Canine infectious disease AI Flashcards
1
Q
What are the common environments where Leptospira can be found?
A
Drainage ditches, ponds, slow flowing rivers, and lakes.
2
Q
What are the sources of infection with L.Icterohaemorrhagiae for both dogs and humans?
A
Rats
3
Q
What is the main reservoir of L.canicola?
A
Dogs
4
Q
For how long can Leptospira be shed in the urine after clinical infection or by an asymptomatic carrier?
A
Many months
5
Q
What is the aim of treatment for Leptospira infection?
A
Elimination of the renal carrier state
6
Q
Under what conditions will Leptospira survive in the environment?
A
Sufficient humidity and moderate temperature
7
Q
What activates Leptospira?
A
Sunlight or low/high pH
8
Q
What are the routes through which infection with Leptospira can take place?
A
Penetrating skin or mucous membranes of oral cavity, pharynx, conjunctiva, and intestinal mucosa
9
Q
After infection, what happens during the initial leptospiraemia phase?
A
Leptospira circulates in the blood for about one week
10
Q
Which tissues do Leptospira usually localize in after the initial leptospiraemia phase?
A
Liver, spleen, kidneys, and lymph nodes
11
Q
Which serovar tends to produce a nephropathy and severe inflammation of the interstitium?
A
L.canicola
12
Q
Which serovar tends to produce acute hepatitis and perivascular haemorrhage with liver involvement?
A
L.Icterohaemorrhagiae
13
Q
What happens to the levels of protective antibodies after recovery from a Leptospira infection?
A
They remain high for a long time
14
Q
What are the common clinical signs of Leptospira infection?
A
Lethargy, anorexia, pyrexia, vomiting, abdominal pain, jaundice
15
Q
What can pulmonary haemorrhage indicate during a Leptospira infection?
A
L.Icterohaemorrhagiae infection
16
Q
What can uraemia with oral ulceration indicate during a Leptospira infection?
A
L.canicola infection
17
Q
What can be a possible outcome in severe cases of Leptospira infection?
A
Rapid clinical deterioration and death within a few days
18
Q
Which diagnostic methods can be used for Leptospira infection?
A
Dark field microscopy, silver staining, immunofluorescence, serology, PCR tests
19
Q
What is the easiest way to distinguish Leptospira infection from vaccination titres?
A
A rising titre (four-fold increase)
20
Q
Why is culturing Leptospira rarely undertaken?
A
Leptospira are hard to grow in culture
21
Q
What is the recommended duration of antibiotic therapy for recovering cases of Leptospira infection?
A
At least two weeks
22
Q
What are the current killed vaccine components for Leptospira in the UK?
A
L.canicola and L.Icterohaemorrhagiae
23
Q
What has been recently added to the new vaccines for Leptospira due to increased incidences?
A
L.Copenhageni and L.Bratislava
24
Q
What is the vital first step in treating Leptospira infection?
A
Early treatment with appropriate antibiotics
25
What can be necessary in severe cases of Leptospira infection with hepatic or renal involvement?
Intensive supportive therapy including IVFT, electrolyte and acid base correction, and potentially whole blood
26
Which cases of Leptospira infection carry a very poor prognosis?
Cases with severe hepatic or renal involvement
27
What is the aim of continuing antibiotic therapy in recovering cases of Leptospira infection?
To eliminate the carrier status and infection within the renal tubules
28
What is the purpose of the recently available bench top serology test for Leptospira?
Early diagnosis
29
What are the antibiotics of choice for treating Leptospira infection?
Penicillin, erythromycin, and tetracyclines
30
What is the disease that is also known as Alabama rot?
Idiopathic cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy (CRGV) or Alabama rot.
31
When was the disease known as Alabama rot first discovered?
Late 1980's.
32
Which breed of dogs was initially thought to be affected by Alabama rot?
Greyhounds.
33
Which specialist veterinary team is actively evaluating the cause of Alabama rot?
Anderson Moores Veterinary specialists (Laura Holm and David Walker) and the Royal Veterinary College.
34
Where have a majority of the Alabama rot cases been reported in the UK?
New Forest area.
35
What are the symptoms of Alabama rot?
Skin lesions and acute kidney injury (AKI).
36
Which areas of the dog's body are typically affected by the skin lesions of Alabama rot?
Lower limbs, ventrum, and around the muzzle.
37
What is the histological finding in the kidneys of dogs with Alabama rot?
Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA).
38
What are the clinical signs of acute kidney injury (AKI) in Alabama rot cases?
Vomiting, reduced appetite, pyrexia, and lethargy.
39
What is the cause of Alabama rot?
The cause is currently unknown.
40
What is the known canine disease that causes vasculopathy affecting the small vessels of the kidney and skin?
CRGV.
41
Which other disease is characterized by thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) in dogs?
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).
42
What are some suggested causes of CRGV?
Unknown, but possible causes include leptospirosis, borreliosis, heavy metals, and canine circovirus.
43
What is the main difference between CRGV and HUS in dogs?
HUS has been reported in dogs of different breeds, while CRGV has only been reported in Greyhounds.
44
What is a common cause of HUS in humans?
E. coli or Shigella dysenteriae shiga toxin.
45
What usually precedes the signs of HUS in humans but not in dogs with CRGV?
Diarrhea.
46
What is the mnemonic used to remember the relationship between specificity and a positive result?
Sp-P-in - a high Specificity, a Positive result rules In the diagnosis.
47
What do specificity and sensitivity relate to?
The performance of a diagnostic test when compared to a gold standard reference in a test population.
48
What do predictive values take into account?
The disease prevalence in the test population.
49
What does prevalence refer to in the context of disease?
The number of patients within a population that have a particular disease at a specific time.
50
How is positive predictive value calculated?
By dividing the number of animals with true positive results by all animals that give positive results with the test (true and false positives).
51
What does a high positive predictive value indicate?
A positive test result reliably indicates the presence of disease in a patient.
52
How is negative predictive value calculated?
By dividing the number of animals with true negative results by all animals that give negative results with the test (true and false negatives).
53
What does a high negative predictive value indicate?
A negative test result reliably indicates the absence of disease in a patient.
54
What happens to the predictive value of a negative test with decreased prevalence?
It improves.
55
What happens to the predictive value of a positive test with increased prevalence?
It improves.
56
What happens to the predictive value of a negative test with increased sensitivity?
It improves.
57
What happens to the predictive value of a positive test with increased specificity?
It improves.
58
What is the severity of leptospirosis?
The disease is potentially fatal, especially in unvaccinated animals.
59
Which serovars of Leptospira interogans are most commonly seen in dogs?
L.canicola and L.Icterohaemorrhagiae.
60
What is the geographical distribution of L.Icterohaemorrhagiae and L.canicola in the UK and Europe?
Widespread, although the incidents of L.canicola has fallen in recent years.
61
What is leptospirosis?
It is caused by spirochetes of the serovars of Leptospira interogans and is an important zoonosis.
62
What does leptospirosis cause?
Various signs can vary, and the disease is potentially fatal, especially in unvaccinated animals.
63
Are the individual serovars of leptospirosis distinguishable morphologically?
No.
64
What is the purpose of PCR?
