, blue-eye, depression, anorexia, PU/PD, and death.

494
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for CAV-1?

A

Differential diagnoses include rodenticide toxicity, abdominal catastrophes, Leptospirosis, and CDV.

495
Q

How can CAV-1 be diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis can be made through virus isolation from blood, urine, or liver biopsy, and a fourfold increase in antibody titre.

496
Q

What are the histopathological findings in CAV-1 infection?

A

Post-mortem examination may reveal hepatitis, lymphadenitis, perivascular haemorrhage, and intra-nuclear inclusions, particularly within the liver.

497
Q

What is the treatment for CAV-1?

A

Treatment is mainly symptomatic and supportive with intravenous fluids, blood transfusion, antibiotics, and intensive nursing care.

498
Q

What vaccines are used for CAV-1?

A

Initial vaccines used live attenuated strains of CAV-1, but now live CAV-2 vaccines are preferred.

499
Q

What are the advantages of live CAV-2 vaccines?

A

CAV-2 vaccines have no trophism for the eye, do not cause ‘blue-eye’, and provide protection against respiratory effects.

500
Q

At what age can vaccination against CAV-1 be started?

A

Vaccination may be started as early as six weeks of age and completed by 10 to 12 weeks with 3 yearly booster inoculations.

Small Animal Medicine (GP cert) (22 decks)

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