Feline 2 AI Flashcards
1
Q
What is the significance of anaemia in cats infected with FeLV and Candidatus M. Haemominutum?
A
Significant anaemia has been seen in cats infected with FeLV and Candidatus M. Haemominutum.
2
Q
What is myloproliferative disease and how does it relate to co-infected cats?
A
Myloproliferative disease occurs more frequently in co-infected cats than in cats with FeLV alone.
3
Q
What is known about Candidatus M. turicensis in relation to anaemia and blood smear assessment?
A
Candidatus M. turicensis has never been visualized on blood smear assessment but has been associated with severe intravascular haemolysis.
4
Q
What is the prevalence range of Candidatus M. turicensis in sick cats?
A
The prevalence of Candidatus M. turicensis in sick cats varies from 0.5-10%.
5
Q
Is there any association between retrovirus status and Mycoplasma haemofelis infection?
A
Some studies report an association between retrovirus status and Mycoplasma haemofelis infection, with haemoplasma positive cats being up to six times more likely to be FIV positive.
6
Q
What are the different phases of haemoplasma infection?
A
The different phases of haemoplasma infection include pre-bacteraemic, acute infection, recovery, and carrier phases.
7
Q
What is the duration of the pre-bacteraemic phase after inoculation with M. haemofelis?
A
The pre-bacteraemic phase after inoculation with M. haemofelis can last from 2 to 34 days.
8
Q
What are the clinical signs commonly observed in cats with haemoplasma infection?
A
Common clinical signs include depression, inappetence, dehydration, weight loss, pale mucous membranes, tachypnoea, tachycardia, heart murmurs, splenomegaly, icterus, pica, and licking at concrete.
9
Q
What are the typical findings on blood smear in cats with haemoplasma infection?
A
Typical findings on blood smear include autoagglutination, regenerative anaemia with anisocytosis, reticulocytosis, polychromasia, and Howell-Jolly bodies. Non-regenerative anaemia may also be seen in some cases.
10
Q
What is the preferred treatment for haemoplasma infection?
A
Doxycycline 10mg/kg q24 PO for a minimum of 2 weeks is the treatment of choice.
11
Q
What is the role of Marbofloxacin in the treatment of haemoplasma infection?
A
Marbofloxacin has been demonstrated to be effective at decreasing DNA copy numbers, but these levels may return to pre-treatment levels on cessation of therapy.
12
Q
When is blood transfusion warranted in cats with haemoplasma infection?
A
Blood transfusion may be warranted in cats with haemoplasma infection.
13
Q
What factors may contribute to the formation of a carrier state in cats with haemoplasma infection?
A
Stress, pregnancy, corticosteroid administration, concurrent illness, or neoplasia may contribute to the formation of a carrier state in cats with haemoplasma infection.
14
Q
How accurate is cytological diagnosis in detecting haemoplasma infections?
A
Cytological diagnosis detects less than 50% of M. haemofelis infections and substantially less Candidatus M. Haemominutum infections.
15
Q
What is the gold standard for detecting haemoplasma infection?
A
PCR detection is the gold standard for detecting haemoplasma infection.
16
Q
What should be considered before undertaking bronchoscopy and BAL in cats?
A
The risk/benefit ratio
17
Q
What pre-medication can be useful before bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) in cats?
A
Terbutaline, if there are no contra-indications
18
Q
What technique can be used for performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) in cats?
A
Either with bronchoscopic guidance or by a blind technique
19
Q
How should the cat be positioned during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) if the disease is unilateral?
A
In lateral recumbency with the affected side placed down
20
Q
What type of catheter is typically used for performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) in cats without endoscopic guidance?
A
A sterile dog urinary catheter
21
Q
What should the sterile catheter be measured against when performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) without endoscopic guidance?
A
Against the cat’s chest
22
Q
How much pre-warmed sterile saline is typically flushed down the catheter during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?
A
Approximately 3ml aliquots are used
23
Q
What should be done between flushing and aspirating during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?
A
Coupàge the chest to release cells into the saline
24
Q
How many flushes are typically performed during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?
A
Three flushes
25
What is the ideal flush for cytological examination during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?
The third flush
26
What should be done after collection of the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF)?