To amplify DNA or RNA for detection
65
What is the process called when RNA is transcribed back to DNA before amplification?
Reverse transcription or RT-PCR
66
What is the advantage of PCR tests?
They are very sensitive and give rapid results
67
What does PCR only tell you about?
The presence of the antigen
68
What can PCR detect even if the organism is dead?
DNA
69
What can serology detect?
Antibodies or immunoglobulins formed against infections
70
Which antibody is typically produced early in an infection?
IgM
71
What is the lag period between IgM production and IgG production called?
Seroconversion
72
How can exposure or previous antibody responses be determined in some cases?
Taking pair convalescence titres after 10-14 days
73
What is the expected increase in antibody levels after 10-14 days?
A 4 times increase
74
What are some methods used for measuring antibody levels?
ELISA, immunofluorescent assays, and western immunoblotting
75
How long are antibodies stable in refrigeration?
Around 7-10 days
76
When should serum samples be frozen if stored for longer periods?
Longer than 7-10 days
77
What characteristics define diagnostic tests?
Sensitivity and specificity
78
What does the sensitivity of a test measure?
The true positives divided by the true positives and false negatives
79
What mnemonic is used to remember the relationship between sensitivity and a negative result?
Sn-N-out
80
What does the specificity of a test measure?
The true negatives divided by the true negatives and false positives
81
How can a negative result of a test with high specificity help?
In excluding the diagnosis
82
Who is the module developer for Canine Infectious Diseases?
Simon Tappin
83
What are the learning objectives for this module?
1. Explain diagnostic tests for infectious diseases. 2. Understand false positive and false negative test results. 3. Know sensitivity and specificity in infectious disease. 4. Consider disease prevalence and predictive values. etc.
84
What is the principle of diagnosing an infectious disease?
Specific tests detect the presence of the organism or evidence of infection through immune response.
85
What factors are helpful in directing investigations for infectious diseases?
Consistent history, clinical signs, and considering the type of organism suspected.
86
Why is a cystocentesis urine sample more appropriate than a free catch sample?
Cystocentesis reduces contamination risk for evaluating potential urinary tract infections.
87
How can a pooled sample be useful in diagnosing certain infections?
A pooled sample over 3 days improves the likelihood of finding intermittently excreted faecal pathogens like Giardia.
88
What is one standard way to document the presence of infection?
Culturing the organism allows rapid identification and assessment of antibiotic therapy.
89
What is the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)?
It is the lowest antimicrobial concentration that inhibits macroscopic bacterial growth.
90
How quickly should urine grows be present in the laboratory?
Urine grows should be present within 24 hours for identification and antibiotic assessment.
91
What are the considerations for handling samples?
Samples should arrive quickly, replicate the sample environment, and follow proper handling and storage techniques.
92
How many doses of vaccine are needed for immunity?
Two doses
93
At what age is the first dose of vaccine usually given?
6 to 9 weeks
94
At what age is the second dose of vaccine usually given?
10 to 12 weeks
95
Do killed vaccines provide prolonged immunity?
No
96
Is annual revaccination necessary for killed vaccines?
Yes
97
What can Leptospira cause in humans?
Serious disease
98
What is the most common risk for developing leptospirosis?
Swimming in infected waterways
99
How does human disease usually present?
Flu-like symptoms
100
What can flu-like symptoms progress to if not treated effectively?
Severe renal or hepatic signs and even death
101
What has caused an increase in feline cases of leptospirosis?
Exposure to rodents while hunting
102
Are feline cases of leptospirosis treated similarly to dog cases?
Yes
103
Where can further information on Leptospira be found?
ACVIM and European consensus statements
104
When was Angiostrongylus vasorum first documented?
1853
105
What are the clinical signs of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?
Respiratory, coagulopathic, and neurological signs
106
Where are the geographic hotspots for Angiostrongylus vasorum in the UK?
South west and south east England, and south Wales
107
What are the primary hosts for Angiostrongylus vasorum?
Domestic dogs and foxes
108
How do dogs become infected with Angiostrongylus vasorum?
Eating infected intermediate hosts or paratenic hosts
109
Where do larvae of Angiostrongylus vasorum migrate to mature?
Pulmonary vasculature
110
What is the variable pre-patent period for Angiostrongylus vasorum?
28 to 108 days
111
Where do the ova of Angiostrongylus vasorum develop into larvae?
Pulmonary capillaries and alveoli
112
How long can untreated dogs excrete Angiostrongylus vasorum larvae post-infection?
Nearly 2 years
113
Where is the distribution of Angiostrongylus vasorum patchy but fairly widespread?
Most of Western Europe
114
What are the historically well-defined areas of infection in the United Kingdom?
Cornwall and south Wales
115
What are the potential causes of the change to the reported distribution of Angiostrongylus vasorum?
Changes to environmental conditions, increased abundance of mollusc hosts, and better awareness of clinical signs
116
Which breed of dogs were found to be at higher risk of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection in southern England?
Cocker, Springer and Cavalier King Charles Spaniels, Jack Russell and Staffordshire Bull Terriers
117
What tests are traditionally used to diagnose Angiostrongylus vasorum?
Modified Baermann floatation, direct faecal smear, tracheobronchial secretions or tracheal wash samples, and PCR tests
118
What is the sensitivity of a direct faecal smear test for Angiostrongylus vasorum?
54-61%
119
What is the sensitivity of an in-house ELISA test for Angiostrongylus vasorum?
85 - 96%
120
What imaging findings can provide supportive evidence of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?
Patchy alveolar pattern in the peripheral lung fields
121
What hematological finding is commonly reported in Angiostrongylus vasorum cases?
Eosinophilia
122
What biochemical finding is commonly reported in Angiostrongylus vasorum cases?
Hyperglobulinaemia
123
In some cases of Angiostrongylus vasorum infection, what has been reported in terms of calcium levels?
Hypercalcaemia
124
What are the two focuses of treatment for Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?
Killing the parasites and supportive therapy.
125
What are the two licensed products to treat Angiostrongylosis in the United Kingdom?
Imidacloprid/moxidectin (Advocate®) and mibemycin/praziquantel (Milbemax®).
126
How is Advocate® administered for the treatment of Angiostrongylosis?
As a monthly spot-on.
127
How are Milbemax® tablets administered for the treatment of Angiostrongylosis?
Orally once a week for four weeks.
128
What is the efficacy of imidacloprid/moxidectin in treating Angiostrongylus stages?
85% according to a blinded randomised controlled field study.
129
What is the recommended dose of fenbendazole for treating Angiostrongylus vasorum?
25-50mg/kg SID for 3-21 days.
130
What signs are most commonly seen in dogs with Angiostrongylosis?
Cardiorespiratory signs, including coughing.
131
When may steroids need to be administered to dogs with Angiostrongylosis?
If respiratory signs worsen after adulticides are administered, especially if worms are killed rapidly.
132
What type of therapy is usually not needed for Angiostrongylus vasorum infection?
Antimicrobial therapy, unless there is secondary bacterial infection.
133
What is occasionally indicated for the treatment of severe pulmonary hypertension in dogs with Angiostrongylosis?
Sildenafil.
134
What is the cause of bleeding in patients with Angiostrongylosis?
It is not well understood and likely has many factors.
