Feline 2 AI Flashcards

1
Q

What is the significance of anaemia in cats infected with FeLV and Candidatus M. Haemominutum?

A

Significant anaemia has been seen in cats infected with FeLV and Candidatus M. Haemominutum.

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2
Q

What is myloproliferative disease and how does it relate to co-infected cats?

A

Myloproliferative disease occurs more frequently in co-infected cats than in cats with FeLV alone.

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3
Q

What is known about Candidatus M. turicensis in relation to anaemia and blood smear assessment?

A

Candidatus M. turicensis has never been visualized on blood smear assessment but has been associated with severe intravascular haemolysis.

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4
Q

What is the prevalence range of Candidatus M. turicensis in sick cats?

A

The prevalence of Candidatus M. turicensis in sick cats varies from 0.5-10%.

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5
Q

Is there any association between retrovirus status and Mycoplasma haemofelis infection?

A

Some studies report an association between retrovirus status and Mycoplasma haemofelis infection, with haemoplasma positive cats being up to six times more likely to be FIV positive.

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6
Q

What are the different phases of haemoplasma infection?

A

The different phases of haemoplasma infection include pre-bacteraemic, acute infection, recovery, and carrier phases.

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7
Q

What is the duration of the pre-bacteraemic phase after inoculation with M. haemofelis?

A

The pre-bacteraemic phase after inoculation with M. haemofelis can last from 2 to 34 days.

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8
Q

What are the clinical signs commonly observed in cats with haemoplasma infection?

A

Common clinical signs include depression, inappetence, dehydration, weight loss, pale mucous membranes, tachypnoea, tachycardia, heart murmurs, splenomegaly, icterus, pica, and licking at concrete.

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9
Q

What are the typical findings on blood smear in cats with haemoplasma infection?

A

Typical findings on blood smear include autoagglutination, regenerative anaemia with anisocytosis, reticulocytosis, polychromasia, and Howell-Jolly bodies. Non-regenerative anaemia may also be seen in some cases.

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10
Q

What is the preferred treatment for haemoplasma infection?

A

Doxycycline 10mg/kg q24 PO for a minimum of 2 weeks is the treatment of choice.

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11
Q

What is the role of Marbofloxacin in the treatment of haemoplasma infection?

A

Marbofloxacin has been demonstrated to be effective at decreasing DNA copy numbers, but these levels may return to pre-treatment levels on cessation of therapy.

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12
Q

When is blood transfusion warranted in cats with haemoplasma infection?

A

Blood transfusion may be warranted in cats with haemoplasma infection.

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13
Q

What factors may contribute to the formation of a carrier state in cats with haemoplasma infection?

A

Stress, pregnancy, corticosteroid administration, concurrent illness, or neoplasia may contribute to the formation of a carrier state in cats with haemoplasma infection.

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14
Q

How accurate is cytological diagnosis in detecting haemoplasma infections?

A

Cytological diagnosis detects less than 50% of M. haemofelis infections and substantially less Candidatus M. Haemominutum infections.

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15
Q

What is the gold standard for detecting haemoplasma infection?

A

PCR detection is the gold standard for detecting haemoplasma infection.

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16
Q

What should be considered before undertaking bronchoscopy and BAL in cats?

A

The risk/benefit ratio

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17
Q

What pre-medication can be useful before bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) in cats?

A

Terbutaline, if there are no contra-indications

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18
Q

What technique can be used for performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) in cats?

A

Either with bronchoscopic guidance or by a blind technique

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19
Q

How should the cat be positioned during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) if the disease is unilateral?

A

In lateral recumbency with the affected side placed down

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20
Q

What type of catheter is typically used for performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) in cats without endoscopic guidance?

A

A sterile dog urinary catheter

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21
Q

What should the sterile catheter be measured against when performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) without endoscopic guidance?

A

Against the cat’s chest

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22
Q

How much pre-warmed sterile saline is typically flushed down the catheter during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?

A

Approximately 3ml aliquots are used

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23
Q

What should be done between flushing and aspirating during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?