Allow the cat a few minutes of increased oxygenation prior to recovery from anesthesia
27
What emergency bronchodilator can be administered if bronchoconstriction is stimulated during bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)?
IV terbutaline
28
What should be assessed in the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) collected?
Cytology and culture
29
What should be done if anaerobic culture is required for the bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) sample?
All air should be removed from the container
30
Which species should be specifically requested to be looked for during culture, as they are not routinely cultured for?
Bordetella bronchiseptica and Mycoplasma species
31
What is the normal range of nucleated cells in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) in healthy cats?
150-450 cells/µl
32
What is the normal range of macrophages in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) in healthy cats?
60-90%
33
What is the normal range of eosinophils in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid (BALF) in healthy cats?
2-30%
34
What do leukocytes with intracellular bacteria in tracheal/bronchial fluid indicate?
Active infection
35
What do large numbers of neutrophils, especially those with degenerative changes, in tracheal/bronchial fluid suggest?
Infection
36
What should be performed before antibiotic administration for tracheal/bronchial fluid culture?
Culture and sensitivity including anaerobic culture
37
What should be provided if the SPO2 is less than 94% or PaO2 is less than 80mmHg in cats with pneumonia?
Oxygen supplementation
38
Why is humidification of oxygen essential for cats with pneumonia?
To maintain the mucociliary escalator and facilitate coughing of secretions
39
Why are intravenous fluids often indicated for cats with pneumonia?
To compensate for fluid loss and prevent dehydration
40
How can inappetant cats with pneumonia benefit in terms of nutrition?
Supplemental feeding through parenteral nutrition or nasooesophageal/oesophagostomy tube placement
41
What is the VLA culture system optimized for?
The growth of M. bovis and other members of the tuberculosis complex group.
42
Why are NTM difficult to grow?
Even with optimized systems, NTM are exceedingly difficult to grow.
43
What has PCR demonstrated in samples with pyogranulomatous inflammation?
PCR has demonstrated mycobacterial infection in ZN negative samples.
44
What does relying on special stains alone potentially lead to?
Gross underestimation of tuberculosis prevalence.
45
What has historically caused tuberculosis in cats?
Ingestion of milk from tuberculous infected cattle.
46
What has led to a decline in tuberculosis prevalence in cats?
Reduction of tuberculosis in the national herd and pasteurization of milk.
47
What are the two main forms of tuberculosis seen in cats?
Infection with M. bovis or M. microti.
48
How rare is M. tuberculosis infection in cats?
Incredibly rare, as cats are naturally very resistant to it.
49
What is the current epidemiology of tuberculosis in cats?
Unclear, but few cases are believed to relate to direct infection from cattle.
50
What are the common clinical manifestations of tuberculosis in cats?
Skin ulcers, masses that fail to heal, and lymphadenopathy.
51
What possible risk factor is associated with cats infected with tuberculosis?
Cats that are keen hunters and regularly catch small rodents.
52
Which wild animals in the UK can carry M. bovis and M. microti?
Wild mice, voles, foxes, stoats, moles, rats, and deer.
53
How do cats most likely become infected with tuberculosis?
By hunting small wild rodents and being bitten during play.
54
Where is M. bovis often endemic in Britain?
In badgers, with a potential risk for cats to become infected through environmental contamination.
55
Are all members of the tuberculosis complex a potential zoonotic risk?
Yes, all members pose potential zoonotic risks.
56
Have there been any reported cases of cats passing tuberculosis to humans?
To date, there have been no reported cases of cats transmitting tuberculosis to humans.
57
What are the variable changes that can occur in feline tuberculosis?
The variable changes in feline tuberculosis include tracheo-bronchial lymphadenopathy, interstitial or miliary lung infiltration, localised lung consolidation, or pleural effusion.
58
What may be revealed through abdominal radiography in feline tuberculosis?
Abdominal radiography may reveal hepato- or splenomegaly, abdominal masses, mineralised mesenteric lymph nodes or ascites.
59
What do bone lesions tend to consist of in feline tuberculosis?
Bone lesions tend to consist of areas of bony lysis and sclerosis, osteoarthritis, discospondylitis or periostitis.
60
What is the recently developed test for detecting members of the tuberculosis complex in cats?
The recently developed test is the interferon-gamma test.