135
What are the clinical findings and experimental work suggesting about Angiostrongylus vasorum?
It triggers a compensated state of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
136
What may be required if bleeding is clinically significant in patients with Angiostrongylosis?
Whole blood or fresh frozen plasma.
137
What is the preventative use of Advocate® and Milbemax® for Angiostrongylus?
Four weekly administrations to reduce parasite burden.
138
What are some other measures to reduce the risks of exposure to Angiostrongylosis?
Removing toys from the garden overnight, limiting access to areas with slugs and snails, and regular removal of faecal matter.
139
What is the treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) in dogs?
Intravenous fluid therapy and supportive treatment including continuous renal replacement therapy.
140
What is the only definitive method of confirming the disease CRGV?
Histopathology (plasma exchange suggested as a possible treatment option).
141
Which canine breed is commonly affected by cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy?
Greyhounds.
142
What is the cause of seasonal canine illness (SCI)?
Currently unknown, ongoing research to find the cause.
143
When are cases of seasonal canine illness (SCI) usually seen?
Between August and November, with most numbers reported in September.
144
What are some potential causes investigated for the cause of SCI?
Harvest mites, toxins from plants, fungi, and algae blooms.
145
What are some reported signs of seasonal canine illness (SCI)?
Sudden onset gut upset, vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, pyrexia, tremors, rash.
146
What percentage of dogs died from SCI in 2010?
20% of the dogs developing this syndrome died.
147
What is the lowest concentration that inhibits growth of microorganisms?
The MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration)
148
What is the purpose of culturing fungal samples in a designated laboratory?
To assess for zoonotic risk and perform antifungal sensitivity testing.
149
What is the alternative to viral culture now that PCR tests are widespread?
PCR tests for detecting viral presence.
150
What can direct assessment of samples like aspirates and urine provide?
Rapid assessment of bacterial presence and likely type of infection.
151
What stain can be used to differentiate Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
Gram staining.
152
What stain is used to detect acid-fast bacteria, such as mycobacteria?
Ziehl-Neelson staining.
153
What stains can be used to identify fungi?
Potassium hydroxide on skin samples and Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stains.
154
What types of tests allow detection of microorganism antigens?
ELISA, direct immunofluorescent (IFA), indirect immunofluorescent, and microscopic agglutination assays.
155
What technology is used to detect DNA or RNA of microorganisms?
Nucleic acid technology, such as Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assays and PCR.
156
What is the purpose of real-time or quantitative PCR?
To quantify the amount of DNA from microorganisms.
157
What is the percentage of cases of SCI in 2012?
2%
158
What may cause a weak positive result on ELISA tests for CPV?
Vaccination with a modified live CPV vaccination may cause a weak positive result.
159
How long can a weak positive result last on ELISA tests post-vaccination?
A weak positive result can last for 5 to 15 days post-vaccination.
160
Is ELISA snap test sensitivity comparable to PCR or electron microscopy?
ELISA snap tests are less sensitive when compared to PCR or electron microscopy.
161
When should PCR-based methods be used to confirm negative results on ELISA tests?
PCR-based methods should be used when a patient testing negative on in-house tests still has a clinical suspicion of CPV.
162
Are PCR tests more sensitive than conventional methods for detecting CPV antigens in faeces?
PCR tests have higher sensitivities than conventional methods of viral antigen determination in faeces.
163
What can real-time PCR identify in dogs shedding CPV in their faeces?
Real-time PCR can identify dogs shedding low titres of CPV in their faeces.
164
What can serology (using haemagglutination inhibition) be used to document?
Serology can be used to document an immune response to CPV, indicating a current or previous infection.
165
When do antibodies to CPV become detectable?
Antibodies to CPV become detectable when clinical signs are first seen.
166
Can a single positive serology alone confirm active CPV infection?
A single positive serology is not diagnostic for active CPV infection.
167
What is required along with consistent clinical signs to diagnose current CPV infection by serology?
Detection of anti-CPV IgM or a rising IgG titre is required along with consistent clinical signs.
168
What cleaning methods are effective in eliminating CPV from the environment?
Hypochlorite solutions and steam cleaning are effective in eliminating CPV from the environment.
169
What are the aims of fluid therapy in treating CPV?
The aims of fluid therapy are to treat shock, correct dehydration, and anticipate loss from ongoing diarrhoea and vomiting.
170
What should be given by rapid infusion to improve peripheral perfusion in patients presenting in shock?
A bolus of 10-20ml/kg of a balanced electrolyte solution (e.g. lactated Ringers solution) should be given by rapid infusion.
171
What signs indicate improved peripheral perfusion in patients receiving fluid therapy for CPV?
Improvement in peripheral pulse quality, reduction of heart rate, and improved demeanour indicate improved peripheral perfusion.
172
How long can boluses be repeated if there is no improvement in peripheral perfusion?
Boluses can be repeated up to 60-90ml/kg if there is no improvement in peripheral perfusion.
173
What is Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV)?
Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) are RNA viruses with large club-like projections on their outer surface.
174
What are the signs of Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) infection?
Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) alone does not cause clinical signs, but it can lead to damage to the respiratory mucosa and predispose to secondary infection.
175
How is Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) diagnosed?
Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) is diagnosed using PCR.
176
Is there a vaccine available for Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV)?
At this point, there is no vaccine available for Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV).
177
What are the potential complications of Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) infection?
Complications of Canine Respiratory coronavirus (CRCoV) infection include reversible damage to the respiratory mucosa, leading to a predisposition to secondary infection.
178
What precautions should be taken to minimize the risk of outbreaks of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)?
Environments with a large, transient population of dogs should maintain exemplary hygiene measures to minimize the risk of outbreaks of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB).
179
What antibiotics can be used in cases of suspected Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)?
In cases of suspected Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB), suggested antibiotic choices include Doxycycline, Trimethoprim/sulphonamide, and Potentiated amoxicillin.
180
Which medications may be helpful in uncomplicated cases of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB) with severe coughing?
In uncomplicated cases of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB) with severe coughing, anti-tussives (butorphanol or prednisolone) and/or bronchodilators (theophylline, terbutaline) may be helpful.
181
What should be avoided when using anti-tussives in cases of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)?
Anti-tussives should not be used in cases with severe airway secretions or bronchopneumonia. Nebulization and coupage would be indicated in these cases.
182
What is the cause of tetanus infections?
Tetanus infections are caused by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium tetani.
183
Where is Clostridium tetani commonly found?
Clostridium tetani is widespread in the soil and animal feces.
184
What are the toxins produced by Clostridium tetani?
Clostridium tetani produces tetanolysin and tetanospasmin, with tetanospasmin causing the clinical effects.
185
How does tetanospasmin affect the body?
Tetanospasmin binds to the axons of peripheral nerves, preventing the release of glycine and causing overactivity of motor neurons.
186
How is infection with Clostridium tetani usually acquired?
Infection with Clostridium tetani is usually acquired through a penetrating wound that introduces spores into an anaerobic environment.
187
Where are the most common sites of tetanus infection?
Wounds are usually found around the feet, but bite wounds, non-healing infections, and surgery sites can also be sites of tetanus infection.
188
What is cryptogenic tetanus?
Cryptogenic tetanus refers to cases where a wound is never identified, and the site of infection is not found.