A

Coupàge the chest to release cells into the saline

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24
Q

How many flushes are typically performed during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?

A

Three flushes

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25
Q

What is the ideal flush for cytological examination during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?

A

The third flush

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26
Q

What should be done after collection of the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF)?

A

Allow the cat a few minutes of increased oxygenation prior to recovery from anesthesia

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27
Q

What emergency bronchodilator can be administered if bronchoconstriction is stimulated during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?

A

IV terbutaline

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28
Q

What should be assessed in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) collected?

A

Cytology and culture

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29
Q

What should be done if anaerobic culture is required for the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) sample?

A

All air should be removed from the container

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30
Q

Which species should be specifically requested to be looked for during culture, as they are not routinely cultured for?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica and Mycoplasma species

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31
Q

What is the normal range of nucleated cells in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) in healthy cats?

A

150-450 cells/µl

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32
Q

What is the normal range of macrophages in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) in healthy cats?

A

60-90%

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33
Q

What is the normal range of eosinophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) in healthy cats?

A

2-30%

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34
Q

What do leukocytes with intracellular bacteria in tracheal/bronchial fluid indicate?

A

Active infection

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35
Q

What do large numbers of neutrophils, especially those with degenerative changes, in tracheal/bronchial fluid suggest?

A

Infection

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36
Q

What should be performed before antibiotic administration for tracheal/bronchial fluid culture?

A

Culture and sensitivity including anaerobic culture

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37
Q

What should be provided if the SPO2 is less than 94% or PaO2 is less than 80mmHg in cats with pneumonia?

A

Oxygen supplementation

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38
Q

Why is humidification of oxygen essential for cats with pneumonia?

A

To maintain the mucociliary escalator and facilitate coughing of secretions

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39
Q

Why are intravenous fluids often indicated for cats with pneumonia?

A

To compensate for fluid loss and prevent dehydration

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40
Q

How can inappetant cats with pneumonia benefit in terms of nutrition?

A

Supplemental feeding through parenteral nutrition or nasooesophageal/oesophagostomy tube placement

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41
Q

What is the VLA culture system optimized for?

A

The growth of M. bovis and other members of the tuberculosis complex group.

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42
Q

Why are NTM difficult to grow?

A

Even with optimized systems, NTM are exceedingly difficult to grow.

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43
Q

What has PCR demonstrated in samples with pyogranulomatous inflammation?

A

PCR has demonstrated mycobacterial infection in ZN negative samples.

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44
Q

What does relying on special stains alone potentially lead to?

A

Gross underestimation of tuberculosis prevalence.

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45
Q

What has historically caused tuberculosis in cats?

A

Ingestion of milk from tuberculous infected cattle.

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46
Q

What has led to a decline in tuberculosis prevalence in cats?

A

Reduction of tuberculosis in the national herd and pasteurization of milk.

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47
Q

What are the two main forms of tuberculosis seen in cats?

A

Infection with M. bovis or M. microti.

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48
Q

How rare is M. tuberculosis infection in cats?

A

Incredibly rare, as cats are naturally very resistant to it.

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49
Q

What is the current epidemiology of tuberculosis in cats?

A

Unclear, but few cases are believed to relate to direct infection from cattle.

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50
Q

What are the common clinical manifestations of tuberculosis in cats?

A

Skin ulcers, masses that fail to heal, and lymphadenopathy.

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51
Q

What possible risk factor is associated with cats infected with tuberculosis?

A

Cats that are keen hunters and regularly catch small rodents.

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52
Q

Which wild animals in the UK can carry M. bovis and M. microti?

A

Wild mice, voles, foxes, stoats, moles, rats, and deer.

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53
Q

How do cats most likely become infected with tuberculosis?

A

By hunting small wild rodents and being bitten during play.

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54
Q

Where is M. bovis often endemic in Britain?

A

In badgers, with a potential risk for cats to become infected through environmental contamination.

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55
Q

Are all members of the tuberculosis complex a potential zoonotic risk?