61
Are specific tests for the diagnosis of tuberculosis helpful in cats?
Specific tests for the diagnosis of tuberculosis have generally proved less helpful in cats.
62
What type of test is unreliable in cats for detecting tuberculosis?
Intra-dermal skin testing using tuberculin is unreliable in cats.
63
How can mycobacterial involvement be confirmed in cats?
Mycobacterial involvement can be confirmed by staining aspirates and/or biopsy samples of affected tissue with ZN stain or other specific special stains.
64
Why is it important to identify the exact species of mycobacteria involved in feline tuberculosis?
Identifying the exact species helps evaluate zoonotic risk, potential sources of infection, and feasible treatment options.
65
What is the recommended handling procedure for biopsy material in suspected mycobacterial cases?
Collect the biopsy, fix one piece in formalin for histopathological examination and ZN staining, freeze two pieces, and send the fourth sample unfixed for bacterial culture and ZN staining.
66
What does histopathology of affected tissue in feline tuberculosis generally reveal?
Histopathology of affected tissue generally reveals granulomatous inflammation with foamy macrophages containing acid-fast bacilli.
67
What should be considered before deciding to treat a case of suspected feline tuberculosis?
Potential zoonotic risk and involvement of all members of the affected cat's household should be considered.
68
When is treatment of suspected feline tuberculosis strongly advised against?
Treatment is strongly advised against if immune-suppressed individuals may be exposed to an infected cat.
69
Who should receive particular consideration regarding zoonotic risk in feline tuberculosis cases?
Household members with HIV infection, or those undergoing chemotherapy or organ transplantation, should receive particular consideration.
70
What is the alternative option for culture when tissue is not available for feline tuberculosis diagnosis?
Molecular PCR techniques can be considered as an alternative to culture when tissue is not available.
71
What can be sent for specialist culture if ZN positive organisms are found in feline tuberculosis samples?
One of the frozen pieces can be sent for specialist culture to identify the mycobacteria species.
72
When is PCR recommended for feline tuberculosis diagnosis?
PCR is recommended in cases where treatment is being considered, as culture can take up to 6 months.
73
What are the greatest tuberculosis risks to humans?
Spending time with infected humans or handling infected cattle.
74
What is a reverse zoonosis?
When humans infect animals with tuberculosis.
75
What are the geographical distributions of M. bovis and M. microti in cats in Great Britain?
M. bovis is found in the South West of England, while M. microti is found in the South East of England, the North of England, and the South of Scotland.
76
Which cats are mainly affected by tuberculosis?
Adult cats, with the median age being 3 years for M. bovis and 8 years for M. microti.
77
Are FIV and FeLV infections common in cats with tuberculosis?
No, as those cats tested for FIV and FeLV have usually been negative.
78
What role does low serum vitamin D concentrations play in fighting tuberculosis in cats?
Low serum vitamin D concentrations may affect the effectiveness of their macrophages in fighting these infections.
79
What are the clinical signs of tuberculosis in cats?
Systemic signs related to the alimentary and/or respiratory tracts, or localised disease affecting the skin.
80
What is the most common presentation for tuberculosis in cats?
The cutaneous form, with respiratory and alimentary forms being less frequent.
81
Where do cutaneous lesions of tuberculosis in cats commonly occur?
On the face, extremities, tail base, perineum, or ventral thorax.
82
What are the manifestations of tuberculosis in cats with pulmonary infection?
Weight loss, anorexia, dyspnoea, and coughing.
83
What are the manifestations of tuberculosis in cats with alimentary infection?
Weight loss, anaemia, vomiting, and diarrhoea due to intestinal malabsorption.
84
What clinical signs may be seen with disseminated tuberculosis in cats?
Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, pleural or pericardial effusions, generalised lymphadenopathy, weight loss, and fever.
85
What complications can arise in cats with tuberculosis?
Lameness from bone involvement, granulomatous uveitis, and central nervous system involvement.
86
What are the non-specific tests used for diagnosing tuberculosis in cats?
Evaluation of serum biochemistry and haematology, and radiography to appraise lung involvement.
87
What correlation has been observed between hypercalcaemia and tuberculosis in cats?
Hypercalcaemia appears to correlate with a poorer prognosis.