189
Are dogs and cats sensitive to tetanus?
Dogs are 600 times less sensitive to tetanus compared to horses, and cats are 7200 times less sensitive than horses.
190
What are the clinical signs of tetanus infection in dogs?
Clinical signs of tetanus infection in dogs include retracted lips causing a 'sardonic grin', erect ears, trismus (lock jaw), and a stiff gait.
191
What complications can arise from tetanus infection?
Complications of tetanus infection in animals include respiratory distress, aspiration pneumonia, arrhythmia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and hyperthermia.
192
What are the focal signs commonly seen in tetanus infection in cats?
Cats more commonly have focal signs compared to dogs, with extensor rigidity in a single limb.
193
What are the classic history and clinical exam findings for tetanus infection?
History and clinical exam findings are typically classic for tetanus infection.
194
What are the signs of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?
Bone marrow hypoplasia, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia, and platelet dysfunction.
195
Why do only some dogs develop signs of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?
The reason is not clear, but it appears to be more common in German shepherd dogs.
196
Which organ system is important in determining the pathogenesis of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?
The spleen and its mononuclear phagocytic system.
197
What is the prognosis associated with chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?
The prognosis is very guarded.
198
What does biochemistry usually reveal in the phase of chronic Ehrlichia canis infection?
A marked increase in globulins.
199
What diagnostic method can be used to identify Ehrlichia morulae in leucocytes?
Microscopic examination of blood collected from a peripheral capillary vessel or buffy coat analysis.
200
What is the serological evidence of exposure to Ehrlichia canis?
Immunofluorescence antibody titres >40 to 80.
201
What confirms active infection in Ehrlichia canis using serology?
A rising titre of a fourfold increase over a two week period.
202
What is the recommended treatment for Ehrlichia canis?
Doxycycline (5mg/kg q12hrs po or 10mg/kg q24hrs for 21 days).
203
When is chloramphenicol used in the treatment of Ehrlichia canis?
In cases of resistant infections or for puppies younger than 5 months.
204
Which clinical findings are associated with a poor prognosis in Ehrlichia canis infection?
Pancytopenia, prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time, severe anaemia, and hypokalaemia.
205
What is the causative agent of granulocytic ehrlichiosis?
Anaplasma phagocytophilium.
206
How is Anaplasma phagocytophilium transmitted?
Through several species of Ixodes ticks.
207
What is the prevalence of Anaplasma phagocytophilium in Ixodes ticks in the United Kingdom?
0.74%.
208
Where were the first canine cases of Anaplasma phagocytophilium reported?
In Switzerland, Sweden, and North America.
209
What supportive therapy may be required in the treatment of Ehrlichia canis?
Fluid therapy and blood transfusions.
210
What medication can be used in cases of life-threatening thrombocytopenia in Ehrlichia canis?
Short-term use of steroids.
211
What percentage of I.scapularis ticks in Canada are infected with Borrelia burgdorferi?
Over 50%
212
What percentage of Ixodes ticks in Switzerland are infected with Borrelia burgdorferi?
Up to 47%
213
What percentage of cats in the UK are seropositive to B.burgdorferi?
4.20%
214
Do cats with seroconversion to B.burgdorferi show signs associated with lameness or recent disease?
No
215
In experimental studies, do cats develop lameness with Borrelia infection?
Yes, but at much higher doses than dogs
216
What are the initial signs of borreliosis in dogs?
Acute fever (>40˚C), shifting limb lameness, lethargy, joint swelling, and enlargement of local lymph nodes
217
Which dogs are most likely to show severe signs of borreliosis?
Younger dogs and immunocompromised animals
218
In dogs, where is the lameness usually first seen in borreliosis?
In the limb closest to the site of tick attachment
219
What is the condition called when dogs develop chronic non-erosive polyarthritis?
Immune-mediated polyarthritis
220
What is the underlying pathophysiology of protein-losing nephropathy (PLN) in dogs with Borrelia infection?
Unclear
221
What are the signs of PLN in dogs with Borrelia infection?
Weight loss, lethargy, and anorexia
222
What is the classic skin lesion associated with Lyme disease in people?
Erythema migrans, also known as a 'bull's eye' lesion
223
Do dogs often develop a 'bull's eye' skin lesion like people with Lyme disease?
No, but a reddish rash can be seen after tick attachment
224
Are neurological signs secondary to Borrelia infection common in dogs?
No, they are extremely rare
225
What cardiac condition can occur secondary to Borrelia infection in dogs?
Arrhythmia, similar to Lyme carditis in humans
226
Is clinical diagnosis of Lyme disease challenging?
Yes
227
What is the best marker of proteinuria in dogs with PLN?
UPC ratio
228
What changes are seen in joint taps of dogs with borreliosis?
High numbers of non-degenerate neutrophils and increased protein content
229
What is the recommended monitoring method for protein-losing nephropathy in dogs?
Regular urinalysis
230
What happens to Borrelia organisms during infection?
They change their outer surface proteins (Osp)
231
What is the title of the article in the Journal of Small Animal Practice?
Autochthonous babesiosis in the United Kingdom.
232
What is the DOI number for the article in the Journal of Small Animal Practice?
10.1111/jsap.12487
233
Who are the authors of the article 'Canine babesiosis: autochthonous today, endemic tomorrow?'
Cook S. & Swann J.W.
234
What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about ticks in Essex?
Babesia canis infection in ticks in Essex.
235
What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about a case of babesiosis in an untravelled British dog?
Fatal babesiosis in an untravelled British dog.
236
Who are the authors of the article 'The pathophysiology of canine babesiosis: new approaches to an old puzzle'?
Jacobson L.S. & Clark I.A.
237
What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about surveillance for exotic ticks on companion animals in the UK?
Surveillance for exotic ticks on companion animals in the UK.
238
What is the title of the article in the Veterinary Record about the detection of Babesia canis in dogs and associated ticks from Essex?
Babesia canis detected in dogs and associated ticks from Essex.
239
What is the title of the article in Veterinary Parasitology about prophylactic activity of imidocarb against experimental infection with Babesia canis?
Prophylactic activity of imidocarb against experimental infection with Babesia canis.
240
What is the title of the article in Veterinary Parasitology about feline babesiosis in South Africa?
Feline babesiosis in South Africa, a review.
241
What is the title of the report by Toth B. & Roberts H.?
Risk of Incursion and Estabilshment of Certain Exotic Disease and Tick Species to the UK via International Pet Travel.
242
Who are the authors of the article 'First case of babesiosis caused by Babesia canis canis in a dog from Norway'?
Oines O., Storli K. & Brun-Hansen H.
243
What is the title of the article in Veterinary Parasitology about Babesia gibsoni in dogs in Western Europe?
First evidence of Babesia gibsoni (Asian genotype) in dogs in Western Europe.
244
What is the title of the article in Veterinary Record about ticks and tickborne disease?
A ticking clock for tickborne disease?
245
Who are the authors of the article 'Babesia canis and other tick-borne infections in dogs in Central Poland'?
Welc-Faleciak R., Rodo A., Siński E. & Bajer A.
246
What cell lines are mainly affected by Rickettsiea?
White cells and platelets.
247
What are the genera of tick-borne diseases?