A

Yes, all members pose potential zoonotic risks.

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56
Q

Have there been any reported cases of cats passing tuberculosis to humans?

A

To date, there have been no reported cases of cats transmitting tuberculosis to humans.

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57
Q

What are the variable changes that can occur in feline tuberculosis?

A

The variable changes in feline tuberculosis include tracheo-bronchial lymphadenopathy, interstitial or miliary lung infiltration, localised lung consolidation, or pleural effusion.

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58
Q

What may be revealed through abdominal radiography in feline tuberculosis?

A

Abdominal radiography may reveal hepato- or splenomegaly, abdominal masses, mineralised mesenteric lymph nodes or ascites.

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59
Q

What do bone lesions tend to consist of in feline tuberculosis?

A

Bone lesions tend to consist of areas of bony lysis and sclerosis, osteoarthritis, discospondylitis or periostitis.

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60
Q

What is the recently developed test for detecting members of the tuberculosis complex in cats?

A

The recently developed test is the interferon-gamma test.

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61
Q

Are specific tests for the diagnosis of tuberculosis helpful in cats?

A

Specific tests for the diagnosis of tuberculosis have generally proved less helpful in cats.

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62
Q

What type of test is unreliable in cats for detecting tuberculosis?

A

Intra-dermal skin testing using tuberculin is unreliable in cats.

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63
Q

How can mycobacterial involvement be confirmed in cats?

A

Mycobacterial involvement can be confirmed by staining aspirates and/or biopsy samples of affected tissue with ZN stain or other specific special stains.

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64
Q

Why is it important to identify the exact species of mycobacteria involved in feline tuberculosis?

A

Identifying the exact species helps evaluate zoonotic risk, potential sources of infection, and feasible treatment options.

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65
Q

What is the recommended handling procedure for biopsy material in suspected mycobacterial cases?

A

Collect the biopsy, fix one piece in formalin for histopathological examination and ZN staining, freeze two pieces, and send the fourth sample unfixed for bacterial culture and ZN staining.

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66
Q

What does histopathology of affected tissue in feline tuberculosis generally reveal?

A

Histopathology of affected tissue generally reveals granulomatous inflammation with foamy macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli.

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67
Q

What should be considered before deciding to treat a case of suspected feline tuberculosis?

A

Potential zoonotic risk and involvement of all members of the affected cat’s household should be considered.

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68
Q

When is treatment of suspected feline tuberculosis strongly advised against?

A

Treatment is strongly advised against if immune-suppressed individuals may be exposed to an infected cat.

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69
Q

Who should receive particular consideration regarding zoonotic risk in feline tuberculosis cases?

A

Household members with HIV infection, or those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplantation, should receive particular consideration.

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70
Q

What is the alternative option for culture when tissue is not available for feline tuberculosis diagnosis?

A

Molecular PCR techniques can be considered as an alternative to culture when tissue is not available.

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71
Q

What can be sent for specialist culture if ZN positive organisms are found in feline tuberculosis samples?

A

One of the frozen pieces can be sent for specialist culture to identify the mycobacteria species.

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72
Q

When is PCR recommended for feline tuberculosis diagnosis?

A

PCR is recommended in cases where treatment is being considered, as culture can take up to 6 months.

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73
Q

What are the greatest tuberculosis risks to humans?

A

Spending time with infected humans or handling infected cattle.

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74
Q

What is a reverse zoonosis?

A

When humans infect animals with tuberculosis.

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75
Q

What are the geographical distributions of M. bovis and M. microti in cats in Great Britain?

A

M. bovis is found in the South West of England, while M. microti is found in the South East of England, the North of England, and the South of Scotland.

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76
Q

Which cats are mainly affected by tuberculosis?

A

Adult cats, with the median age being 3 years for M. bovis and 8 years for M. microti.

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77
Q

Are FIV and FeLV infections common in cats with tuberculosis?

A

No, as those cats tested for FIV and FeLV have usually been negative.