88
How long has poxvirus been documented to infect cats?
For over 30 years.
89
What is the primary mode of transmission of poxvirus infection in cats?
Transmission from voles.
90
When do the majority of poxvirus infections occur in cats?
In the autumn months.
91
Which body parts are typically affected by cutaneous poxvirus infections in cats?
The head and neck.
92
What are the common symptoms of poxvirus infection in cats?
Crusting and scaling lesions.
93
What is a potential complication of poxvirus infection in cats?
Necrotising pneumonia.
94
How have some cases of poxvirus pneumonia in cats been successfully treated?
With symptomatic treatment and antibiosis.
95
Are co-existing infections common in cats with poxvirus pneumonia?
Yes, they often have co-existing infections with other respiratory viruses (herpes or calicivirus) or bacterial infection (Bordetella).
96
Is there good evidence regarding the treatment of viral pneumonias in cats?
No, there is no good evidence.
97
What has feline interferon been administered to in cats?
Several cases of feline viral pneumonia.
98
Is there controlled clinical trial data suggesting the usefulness of interferon for cats with acute respiratory herpesvirus infection?
No, there is no data from controlled clinical trials.
99
What is the abbreviation for feline interferon?
IFN
100
What is the main vector for transmission of Bartonella organisms in cats?
The main vector for Bartonella organisms in cats is the cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis).
101
What are the potential clinical signs of Bartonella infection in cats?
Potential clinical signs of Bartonella infection in cats include fever, lymphadenopathy, endocarditis, myocarditis, hyperglobulinaemia, osteomyelitis, and uveitis.
102
How is Bartonella associated disease in cats diagnosed?
Bartonella associated disease in cats is diagnosed using a combination of blood culture or PCR, along with serology.
103
What is the recommended initial treatment for Bartonellosis in cats?
The recommended initial treatment for Bartonellosis in cats is Doxycycline, administered at 10mg/kg/day for 7 days.
104
What is the recommended duration of Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis in cats?
Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis in cats should be continued until 2 weeks past resolution of clinical signs, or for a minimum of 28 days.
105
If a cat does not respond to Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis, what is the recommended alternative?
If a cat does not respond to Doxycycline treatment for Bartonellosis, a fluoroquinolone such as Pradofloxacin is advised as an appropriate second choice for treatment.
106
How can Bartonella spread be controlled in cats?
Good flea control is imperative in controlling Bartonella spread, and products containing imidacloprid have been advised to block transmission.
107
What zoonotic disease can result from Bartonella henselae infection in cats?
Bartonella henselae infection in cats can result in Cat scratch disease (CSD) in humans.
108
What does Coxiella burnetii cause in people?
Coxiella burnetii causes Q Fever in people.
109
How can Coxiella burnetii be spread between animals?
Coxiella burnetii can be spread between animals via blood, milk, or contact with placental/aborted foetal membranes, and the sporulated form can survive in the environment for prolonged periods.
110
Which organisms have been identified in fleas as potential causes of pyrexia?
Rickettsia felis and Rickettsia typhi have been identified in fleas as potential causes of pyrexia.
111
What is the significance of Rickettsial infection in cats?
The significance of Rickettsial infection in cats is currently unknown, as experimental infection has failed to produce clinical disease in a small number of cats.
112
What can help narrow down the differentials for cats with ocular or upper respiratory tract disease?
The history of ocular or upper respiratory tract disease
113
What is the typical systemic lesion or condition in cats with FIP?
Systemic lesions or pleural effusion with an elevated albumin: globulin ratio
114
What additional signs can cats with pox virus have?
Cutaneous lesions in addition to lower respiratory tract signs
115
Are cases of fungal pneumonia common in cats in the UK?
No, cases of fungal pneumonia are rare in cats in the UK
116
What are the common fungal pneumonia infections in cats?
Candidiasis, systemic cryptococcosis, and aspergillosis
117
What is the most common lungworm in cats?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
118
How is A. abstrusus infection transmitted to cats?
From infected slugs or snails (the intermediate host), or infected rodents, lizards, or birds (the transport hosts)
119
What signs may be present in cats with A. abstrusus infection?
Chronic cough with associated crackles and wheezes
120
What signs may cats infected with heartworm (Dirofilaria immitis) show?