Ehrlichia and Anaplasma.
248
What is the most common rickettsial disease in Southern Europe?
Ehrlichia canis.
249
What disease is caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilium in the United Kingdom?
Anaplasmosis.
250
What is the distribution of Ehrlichia canis?
Temperate regions.
251
What is the distribution of Babesia gibsoni in Western Europe?
Western Europe.
252
What is the reservoir for Babesia canis?
Dogs.
253
What are the target cells for Rickettsiea?
White cells and platelets.
254
What genus includes Ehrlichia canis?
Ehrlichia.
255
What genus includes Anaplasma phagocytophilium?
Anaplasma.
256
What are some factors that have caused confusion in the nomenclature of rickettsial diseases?
Advances in DNA sequencing and reclassification of the order Rickettsiales.
257
What is the full name of the disease caused by Ehrlichia canis?
Canine monocytotrophic ehrlichiosis.
258
Where has Anaplasma phagocytophilium been isolated within the United Kingdom?
Ixodes ticks.
259
What are the learning objectives of this module?
Explain the aetiology of canine endemic diseases and their clinical signs.
260
What is the canine distemper virus?
The canine distemper virus is a large enveloped single stranded RNA virus.
261
What is the incidence of distemper?
The incidence of distemper has reduced dramatically since the 1960s.
262
Which animals are susceptible to distemper?
Most terrestrial carnivores are susceptible to distemper.
263
Where is distemper most commonly seen?
Disease is most commonly seen in areas of low vaccination rates and high density areas.
264
How is distemper transmitted?
Distemper is usually transmitted by inhalation and direct dog-to-dog transmission.
265
When does shedding from the respiratory tract start in distemper?
Shedding from the respiratory tract starts seven days post-infection.
266
Do recovered dogs shed the distemper virus?
Recovered dogs generally have lifelong immunity and do not shed the virus.
267
Can distemper virus remain in the CNS?
The virus can remain in the CNS for long periods of time.
268
Is distemper a zoonotic disease?
There is no zoonotic risk associated with distemper.
269
What is the carrier status of distemper?
There is no carrier status for distemper.
270
What other animals can be affected by distemper?
The disease has mutated to affect seals (phocid distemper).
271
What are the clinical signs of Borrelia infection?
Recall the clinical signs associated with Borrelia (Lyme disease).
272
How can you make a diagnosis of Borrelia infection?
Outline how to make a diagnosis of Borrelia infection.
273
What are the treatment options for Borrelia infection?
Consider the treatment options for Borrelia infection.
274
What is the PET travel scheme?
Reflect on the PET travel scheme and its impact on imported diseases.
275
What is the life cycle of tick-borne diseases caused by Babesia and Rickettsia?
Explain the life cycle of the tick-borne diseases caused by Babesia and Rickettsia species.
276
What are the clinical signs of Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease?
Recall the clinical signs associated with infection of Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease.
277
How can you diagnose Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease?
Discuss how to make a diagnosis of these conditions.
278
What are the treatment options for Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease?
Consider the treatment options for Babesiosis and Rickettsial disease.
279
What are the preventative strategies available for tick-borne diseases?
Outline the preventative strategies available for tick-borne diseases.
280
Which cells are most susceptible to the virus?
Macrophages and lymphoid cells are most susceptible.
281
What is the timeline of viraemia development post-infection?
Viraemia develops about two days post-infection.
282
How long does it take for the virus to spread to other lymphoid tissue?
Spread to other lymphoid tissue occurs over a 5-7 day period.
283
What allows the virus to affect epithelial tissue?
Immunosuppression allows the virus to affect epithelial tissue.
284
What factors contribute to the variation of clinical signs in infected dogs?
The tissues in which the virus is most active, the stage of disease, and the susceptibility of the individual.
285
What type of response is important for recovery and elimination of the virus?
The T-cell cytotoxic response is important for recovery and elimination of the virus.
286
What allows dogs showing minimal clinical signs to recover quickly?
High levels of neutralising antibody production that persists for many years.
287
What may explain breed sensitivities to Distemper?
The T-cell response modulating the recovery process.
288
What are the common clinical signs of Distemper in dogs?
Mild pyrexia, inappetence, depression, ocular/nasal discharge, gastrointestinal signs, lower respiratory tract disease, and CNS signs.
289
What are some possible complications of Distemper infection?
Secondary bacterial infections, nocardiosis, toxoplasmosis, generalised demodecosis, and metaphyseal osteopathy.
290
What can transplacental infection with CDV result in?
Infertility, stillbirth, abortion, and neurological signs in puppies at 4 to 6 weeks of age.
291
Where can eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies be documented for histopathological diagnosis?
Respiratory and bladder mucosa are the best sites for documenting eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.
292
What is the most sensitive test for diagnosing Distemper?
PCR using mononuclear cells in the buffy coat, conjunctival smears, or bronchial washes.
293
What changes may be observed in CSF analysis of cases with neurological signs?
Increased protein and mononuclear cells in the CSF.
294
What is diagnostic for Distemper in animals with an intact blood-brain barrier?
The presence of antibody is diagnostic for Distemper in animals with an intact blood-brain barrier.
295
What can prevent a rising antibody titre, making serology interpretation difficult?
Immunosuppression can prevent a rising antibody titre.
296
What can canine babesiosis result in?
Canine babesiosis can result in severe and life-threatening anemia in dogs.
297
Where is babesiosis particularly prevalent?
Babesiosis is particularly prevalent in France.
298
What tick vectors are widespread and endemic in most of Southern Europe?
Tick vectors for babesiosis are widespread and endemic in most of Southern Europe.
299
Where were cases of Babesia canis infection reported in 2016?
Cases of Babesia canis infection were reported in the Essex area in 2016.
300
Besides France, where else has canine babesiosis become established in the UK?
Canine babesiosis has become established in specific areas of the United Kingdom, including the Essex area and Kent.
301
When were the first reports of babesiosis in dogs made?
The first reports of babesiosis in dogs were made in Africa in the 1890s.
302
How many genetically distinct intraerythrocytic piroplasm parasites have been identified?
At least nine genetically distinct intraerythrocytic piroplasm parasites have been identified.
303
How are Babesia species divided morphologically?
Babesia species are divided morphologically into large and small forms.
304
What are the clinical findings associated with babesiosis caused by Babesia canis?
The clinical findings include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and fever.
305
What tick is the vector for Babesia canis?
The tick vector for Babesia canis is Dermacentor reticulates.
306
Where has Dermacentor reticulatus historically been found?
Dermacentor reticulatus has historically been found in the southern parts of Europe.
307
Which tick vector has recently been found in Poland, Belgium, and Germany?
Dermacentor reticulatus has recently been found in Poland, Belgium, and Germany.
308
Where are pockets of Dermacentor reticulatus found within the UK?
Pockets of Dermacentor reticulatus are found in west Wales, parts of Essex, and coastal areas of North and South Devon.
309
Which tick vectors mirror the geographic incidence of Babesia canis infection?
Dermacentor reticulates and Rhipicephalus sanguineus mirror the geographic incidence of Babesia canis infection.
310
What other parasite is Babesia canis transmitted by?
Babesia canis is also transmitted by Rhipicephalus sanguineus.