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78
Q

What role does low serum vitamin D concentrations play in fighting tuberculosis in cats?

A

Low serum vitamin D concentrations may affect the effectiveness of their macrophages in fighting these infections.

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79
Q

What are the clinical signs of tuberculosis in cats?

A

Systemic signs related to the alimentary and/or respiratory tracts, or localised disease affecting the skin.

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80
Q

What is the most common presentation for tuberculosis in cats?

A

The cutaneous form, with respiratory and alimentary forms being less frequent.

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81
Q

Where do cutaneous lesions of tuberculosis in cats commonly occur?

A

On the face, extremities, tail base, perineum, or ventral thorax.

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82
Q

What are the manifestations of tuberculosis in cats with pulmonary infection?

A

Weight loss, anorexia, dyspnoea, and coughing.

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83
Q

What are the manifestations of tuberculosis in cats with alimentary infection?

A

Weight loss, anaemia, vomiting, and diarrhoea due to intestinal malabsorption.

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84
Q

What clinical signs may be seen with disseminated tuberculosis in cats?

A

Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, pleural or pericardial effusions, generalised lymphadenopathy, weight loss, and fever.

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85
Q

What complications can arise in cats with tuberculosis?

A

Lameness from bone involvement, granulomatous uveitis, and central nervous system involvement.

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86
Q

What are the non-specific tests used for diagnosing tuberculosis in cats?

A

Evaluation of serum biochemistry and haematology, and radiography to appraise lung involvement.

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87
Q

What correlation has been observed between hypercalcaemia and tuberculosis in cats?

A

Hypercalcaemia appears to correlate with a poorer prognosis.

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88
Q

How long has poxvirus been documented to infect cats?

A

For over 30 years.

89
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission of poxvirus infection in cats?

A

Transmission from voles.

90
Q

When do the majority of poxvirus infections occur in cats?

A

In the autumn months.

91
Q

Which body parts are typically affected by cutaneous poxvirus infections in cats?

A

The head and neck.

92
Q

What are the common symptoms of poxvirus infection in cats?

A

Crusting and scaling lesions.

93
Q

What is a potential complication of poxvirus infection in cats?

A

Necrotising pneumonia.

94
Q

How have some cases of poxvirus pneumonia in cats been successfully treated?

A

With symptomatic treatment and antibiosis.

95
Q

Are co-existing infections common in cats with poxvirus pneumonia?

A

Yes, they often have co-existing infections with other respiratory viruses (herpes or calicivirus) or bacterial infection (Bordetella).

96
Q

Is there good evidence regarding the treatment of viral pneumonias in cats?

A

No, there is no good evidence.

97
Q

What has feline interferon been administered to in cats?

A

Several cases of feline viral pneumonia.

98
Q

Is there controlled clinical trial data suggesting the usefulness of interferon for cats with acute respiratory herpesvirus infection?

A

No, there is no data from controlled clinical trials.

99
Q

What is the abbreviation for feline interferon?

A

IFN

100
Q

What is the main vector for transmission of Bartonella organisms in cats?

A

The main vector for Bartonella organisms in cats is the cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis).

101
Q

What are the potential clinical signs of Bartonella infection in cats?

A

Potential clinical signs of Bartonella infection in cats include fever, lymphadenopathy, endocarditis, myocarditis, hyperglobulinaemia, osteomyelitis, and uveitis.

102
Q

How is Bartonella associated disease in cats diagnosed?

A

Bartonella associated disease in cats is diagnosed using a combination of blood culture or PCR, along with serology.

103
Q

What is the recommended initial treatment for Bartonellosis in cats?

A

The recommended initial treatment for Bartonellosis in cats is Doxycycline, administered at 10mg/kg/day for 7 days.

104
Q

What is the recommended duration of Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis in cats?

A

Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis in cats should be continued until 2 weeks past resolution of clinical signs, or for a minimum of 28 days.

105
Q

If a cat does not respond to Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis, what is the recommended alternative?

A

If a cat does not respond to Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis, a fluoroquinolone such as Pradofloxacin is advised as an appropriate second choice for treatment.