Clinical signs typical of chronic bronchial disease or acute dyspnea associated with pulmonary thromboembolism
121
What makes diagnosing heartworm in cats challenging?
Cats typically have a very low worm burden, making both antigen and antibody testing problematic
122
What can improve clinical signs in cats with Dirofilaria and Wolbachia infections?
Doxycycline treatment
123
Can reactive pneumonia be secondary to systemic diseases?
Yes, reactive pneumonia can be secondary to systemic diseases such as pancreatitis
124
What should be obtained for investigation of dyspnea in cats?
Thoracic radiographs
125
What can thoracic radiographs help determine in cats with dyspnea?
The cause of dyspnea, size and shape of the cardiac silhouette, pulmonary vasculature, lymph nodes, and lung pattern
126
What is a safer alternative to radiography for diagnostic imaging in cats?
CT (computed tomography)
127
What are the potential differentials for radiographic evidence of alveolar infiltration in cats?
Pulmonary edema, thromboembolic disease, pulmonary hemorrhage, neoplasia, and atelectasis
128
What types of infections may demonstrate a circulating neutrophilia in cats?
Bacterial pneumonia
129
What types of infections may demonstrate an eosinophilia in cats?
Parasitic infections
130
What samples should be collected to detect lungworm in cats?
Faecal samples for Baermann floatation (3 samples optimize the test sensitivity)
131
When may clinical treatment trial be performed instead of collecting faecal samples for lungworm testing?
When it is more convenient in practice
132
What can bronchoscopy be useful for in cats with lower respiratory tract disease?
Assessing the trachea and main stem bronchi, which are typically inflamed with excessive mucus/mucopurulent secretions
133
What is the recommended interval for turning recumbent patients to prevent exacerbation of respiratory insufficiency?
Every 1-2 hours
134
What is the controversial aspect of coupage in patients with respiratory issues?
Coughing may exacerbate dyspnoea and distress the animal, and coupage can increase pulmonary haemorrhage.
135
What is the first choice analgesic for alleviating the pain associated with pneumonia?
Buprenorphine
136
What are some of the additional treatments attempted in refractory cases of pneumonia?
Bronchodilators, mucolytics, and corticosteroids
137
What is the first-choice antibiotic treatment for severe bacterial pneumonia in cats at the referenced institution?
Fluoroquinolone and clindamycin
138
Which type of medication should be administered for the treatment of viral pneumonia?
Anti-viral medication such as Feline Interferon or Famciclovir
139
What is the recommended treatment for fungal pneumonia in cats?
Fluconazole, itraconazole, or Amphotericin B
140
What is the most common mycotic infection seen in cats with fungal pneumonia?
Cryptococcus infection
141
What are some treatment options for Cryptococcus infection in cats?
Fluconazole, itraconazole, Amphotericin B, or Flucytosine
142
What is the least toxic compound for treating fungal pneumonia?
Fluconazole
143
How should parasites be treated in cases of parasitic pneumonia?
They should be treated accordingly
144
What treatment is recommended by some authors for severe Aelurostrongylus infestation?
Treating with fenbendazole prior to more efficient treatments
145
What are the 3 species of haemoplasma known to infect cats?
Mycoplasma haemofelis, Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum, and Candidatus Mycoplasma turicensis
146
Which species of haemoplasma is the most pathogenic and responsible for haemolytic anemia in cats?
Mycoplasma haemofelis
147
What is the prevalence of Mycoplasma haemofelis in sick cats?
0.5-5%
148
Which haemoplasma organism is common within the feline population but not consistently associated with anemia?
Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum
149
What is the gram stain result of Yersinia pestis?
Gram-negative
150
How is Yersinia pestis transmitted?
By fleas
151
What are the three main forms of the disease caused by Yersinia pestis?
Pneumonic, septicaemic, and bubonic
152
What are the clinical signs of Yersinia pestis infection in cats?
Fever, lymphadenitis, pneumonia, and septicaemia
153
How is diagnosis of Yersinia pestis infection confirmed?
Culture, fluorescent antibody staining or PCR
154
What is the first line treatment for Yersinia pestis infection?
Aminoglycosides and doxycycline
155
Which tick species can transmit Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
Ixodes
156
What are the clinical signs of Anaplasma infection in cats?