311
Where is Rhipicephalus sanguineus found?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus is found worldwide, particularly in warm and humid areas.
312
What is the risk of Rhipicephalus sanguineus becoming endemic in the UK?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus is unlikely to become endemic in the UK due to the cold climatic conditions.
313
What disease may be less effective against Ehrlichia canis?
Rickettsial Disease
314
What journal published the study on immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia associated with Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
Journal of Small Animal Practice
315
What is the molecular evidence supporting Ehrlichia canis-like infection in cats?
Breitschwerdt E.B., Abrams-Ogg A.C.G., Lappin M.R., et al. (2002). Journal of Veterinary Internal Medicine 16, 642-649
316
What drug failed to clear experimentally induced Ehrlichia canis infection in dogs?
Imidocarb dipropionate
317
What tick can transmit Ehrlichia canis when feeding on dogs?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus ticks
318
What are the prognostic indicators for canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?
Shipov A, Klement E, Reuveni-Tager L, et al. (2008). Veterinary Parasitology 153,131-138
319
What is the prevalence of Babesia and Anaplasma in ticks infesting dogs in Great Britain?
Smith F.D., Ellse L. & Wall R. (2013). Veterinary Parasitology 198, 18-23
320
What tick species is mentioned in the document regarding the risk of incursion and establishment of exotic diseases and ticks in the UK?
Certain Tick Species
321
What is the infection mentioned in a dog with no history of travel outside the United Kingdom?
Ehrlichia canis
322
When should protective wear be used when taking tissue samples?
When an invasive fungus such as Coccidioides immitis is suspected.
323
Where can culture samples be submitted for fungal culture for Coccidioides infection?
Health Protection Agency.
324
How should culture samples be handled when a tissue invasive fungal organism is suspected?
Very carefully.
325
Where is serological testing for Coccidioides immitis possible?
Only in the USA.
326
What is the recommended treatment duration for coccidioidomycosis beyond clinical cure?
4-6 months.
327
What is the preferred drug for animals with bony involvement in coccidioidomycosis treatment?
Itraconazole.
328
What is the recommended monitoring for liver enzymes with azole antifungal therapy?
Periodic monitoring after 4-6 weeks and then every 3-4 months.
329
When should treatment with Amphotericin-B be reserved for coccidioidomycosis?
Severe disease failing traditional azole therapy.
330
What is the causal agent of Lyme disease in veterinary species?
Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato.
331
Where were the symptoms of infectious polyarthritis first described in Lyme disease?
In the town of Lyme, Connecticut, USA.
332
What are the classic signs of canine Lyme disease?
Fever, lethargy, and shifting limb lameness.
333
When are signs of Lyme disease usually seen in dogs?
Within a month of the tick bite.
334
Which tick species is the most common vector for Lyme disease in the UK?
Ixodes ricinus (sheep tick or castor bean tick).
335
Which tick species has a 2-3 year life cycle and can harbor Borrelia for most of that period?
Ixodes ricinus.
336
How is B.burgdorferi transmitted to the host by nymph or adult ticks?
During feeding.
337
Which Borrelia species have been found to cause borreliosis in people in Northern Europe?
Borrelia afzelii and Borrelia garinii.
338
What advantage do sedation and nasogastric tubes have?
Assessment of gastric residual volume and gastrointestinal motility.
339
When should parenteral nutrition be considered?
If prolonged anorexia and/or vomiting occurs.
340
What caution should be taken when using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in young and dehydrated patients?
They can cause gastrointestinal ulceration and nephrotoxicity.
341
What is the result of recombinant feline interferon (rFeIFN-ω) treatment in parvovirus enteritis?
Reduction in mortality and clinical signs.
342
What is the recommended therapeutic intervention for dogs with CPV enteritis?
Early aggressive interventions, including enteral nutrition.
343
What can persist in some cases of CPV enteritis?
Persistent intestinal villous atrophy and chronic gastrointestinal dysfunction.
344
What is a possible complication of CPV infection in puppies infected before 8 weeks of age?
Myocarditis and subsequent myocardial dysfunction.
345
Which virus causes Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Canine adenovirus 1 (CAV-1).
346
What is the most common route of exposure for Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Direct dog-to-dog contact.
347
Where does viral replication take place in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Pharyngeal lymphoid tissue and intestinal lymphoid structures.
348
What can cause jaundice in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Hepatocellular destruction and biliary obstruction.
349
What can result from endothelial damage in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Effusions in the pericardial sac, thoracic and abdominal cavities.
350
What causes the 'blue eye' phenomenon in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Interaction of CAV-1 antigen in the corneal endothelium with antibody in the aqueous humour.
351
What follows immune response in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
High levels of neutralizing antibodies that persist for many years.
352
What is the cause of anterior uveitis in Canine Infectious Hepatitis?
Widespread ocular inflammation.
353
What are the clinical signs of CPV enteritis?
Large volumes of foul-smelling and bloody diarrhea, severe dehydration
354
How does CPV infection lead to intestinal protein loss?
Inflammation causes hypoalbuminemia, resulting in protein loss
355
What can cause neutropenia in CPV enteritis?
Damage to bone marrow progenitors can lead to neutropenia
356
What can puppies infected with CPV develop?
Myocarditis due to viral replication in the myocardium
357
What type of CPV vaccines are available in the UK?
Modified live CPV vaccines based on CPV type 2 or 2b subtypes
358
What are the recommended vaccination protocols for CPV?
Initial vaccination at 8-9 weeks, second vaccination 3-4 weeks later, third vaccination between 14-16 weeks, followed by a booster after 12 months
359
What is the duration of immunity conferred by CPV infection?
Lifelong immunity in the majority of cases
360
Which breed is at increased risk of CPV infection due to poor humoral response?
Rottweilers, Doberman pinschers, Staffordshire bull terriers
361
What is the window of susceptibility for CPV infection?
Between six weeks and six months of age when declining maternal antibodies interfere with vaccine-induced response
362
What is the risk factor for CPV infection in intact male dogs?
They are infected disproportionately to their population
363
When is there an increase in CPV cases reported in temperate climates?
Between the months of July and September
364
What are the hematological findings associated with CPV enteritis?
Leukopenia, lymphocytolysis, and neutropenia
365
What is a diagnostic sign for distemper in a not recently vaccinated dog?
Elevated IgM levels
366
How long does IgM remain elevated after infection?
Three months
367
How long does IgM remain elevated after vaccination?
Three weeks
368
What is the aim of therapy for distemper?
Controlling clinical signs
369
What are some non-specific supportive therapies for distemper?
Antibiotic therapy, fluid therapy, and careful nursing
370
What can be used in neurological cases of distemper?
Sedatives and anticonvulsants
371
What should be considered in cases of distemper with progressive signs?
Euthanasia
372
What type of vaccines have greatly reduced the prevalence of distemper in the UK?
Modified life vaccines
373
What are the two types of cell culture used in modified life vaccines for distemper?
Avian cell culture and canine cell culture
374
Which strain of modified life vaccine for distemper is associated with higher levels of post vaccine encephalitis?
The Rockborn strain
375
What animals can live vaccines for distemper be fatal in?
Red pandas and black-footed ferrets
376
What vaccines have historically been used to protect puppies with high maternally derived antibody from distemper?