106
Q

How can Bartonella spread be controlled in cats?

A

Good flea control is imperative in controlling Bartonella spread, and products containing imidacloprid have been advised to block transmission.

107
Q

What zoonotic disease can result from Bartonella henselae infection in cats?

A

Bartonella henselae infection in cats can result in Cat scratch disease (CSD) in humans.

108
Q

What does Coxiella burnetii cause in people?

A

Coxiella burnetii causes Q Fever in people.

109
Q

How can Coxiella burnetii be spread between animals?

A

Coxiella burnetii can be spread between animals via blood, milk, or contact with placental/aborted foetal membranes, and the sporulated form can survive in the environment for prolonged periods.

110
Q

Which organisms have been identified in fleas as potential causes of pyrexia?

A

Rickettsia felis and Rickettsia typhi have been identified in fleas as potential causes of pyrexia.

111
Q

What is the significance of Rickettsial infection in cats?

A

The significance of Rickettsial infection in cats is currently unknown, as experimental infection has failed to produce clinical disease in a small number of cats.

112
Q

What can help narrow down the differentials for cats with ocular or upper respiratory tract disease?

A

The history of ocular or upper respiratory tract disease

113
Q

What is the typical systemic lesion or condition in cats with FIP?

A

Systemic lesions or pleural effusion with an elevated albumin: globulin ratio

114
Q

What additional signs can cats with pox virus have?

A

Cutaneous lesions in addition to lower respiratory tract signs

115
Q

Are cases of fungal pneumonia common in cats in the UK?

A

No, cases of fungal pneumonia are rare in cats in the UK

116
Q

What are the common fungal pneumonia infections in cats?

A

Candidiasis, systemic cryptococcosis, and aspergillosis

117
Q

What is the most common lungworm in cats?

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

118
Q

How is A. abstrusus infection transmitted to cats?

A

From infected slugs or snails (the intermediate host), or infected rodents, lizards, or birds (the transport hosts)

119
Q

What signs may be present in cats with A. abstrusus infection?

A

Chronic cough with associated crackles and wheezes

120
Q

What signs may cats infected with heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis) show?

A

Clinical signs typical of chronic bronchial disease or acute dyspnea associated with pulmonary thromboembolism

121
Q

What makes diagnosing heartworm in cats challenging?

A

Cats typically have a very low worm burden, making both antigen and antibody testing problematic

122
Q

What can improve clinical signs in cats with Dirofilaria and Wolbachia infections?

A

Doxycycline treatment

123
Q

Can reactive pneumonia be secondary to systemic diseases?

A

Yes, reactive pneumonia can be secondary to systemic diseases such as pancreatitis

124
Q

What should be obtained for investigation of dyspnea in cats?

A

Thoracic radiographs

125
Q

What can thoracic radiographs help determine in cats with dyspnea?

A

The cause of dyspnea, size and shape of the cardiac silhouette, pulmonary vasculature, lymph nodes, and lung pattern

126
Q

What is a safer alternative to radiography for diagnostic imaging in cats?

A

CT (computed tomography)

127
Q

What are the potential differentials for radiographic evidence of alveolar infiltration in cats?

A

Pulmonary edema, thromboembolic disease, pulmonary hemorrhage, neoplasia, and atelectasis

128
Q

What types of infections may demonstrate a circulating neutrophilia in cats?

A

Bacterial pneumonia

129
Q

What types of infections may demonstrate an eosinophilia in cats?

A

Parasitic infections

130
Q

What samples should be collected to detect lungworm in cats?

A

Faecal samples for Baermann floatation (3 samples optimize the test sensitivity)

131
Q

When may clinical treatment trial be performed instead of collecting faecal samples for lungworm testing?

A

When it is more convenient in practice

132
Q

What can bronchoscopy be useful for in cats with lower respiratory tract disease?

A

Assessing the trachea and main stem bronchi, which are typically inflamed with excessive mucus/mucopurulent secretions

133
Q

What is the recommended interval for turning recumbent patients to prevent exacerbation of respiratory insufficiency?