Fever, anorexia, lethargy, thrombocytopenia, and occasionally lameness
157
How is diagnosis of Anaplasma infection made?
Identification of morula within the neutrophils, PCR, or serology
158
What is the first line treatment for Anaplasma infection?
Doxycycline
159
What clinical signs have been reported in cats with Ehrlichia infection?
Fever, lethargy, inappetence, thrombocytopenia, anaemia, monocytosis, and monoclonal gammopathy
160
How is diagnosis of Ehrlichia infection in cats made?
PCR
161
What is the recommended treatment for Ehrlichia infection in cats?
Doxycycline (10mg/kg/day for 28 days)
162
What are the clinical signs of Borrelia infection in cats?
Fever and bradydysrhythmia
163
How is diagnosis of Borrelia infection confirmed?
PCR
164
What is the first line treatment for Borrelia infection?
Doxycycline (10mg/kg/day for 28 days)
165
What is the current method of diagnosing babesia in cats?
Presence of piroplasms in erythrocytes or PCR
166
Which protozoal disease currently lacks wide availability of diagnostic testing?
Babesia
167
Which continent is known to have Cytauxzoon species?
North America
168
What factors increase the risk of transmission in cats with tuberculosis?
Generalized disease, respiratory tract involvement, or extensive draining cutaneous lesions.
169
Why is treatment for feline tuberculosis difficult to maintain?
Patient non-compliance, inherent toxicity of some drugs, and the financial costs involved.
170
What is the prognosis for uncomplicated cutaneous disease in cats with tuberculosis?
It carries the most favorable prognosis.
171
Why is tailoring treatment for feline tuberculosis difficult?
Sensitivity testing does not always correlate with in vivo results.
172
What are the potential risks of surgical excision of small cutaneous lesions in cats with tuberculosis?
Wound dehiscence and local recurrence of infection.
173
What is the recommended therapy for cats with localised cutaneous infection before a definitive diagnosis is made?
Interim therapy with a fluoroquinolone.
174
What is the treatment of choice for feline tuberculosis?
Initial and continuation phases of anti-tuberculosis treatment for a total of 6 months.
175
What drugs are typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment for cats?
Fluoroquinolone, Rifampicin, and either Clarithromycin or Azithromycin.
176
What newer fluoroquinolone may be useful in the treatment of feline tuberculosis?
Pradofloxacin.
177
What is the potential side effect of clarithromycin treatment in cats with mycobacterial infection?
Pinnal or more generalized erythema, which resolves on discontinuation of the drug.
178
What is the recommended treatment consisting of in cats with mycobacterial infection?
Initial phase of rifampicin-fluoroquinolone-clarithromycin/azithromycin, followed by a continuation phase of rifampicin and either fluoroquinolone or clarithromycin/azithromycin.
179
What can be done if hepatotoxicity is encountered during treatment of feline tuberculosis?
Lower the Rifampicin dose or discontinue Rifampicin if the cat is in remission.
180
What is the prognosis for cats with mycobacterial infection?
It depends on the type of mycobacteria involved and the extent and severity of the infection.
181
Have many cases of feline tuberculosis responded favorably to treatment?
Yes, especially those caused by M. microti infection.
182
What is the recommendation for the treatment duration in cats with feline tuberculosis?
A minimum of six to nine months.
183
What are the typical clinical signs of lower respiratory tract infections in cats?
Coughing, dyspnoea, and occasionally central cyanosis.
184
Which disease rarely causes coughing in cats with lower respiratory tract disease?
Cardiac or pleural space disease.
185
What respiratory pattern is typically seen in cats with pulmonary parenchymal disease?
Expiratory pattern, which is typically restrictive (increased rate).
186
What respiratory pattern is typically seen in cats with pleural space disease?
Restrictive inspiratory dyspnoea.
187
What are some causes of lower respiratory tract disease in cats?
Chronic bronchopulmonary disease, pneumonia (bacterial/viral/fungal), parasitic infections, neoplasia, foreign bodies, etc.
188
Why are bacterial pneumonias in cats difficult to recognize and treat?
Diagnostic imaging modalities have improved, revealing underlying pulmonary disease in cats presenting with pyothorax.
189
Which bacterial pathogens have been isolated in cats with pneumonia?