Measles vaccines
377
What can be effective in controlling distemper in kennels or rescue centers?
Management and disinfectant machines
378
What is the duration of immunity for UK vaccines against distemper?
3 years
379
What animal is frequently vaccinated against distemper in the UK?
Pet ferrets
380
What is the most common cause of viral enteritis in dogs in the UK?
Canine parvovirus
381
What are the three known strains of canine parvovirus?
CPV-2a, CPV-2b, and CPV-2c
382
What is the mortality rate without treatment for dogs infected with canine parvovirus?
Up to 91%
383
What are parvoviruses?
Small, non-enveloped, single-stranded DNA viruses
384
When did canine parvovirus emerge as a clinical problem?
In 1978
385
What is the mode of transmission for canine parvovirus?
Faecal-oral route
386
Where does viral replication occur after a dog is infected with canine parvovirus?
Within lymphoid tissue, rapidly dividing cells, and intestinal crypt epithelium, bone marrow, and myocardium
387
What is the age range of puppies most susceptible to severe infections of canine parvovirus?
Under twelve weeks of age
388
What is the primary mode of transmission for Bordetella bronchiseptica?
Transmission primarily occurs via an airborne route.
389
What are the common signs of respiratory disease caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica in dogs?
Mild signs include sneezing, mucopurulent nasal discharge, and a harsh honking cough.
390
How is the diagnosis of Bordetella bronchiseptica made?
Diagnosis is made on culture and PCR of nasal or pharyngeal swabs.
391
What is the drug of choice for Bordetella bronchiseptica if culture results are unavailable?
Doxycycline becomes the drug of choice.
392
Can Bordetella bronchiseptica be isolated from healthy cats?
Yes, Bordetella bronchiseptica can be isolated from healthy cats.
393
What type of virus is canine parainfluenza virus (CPiV)?
Canine parainfluenza virus (CPiV) is an RNA virus.
394
What is the recommended method of administering vaccination for CPiV?
Intranasal vaccination may provide better and more long-lasting protection.
395
What is the primary site of infection for Canine Adenovirus 2 (CAV-2)?
Canine Adenovirus 2 (CAV-2) primarily infects the upper respiratory tract of dogs.
396
What is the duration of cover provided by parenteral vaccination with CAV-2?
Parenteral vaccination with CAV-2 provides long-lasting (3 years) cover.
397
What type of viruses are influenza viruses?
Influenza viruses are enveloped single-stranded RNA viruses.
398
Where did the first outbreak of canine influenza virus (CIV) occur?
The first outbreak of CIV occurred in racing greyhounds in Florida.
399
What is the role of canine Herpes virus (CHV-1) in ITB?
The role of CHV-1 in ITB is controversial.
400
What is the vector that transmits Babesia gibsoni?
Heamaphysalis species and possibly Rhipicephalus sanguineus.
401
Where is Babesia gibsoni rarely reported?
Europe
402
What is the surprising finding in the study of UK tick population?
Presence of Babesia gibsoni DNA in Ixodes ricinus ticks
403
Where are clinical cases of Babesia gibsoni recently reported?
Germany
404
What is the competent vector for Babesia rossi?
Yellow dog tick, Heamaphysalis elliptica
405
Where are clinical cases of Babesia rossi mainly limited to?
South Africa
406
Which breed of dogs have a worse prognosis with Babesia rossi infection?
Bull terrier breeds
407
Where is clinical disease due to Babesia felis predominately reported in domestic cats?
South Africa and Sudan
408
Which Babesia species was isolated from lions in Kruger National Park?
Babesia leo
409
What are the clinical signs commonly observed in cats with babesiosis?
Lethargy, anorexia, and depression
410
What could lead to the development of clinical disease in cats with babesiosis?
Concurrent infection with FIV, FeLV, or mycoplasma haemofelis
411
How is babesiosis transmitted?
Through tick saliva during feeding
412
How long does a tick need to be attached for babesiosis transmission to occur?
48-72 hours
413
What happens to Babesia organisms in the tick gut after feeding?
They differentiate into gametes and undergo sexual reproduction
414
What organ in the tick allows infection of the host during feeding?
Tick salivary gland
415
What is an alternative route of fluid administration if venous access is not possible?
An intramedullary catheter is an alternative route of fluid administration.
416
How should the fluid deficit be calculated?
The fluid deficit should be calculated by multiplying percentage dehydration x body weight in kilograms.
417
Why are subcutaneous and intraperitoneal fluids not recommended for severe dehydration?
There will be inadequate fluid distribution due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
418
What should be added to fluids to supplement potassium in cases of vomiting and anorexia?
Potassium chloride should be added to fluids.
419
What is the maximum infusion rate of potassium chloride to avoid thrombophlebitis and adverse effects on cardiac function?
The maximum infusion rate of potassium chloride should not exceed 0.5mEq/kg/hr.
420
What can be added to fluids to supplement glucose in cases of hypoglycaemia?
Concentrated glucose solution can be added to fluids to supplement glucose.
421
What type of antimicrobial therapy is necessary to treat septic shock in cases of CPV infection?
Cephalosporin or potentiated amoxicillin with metronidazole provide excellent cover against bacteria.
422
What is an effective antiemetic that also increases gastrointestinal motility?
Metoclopramide is an effective antiemetic that also increases gastrointestinal motility.
423
What should be taken into consideration when using maropitant as an antiemetic?
Dose reductions may be needed in hypoalbuminemic patients and puppies <8 weeks old.
424
What are the potential benefits of early enteral nutritional therapy in dogs with CPV?
Early enteral nutritional therapy can lead to earlier clinical improvement and weight gain.
425
When should enteral nutrition be commenced in dogs with CPV?
Enteral nutrition should be commenced as soon as possible if it doesn't exacerbate vomiting.
426
What type of tubes can be easily placed for enteral nutrition in dogs?
Naso-oesophageal and nasogastric tubes can easily be placed with minimal difficulty.
427
What is the causal agent of canine monocytotropic ehrlichiosis?
Ehrlichia canis
428
Where was Ehrlichia canis first described?
Algeria
429
Which animals are susceptible to Ehrlichia Canis infection?
Dogs, jackals, foxes, and coyotes
430
What is the vector for Ehrlichia canis?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (the brown dog tick)
431
Where is Ehrlichia canis infection found?
Worldwide in temperate and tropical areas, except Australia
432
Which areas have reported cases of canine Ehrlichia canis infection in Europe?
South coast of France, Corsica, Greece, and southern half of Italy
433
Is Ehrlichia canis currently considered endemic in the United Kingdom?
No
434
What is the reservoir for Ehrlichia canis infection?
Wild and domestic dogs
435
Which tick species has been suggested as a potential alternative vector for Ehrlichia canis?
Argas vespertilionis
436
How is Ehrlichia canis transmitted to the next stage in ticks?
Ticks must feed on an infected dog in the acute phase
437
What is the incubation period for Ehrlichia canis infection?
8-20 days
438
How many phases of ehrlichoisis are seen?
Three: acute, subclinical, and chronic
439
What are the typical signs during the acute phase of Ehrlichia canis infection?
Fever, anorexia, and lymphadenomegaly
440
What are the usual hematological results in dogs with Ehrlichia canis infection?