A

Every 1-2 hours

134
Q

What is the controversial aspect of coupage in patients with respiratory issues?

A

Coughing may exacerbate dyspnoea and distress the animal, and coupage can increase pulmonary haemorrhage.

135
Q

What is the first choice analgesic for alleviating the pain associated with pneumonia?

A

Buprenorphine

136
Q

What are some of the additional treatments attempted in refractory cases of pneumonia?

A

Bronchodilators, mucolytics, and corticosteroids

137
Q

What is the first-choice antibiotic treatment for severe bacterial pneumonia in cats at the referenced institution?

A

Fluoroquinolone and clindamycin

138
Q

Which type of medication should be administered for the treatment of viral pneumonia?

A

Anti-viral medication such as Feline Interferon or Famciclovir

139
Q

What is the recommended treatment for fungal pneumonia in cats?

A

Fluconazole, itraconazole, or Amphotericin B

140
Q

What is the most common mycotic infection seen in cats with fungal pneumonia?

A

Cryptococcus infection

141
Q

What are some treatment options for Cryptococcus infection in cats?

A

Fluconazole, itraconazole, Amphotericin B, or Flucytosine

142
Q

What is the least toxic compound for treating fungal pneumonia?

A

Fluconazole

143
Q

How should parasites be treated in cases of parasitic pneumonia?

A

They should be treated accordingly

144
Q

What treatment is recommended by some authors for severe Aelurostrongylus infestation?

A

Treating with fenbendazole prior to more efficient treatments

145
Q

What are the 3 species of haemoplasma known to infect cats?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis, Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum, and Candidatus Mycoplasma turicensis

146
Q

Which species of haemoplasma is the most pathogenic and responsible for haemolytic anemia in cats?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

147
Q

What is the prevalence of Mycoplasma haemofelis in sick cats?

A

0.5-5%

148
Q

Which haemoplasma organism is common within the feline population but not consistently associated with anemia?

A

Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum

149
Q

What is the gram stain result of Yersinia pestis?

A

Gram-negative

150
Q

How is Yersinia pestis transmitted?

A

By fleas

151
Q

What are the three main forms of the disease caused by Yersinia pestis?

A

Pneumonic, septicaemic, and bubonic

152
Q

What are the clinical signs of Yersinia pestis infection in cats?

A

Fever, lymphadenitis, pneumonia, and septicaemia

153
Q

How is diagnosis of Yersinia pestis infection confirmed?

A

Culture, fluorescent antibody staining or PCR

154
Q

What is the first line treatment for Yersinia pestis infection?

A

Aminoglycosides and doxycycline

155
Q

Which tick species can transmit Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Ixodes

156
Q

What are the clinical signs of Anaplasma infection in cats?

A

Fever, anorexia, lethargy, thrombocytopenia, and occasionally lameness

157
Q

How is diagnosis of Anaplasma infection made?

A

Identification of morula within the neutrophils, PCR, or serology

158
Q

What is the first line treatment for Anaplasma infection?

A

Doxycycline

159
Q

What clinical signs have been reported in cats with Ehrlichia infection?

A

Fever, lethargy, inappetence, thrombocytopenia, anaemia, monocytosis, and monoclonal gammopathy

160
Q

How is diagnosis of Ehrlichia infection in cats made?

A

PCR

161
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Ehrlichia infection in cats?

A

Doxycycline (10mg/kg/day for 28 days)

162
Q

What are the clinical signs of Borrelia infection in cats?

A

Fever and bradydysrhythmia

163
Q

How is diagnosis of Borrelia infection confirmed?

A

PCR

164
Q

What is the first line treatment for Borrelia infection?

A

Doxycycline (10mg/kg/day for 28 days)

165
Q

What is the current method of diagnosing babesia in cats?

A

Presence of piroplasms in erythrocytes or PCR

166
Q

Which protozoal disease currently lacks wide availability of diagnostic testing?