Mycoplasma sp., Mycobacterial sp., Pasteurella sp., Streptococcus sp., Bordetella, E. Coli, Pseudomonas, EF-4a bacteria.
190
What radiographic patterns can be seen in cats with pneumonia?
Diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern, alveolar consolidation, patchy alveolar infiltrate, pleural effusions.
191
What viruses can cause viral pneumonias in cats?
Upper respiratory tract viruses like Calicivirus and Herpes.
192
What are some potential feline zoonotic diseases?
Rabies, Coxiellosis, Pasteurellosis, Bartonellosis, Helicobacteriosis, Cryptosporidiosis, Mycoplasmal infections, Giardiasis, Bordetellosis, Pox, Sporotrichosis, Tritrichomonas foetus, Malassezia pachydermatis infection, Campylobacteriosis, Chlamydophila felis, Salmonellosis, Mycobacteriosis, E. Coli species, Dermatophytosis, Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcal Infections, Toxocarosis, Group A Streptococcal Species, Toxoplasmosis, Vector Borne Zoonoses, Ehrlichiosis, Rickettsial Diseases, Yersinia Pestis, Borreliosis, Anaplasmosis.
193
Which mycobacterial species can cause disease in veterinary species?
M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. microti, M. avium, M. lepraemurium, M. chelonae-abscessus, M. fortuitum / peregrinum group, M. smegmatis, M. phlei, M. genavense, M. simiae, M. thermoresistible, M, flavescens, M. xenopi, M. alvei, and M. terrae complex.
194
What are the mycobacterial syndromes seen in cats?
Tuberculosis, feline leprosy, and NTM mycobacteriosis.
195
What are the symptoms of feline mycobacteriosis?
Nodules, draining tracts, ulceration.
196
How are feline mycobacterial infections transmitted?
Percutaneous injury, contamination via soil, presence of devitalized tissue.
197
What can be used to control the clinical signs of T. foetus infection in cats?
A highly digestible diet or a high fiber diet.
198
What is the topic of Lesson 3 in the course?
Upper Respiratory Tract Infections.
199
What has been widely used in the prevention of Upper Respiratory Tract Infections?
Vaccines.
200
What is the common name for infectious upper respiratory tract disease in cats?
Cat flu
201
What is the cause of over 80% of cat flu cases?
Infection with feline calicivirus (FCV) or feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)
202
Which organism may play an important role in cat flu?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
203
Which organism is typically a conjunctival pathogen but may be involved in respiratory disease in cats?
Chlamydophila felis
204
Which environmental factors may exacerbate the problem of cat flu?
Poor ventilation, high humidity, and over-crowding
205
What is the structure and characteristics of feline calicivirus (FCV)?
Small, un-enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus with a large number of strains
206
How long do most cats shed FCV following infection?
At least a month, with about 50% still shedding by 75 days
207
What is the structure and characteristics of feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)?
Double stranded DNA virus with a glycoprotein-lipid envelope and little strain variation
208
How long can FHV-1 survive in a damp environment?
18 hours
209
Which organism can act as a respiratory pathogen in cats and has potential zoonotic risk?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
210
What is the prevalence of Chlamydophila felis infection in the UK?
Up to 30% of cats with conjunctivitis
211
How are the infectious agents associated with cat flu typically transmitted?
By aerosolisation and/or direct contact with conjunctiva or oral/nasal membranes
212
What is one of the symptoms of T. foetus infection in cats?
Prolonged and intractable diarrhea
213
What is the most common age group affected by T. foetus infection in cats?
Young cats and kittens under 12 months
214
What is the most commonly affected type of cats with T. foetus infection?
Young pedigree cats, particularly Siamese and Bengal
215
What percentage of faecal samples from cats with diarrhea in the UK are infected with T. foetus?
Up to 30%
216
How can the presence of T. foetus in cats' faeces be detected?
By using different methods such as fresh faecal smears, specific culture system, or PCR
217
Which method is the most sensitive test for detecting T. foetus in cats' faeces?
PCR
218
What are the characteristics of T. foetus trophozoites under the microscope?
Small, motile organisms with an undulating membrane and described as having a 'jerky, forward motion'
219
What action should be taken with potential suspects?
X