Thrombocytopenia, leucopenia, and anaemia
441
What is the duration of the acute phase of Ehrlichia canis infection?
1-4 weeks
442
What are the possible clinical complaints associated with Babesia canis infection?
Acute illness, pyrexia, pallor, splenomegaly, collapse.
443
What can cause haemoglobinuria and bilirubinuria in Babesia infections?
Excessive red cell breakdown.
444
What is the term for a more severe syndrome of babesiosis with organ dysfunction?
Complicated babesiosis.
445
What are some signs associated with complicated babesiosis?
Acute kidney injury, hepatic dysfunction, acute lung injury, cerebral dysfunction, coagulation defects.
446
Which tick-borne disease can be transmitted concurrently with babesiosis?
Ehrlichia canis.
447
What is the diagnostic method for canine Babesia?
Demonstrating the presence of organisms in infected erythrocytes.
448
Which test is the most sensitive and specific for diagnosing infection?
PCR on EDTA anticoagulated blood.
449
What are the typical results of general hematology in babesiosis?
Normocytic normochromic anemia which becomes regenerative after a few days.
450
What results can be seen in the biochemistry in Babesia rossi infection?
Elevated bilirubin, globulins, liver enzymes, hypoglycemia, azotemia, marked acid-base imbalances.
451
What is the treatment for babesiosis?
Symptomatic supportive care and parasite clearance.
452
What are some diseases that can cause acute onset muscular rigidity?
Polymyositis and strychnine toxicity
453
What are the common blood test results for a patient with tetanus?
Increased CK, AST, and myoglobinuria
454
What is the difficulty in diagnosing C.tetani?
The toxin is highly bound within neurons and culture of the organism is difficult
455
What is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy for tetanus?
Intravenous metronidazole
456
What can be administered to neutralize free toxin in tetanus?
Tetanus antitoxin
457
What is the potential risk of administering tetanus antitoxin?
Anaphylactic reactions
458
What is the recommended care for a dog with tetanus?
Darkened room, minimized stress and handling, and supportive care
459
How long does it take for dogs to recover from tetanus?
Around 3 weeks for new presynaptic terminals to allow recovery
460
Why is vaccination not recommended for dogs and cats for tetanus?
Relative rareness of tetanus
461
What were the primary aims of the PETS travel scheme?
Reduce the risk of importing rabies, Echinococcus multilocularius, and tick vectors
462
When were quarantine requirements introduced in the UK?
1897
463
Why were quarantine requirements introduced?
To control rabies
464
What is the incubation period for rabies?
2-3 months
465
How many people does rabies currently kill each year?
Approximately 55,000
466
What did quarantine hold imported animals in?
Secure area
467
What proteins undergo antigenic variation in the Spirochete bacteria?
OspA, OspC, and OspF.
468
Which outer membrane protein in Spirochete rapidly changes its structure after infection?
VIsE or variable major protein-like sequence.
469
What is the constant non-variable part of VIsE protein in Spirochete?
The C6 peptide.
470
What can be used for rapid and definitive diagnosis of canine Lyme disease?
Positive serology for C6 antibodies.
471
What is the preferred method for diagnosing B.burgdorferi infection?
Quantitative PCR tests, especially tissue PCR of synovial membrane and skin.
472
What are the clinical signs of canine Lyme disease?
Lameness, fever, lethargy, anorexia, painful swollen joint, pain/swelling near inability to rise.
473
What are the possible causes of joint disease in dogs?
Borreliosis, metabolic disease, immune-mediated disease, cardiopulmonary disease, etc.
474
Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for treating B.burgdorferi infection?
Doxycycline.
475
How long is the recommended treatment duration for B.burgdorferi infection?
4 weeks.
476
What are the alternatives to Doxycycline for growing animals?
Amoxicillin.
477
Besides its antimicrobial effect, what other benefits does Doxycycline offer in canine Lyme disease treatment?
Immunomodulatory and chondroprotective effects.
478
What should be instigated alongside antibiotic therapy when proteinuria is documented?
Early treatment for glomerular nephritis.
479
Which enzyme inhibitors reduce renal protein loss in glomerular nephritis?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
480
What is the purpose of worming animals with praziquantel under the PETS scheme?
To prevent the tapeworm Echinococcus multilocularis from entering the United Kingdom
481
What are the clinical consequences of an aberrant infection with Echinococcus multilocularis in humans?
Alveolar echinococcosis, which is an extremely debilitating disease with a high mortality rate
482
How do people become infected with Echinococcus multilocularis?
By ingesting eggs excreted by infected foxes, dogs, or cats
483
Why are tick borne diseases of interest in human and veterinary medicine?
Ticks are efficient vectors of disease with long life cycles
484
What is the most effective drug for clearance of Babesia canis?
Imidocarb dipropionate
485
Why is imidocarb dipropionate used off-label for the treatment of canine babesiosis in the UK?
There is no licensed product available in the UK for the treatment of canine babesiosis
486
What is the suggested alternative treatment for canine babesiosis if imidocarb dipropionate is not immediately available?
High dose clindamycin
487
What are the commonly seen side effects of imidocarb dipropionate?
Excessive salivation, lacrimation, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, diarrhea, unsettled/agitated behavior
488
What is the suggested premedication to prevent the common side effects of imidocarb dipropionate?
Atropine
489
What is the mechanism of action of imidocarb dipropionate?
Interferes with parasite DNA metabolism and aerobic glycolysis
490
What are the suggested methods of reducing the risk of canine babesiosis?
Preventing tick attachment and killing ticks before disease transmission, regular use of topical products or long-acting oral treatments
491
What measures should be taken by immunosuppressed or splenectomized individuals when handling babesiosis-infected animals?
Exercise caution in removing ticks and handling blood samples
492
Is there a zoonotic risk associated with canine and feline Babesia species?
In general, no, but rare cases of human babesiosis have been reported in specific patient populations
493
What are the clinical signs of CAV-1 infection?
Clinical signs may include mild malaise, blue-eye, depression, anorexia, PU/PD, and death.
494
What are the differential diagnoses for CAV-1?
Differential diagnoses include rodenticide toxicity, abdominal catastrophes, Leptospirosis, and CDV.
495
How can CAV-1 be diagnosed?
Diagnosis can be made through virus isolation from blood, urine, or liver biopsy, and a fourfold increase in antibody titre.
496
What are the histopathological findings in CAV-1 infection?
Post-mortem examination may reveal hepatitis, lymphadenitis, perivascular haemorrhage, and intra-nuclear inclusions, particularly within the liver.
497
What is the treatment for CAV-1?
Treatment is mainly symptomatic and supportive with intravenous fluids, blood transfusion, antibiotics, and intensive nursing care.
498
What vaccines are used for CAV-1?
Initial vaccines used live attenuated strains of CAV-1, but now live CAV-2 vaccines are preferred.
499
What are the advantages of live CAV-2 vaccines?
CAV-2 vaccines have no trophism for the eye, do not cause 'blue-eye', and provide protection against respiratory effects.
500
At what age can vaccination against CAV-1 be started?
Vaccination may be started as early as six weeks of age and completed by 10 to 12 weeks with 3 yearly booster inoculations.