A

Babesia

167
Q

Which continent is known to have Cytauxzoon species?

A

North America

168
Q

What factors increase the risk of transmission in cats with tuberculosis?

A

Generalized disease, respiratory tract involvement, or extensive draining cutaneous lesions.

169
Q

Why is treatment for feline tuberculosis difficult to maintain?

A

Patient non-compliance, inherent toxicity of some drugs, and the financial costs involved.

170
Q

What is the prognosis for uncomplicated cutaneous disease in cats with tuberculosis?

A

It carries the most favorable prognosis.

171
Q

Why is tailoring treatment for feline tuberculosis difficult?

A

Sensitivity testing does not always correlate with in vivo results.

172
Q

What are the potential risks of surgical excision of small cutaneous lesions in cats with tuberculosis?

A

Wound dehiscence and local recurrence of infection.

173
Q

What is the recommended therapy for cats with localised cutaneous infection before a definitive diagnosis is made?

A

Interim therapy with a fluoroquinolone.

174
Q

What is the treatment of choice for feline tuberculosis?

A

Initial and continuation phases of anti-tuberculosis treatment for a total of 6 months.

175
Q

What drugs are typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment for cats?

A

Fluoroquinolone, Rifampicin, and either Clarithromycin or Azithromycin.

176
Q

What newer fluoroquinolone may be useful in the treatment of feline tuberculosis?

A

Pradofloxacin.

177
Q

What is the potential side effect of clarithromycin treatment in cats with mycobacterial infection?

A

Pinnal or more generalized erythema, which resolves on discontinuation of the drug.

178
Q

What is the recommended treatment consisting of in cats with mycobacterial infection?

A

Initial phase of rifampicin-fluoroquinolone-clarithromycin/azithromycin, followed by a continuation phase of rifampicin and either fluoroquinolone or clarithromycin/azithromycin.

179
Q

What can be done if hepatotoxicity is encountered during treatment of feline tuberculosis?

A

Lower the Rifampicin dose or discontinue Rifampicin if the cat is in remission.

180
Q

What is the prognosis for cats with mycobacterial infection?

A

It depends on the type of mycobacteria involved and the extent and severity of the infection.

181
Q

Have many cases of feline tuberculosis responded favorably to treatment?

A

Yes, especially those caused by M. microti infection.

182
Q

What is the recommendation for the treatment duration in cats with feline tuberculosis?

A

A minimum of six to nine months.

183
Q

What are the typical clinical signs of lower respiratory tract infections in cats?

A

Coughing, dyspnoea, and occasionally central cyanosis.

184
Q

Which disease rarely causes coughing in cats with lower respiratory tract disease?

A

Cardiac or pleural space disease.

185
Q

What respiratory pattern is typically seen in cats with pulmonary parenchymal disease?

A

Expiratory pattern, which is typically restrictive (increased rate).

186
Q

What respiratory pattern is typically seen in cats with pleural space disease?

A

Restrictive inspiratory dyspnoea.

187
Q

What are some causes of lower respiratory tract disease in cats?

A

Chronic bronchopulmonary disease, pneumonia (bacterial/viral/fungal), parasitic infections, neoplasia, foreign bodies, etc.

188
Q

Why are bacterial pneumonias in cats difficult to recognize and treat?

A

Diagnostic imaging modalities have improved, revealing underlying pulmonary disease in cats presenting with pyothorax.

189
Q

Which bacterial pathogens have been isolated in cats with pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma sp., Mycobacterial sp., Pasteurella sp., Streptococcus sp., Bordetella, E. Coli, Pseudomonas, EF-4a bacteria.

190
Q

What radiographic patterns can be seen in cats with pneumonia?

A

Diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern, alveolar consolidation, patchy alveolar infiltrate, pleural effusions.

191
Q

What viruses can cause viral pneumonias in cats?

A

Upper respiratory tract viruses like Calicivirus and Herpes.

192
Q

What are some potential feline zoonotic diseases?

A

Rabies, Coxiellosis, Pasteurellosis, Bartonellosis, Helicobacteriosis, Cryptosporidiosis, Mycoplasmal infections, Giardiasis, Bordetellosis, Pox, Sporotrichosis, Tritrichomonas foetus, Malassezia pachydermatis infection, Campylobacteriosis, Chlamydophila felis, Salmonellosis, Mycobacteriosis, E. Coli species, Dermatophytosis, Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcal Infections, Toxocarosis, Group A Streptococcal Species, Toxoplasmosis, Vector Borne Zoonoses, Ehrlichiosis, Rickettsial Diseases, Yersinia Pestis, Borreliosis, Anaplasmosis.

193
Q

Which mycobacterial species can cause disease in veterinary species?

A

M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. microti, M. avium, M. lepraemurium, M. chelonae-abscessus, M. fortuitum / peregrinum group, M. smegmatis, M. phlei, M. genavense, M. simiae, M. thermoresistible, M, flavescens, M. xenopi, M. alvei, and M. terrae complex.

194
Q

What are the mycobacterial syndromes seen in cats?

A

Tuberculosis, feline leprosy, and NTM mycobacteriosis.

195
Q

What are the symptoms of feline mycobacteriosis?

A

Nodules, draining tracts, ulceration.

196
Q

How are feline mycobacterial infections transmitted?

A

Percutaneous injury, contamination via soil, presence of devitalized tissue.

197
Q

What can be used to control the clinical signs of T. foetus infection in cats?

A

A highly digestible diet or a high fiber diet.

198
Q

What is the topic of Lesson 3 in the course?

A

Upper Respiratory Tract Infections.

199
Q

What has been widely used in the prevention of Upper Respiratory Tract Infections?

A

Vaccines.

200
Q

What is the common name for infectious upper respiratory tract disease in cats?

A

Cat flu

201
Q

What is the cause of over 80% of cat flu cases?

A

Infection with feline calicivirus (FCV) or feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)

202
Q

Which organism may play an important role in cat flu?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

203
Q

Which organism is typically a conjunctival pathogen but may be involved in respiratory disease in cats?

A

Chlamydophila felis

204
Q

Which environmental factors may exacerbate the problem of cat flu?

A

Poor ventilation, high humidity, and over-crowding

205
Q

What is the structure and characteristics of feline calicivirus (FCV)?

A

Small, un-enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus with a large number of strains

206
Q

How long do most cats shed FCV following infection?

A

At least a month, with about 50% still shedding by 75 days

207
Q

What is the structure and characteristics of feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)?

A

Double stranded DNA virus with a glycoprotein-lipid envelope and little strain variation

208
Q

How long can FHV-1 survive in a damp environment?

A

18 hours

209
Q

Which organism can act as a respiratory pathogen in cats and has potential zoonotic risk?

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

210
Q

What is the prevalence of Chlamydophila felis infection in the UK?

A

Up to 30% of cats with conjunctivitis

211
Q

How are the infectious agents associated with cat flu typically transmitted?

A

By aerosolisation and/or direct contact with conjunctiva or oral/nasal membranes

212
Q

What is one of the symptoms of T. foetus infection in cats?

A

Prolonged and intractable diarrhea

213
Q

What is the most common age group affected by T. foetus infection in cats?

A

Young cats and kittens under 12 months

214
Q

What is the most commonly affected type of cats with T. foetus infection?

A

Young pedigree cats, particularly Siamese and Bengal

215
Q

What percentage of faecal samples from cats with diarrhea in the UK are infected with T. foetus?

A

Up to 30%

216
Q

How can the presence of T. foetus in cats’ faeces be detected?

A

By using different methods such as fresh faecal smears, specific culture system, or PCR

217
Q

Which method is the most sensitive test for detecting T. foetus in cats’ faeces?

A

PCR

218
Q

What are the characteristics of T. foetus trophozoites under the microscope?

A

Small, motile organisms with an undulating membrane and described as having a ‘jerky, forward motion’

219
Q

What action should be taken with potential suspects?

A

X