Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

How does a virus affect different parts of the respiratory system?

A
Depending on which part of the respiratory tract the virus attacks, you get different symptoms
Upper respiratory (mouth to trachea): runny nose, blocked sinuses, sore throat, painful swollen tonsils
Lower respiratory (vocal cords to alveoli): upper – barking cough, lower –pneumonic symptoms
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2
Q

Who is RSV most dangerous for?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) – common in children but can be lethal in premature babies. Under 18 months can develop bronchiolitis which may mean they need oxygen or ventilation.

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3
Q

What is the influenza virus?

A

Influenza or ‘flu’ is an acute respiratory illness caused by infection with influenza viruses.
Member of the Orthomyxoviridae family, with 3 separate genera: influenza A, B and C.

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4
Q

Where are the antigenic sites on the virus?

A

Genetic material in the middle
Glycoprotein shell with hemagglutinin and neuraminidase present on the surface. These are the antigenic sites. They can be used to classify the virus.

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5
Q

How is Influenza A categorised?

A

Influenza A viruses further subdivided by 2 key surface antigens:

Haemagglutinin (15 subtypes)
Virus binding and entry to cells: i.e. the “Grappling Hook” for getting in
Immunity confers protection but only to specific subtype

Neuraminidase (9 subtypes)
The “Bolt Cutters” for getting out; cuts newly formed virus loose from infected cells and prevents it clumping together
Immunity to subtype reduces amount of virus released from cells resulting in a less severe disease

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6
Q

Which viral antigens are found in humans?

A

H1-3 and N1-2 have evolved and adapted so that they can be transmitted between humans.

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7
Q

How does the influenza virus change?

A

Influenza A and B are the main human pathogens
Viral genome consists of 8 single-stranded RNA segments.
Because the genome is segmented, gene re-assortment can occur in infections.
Genes swapping can occur during co-infection with human and avian flu virus
Also, no proof reading mechanism when it replicates so very prone to mutation.
Minor antigenic variation (antigenic drift) causes seasonal epidemics
Gene re-assortment & major antigenic variation (antigenic shift) may be associated with pandemics.

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8
Q

What’s the difference between influenza A, B and C?

A

Influenza A
“Sloppy, capricious, promiscuous”: can infect pigs, cats, horses, birds and sea mammals
Causes the severe and extensive outbreaks and pandemics.

Influenza B
Like Influenza A, also prone to mutation but tend to cause sporadic outbreaks (e.g. schools, care homes, garrisons) that are less severe.
More often seen in children

Influenza C
Relatively minor disease: mild symptoms or even asymptomatic

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9
Q

How is influenza transmitted?

A

Transmission mainly via aerosols generated by coughs and sneezes. However, also possible via hand-to-hand contact, other personal contact or fomites.

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10
Q

How does influenza present?

A

Influenza characterised by upper and/or lower respiratory tract symptoms, as well as fever, headache, myalgia and weakness.
Complications include bacterial pneumonia, and can be life threatening

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11
Q

Who is at risk of mortality from influenza?

A

Mortality risk higher in persons with underlying medical conditions:
Chronic cardiac and pulmonary diseases – asthma/COPD
Old age
Chronic metabolic diseases
Chronic renal disease
Immunosuppressed – cancer, medication, born with immunodeficiency

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12
Q

What are the treatment options for influenza?

A
Supportive care’
Oxygenation
Hydration / nutrition
Maintain homeostasis
Prevent / treat secondary infections e.g. bacterial pneumonia

Role of antiviral medication e.g. Tamiflu reduces duration by one day
Reduce risk of transmission to others
Reduce severity and duration of symptoms

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13
Q

What are the features of the seasonal flu?

A

Every year the virus changes a little bit (‘Antigenic Drift’)
Means it can infect some people who were immune to last year’s variant.
Changes derived from mutation within the people it infects.
Influenza occurs most often in the winter months and usually peaks between December and March in the northern hemisphere.
Illnesses resembling influenza may occur in the summer months but they are usually due to other viruses.
Annual flu vaccination of at risk groups and children offers some protection against infection.

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14
Q

What are the features of the pandemic flu?

A

Virus mutates markedly (‘Antigenic shift’)
Large proportion of the population is susceptible.
Often created by the strain “jumping” from another species e.g. Flu virus found in ducks, chickens, horses, pigs, whales, seals…

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15
Q

What are the consequences of pandemic flu?

A

High morbidity
Excess mortality
Social disruption
Economic disruption

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16
Q

What are the features of the spanish flu?

A

H1N1 flu subtype, derived from an avian source
Killed between 50 and 100 million people worldwide, with about 40% of the world’s population becoming ill.
Of those who died, many felt ill in the morning and were dead by nightfall. It killed more people than WWI.
Believed that the movement of soldiers helped to spread the virus further afield.
It killed mostly young people (between 20 and 40 years) because the older population had been infected by a variant 40 years earlier leaving them with a residual immunity. Impacted greatly on future generations because these were the people of working (tax-paying) and child-bearing age.

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17
Q

What is the timeline in pandemic flu?

A

Incubation period 1-4 days
Infectious from onset of symptoms to 4-5 days after,
10% infectious before symptom onset.
2-4 weeks from first case to first introduction to UK
First wave last 3-5 months. Subsequent waves may be worse
What age groups will be affected? Depends if there is any residual immunity
Will take 4 – 6 months (or more) before vaccine available – time for development and manufacture
Potential effectiveness of current anti-virals

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18
Q

What is the overall case fatality rate and the clinical attack rate?

A

Overall case fatality rate – the proportion of people who die as a result of the infection
Clinical attack rate – the proportion of people who develop the disease out of those who are exposed

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19
Q

Will we get more pandemics?

A
More travel
More people
Intensive farming - more animal contacts with people, factory farming breeding grounds for viruses
BUT on the plus side
- Better nutrition, overall healthier population
- Better supportive care options
- Vaccination
- Antivirals?
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20
Q

What is the Avian Flu?

A

Before 1997, H5N1 flu virus started circulating in SE Asia
Mild disease in birds (ruffled feathers and depression)
Mutation to highly pathogenic form → 100% mortality
First human cases: Hong Kong 1997
Strictly an avian pathogen but has the documented ability to pass from birds to humans
Most seasonal influenza get secondary bacterial pneumonia, whereas H5N1 causes a primary viral pneumonia

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21
Q

Why was avian flu prevalent in SE Asia?

A

Close proximity of poultry and people.

50 – 80% of poultry in small rural households

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22
Q

How to control Avian flu?

A
Cull affected birds
Biosecurity and quarantine
Disinfecting farms
Control poultry movement
Vaccinate workers – seasonal influenza vaccine to try and prevent a new mutant version emerging
Antivirals for poultry workers
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Try to reduce chance of co-infection
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23
Q

How were people prepared for swine flu?

A

International surveillance
Virus research
Vaccine research
Stock piling of drugs - 30 million courses of Oseltamivir
Plans written – strategic
Preparation of information – public and professional

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24
Q

What are the features of swine flu?

A

Reassortment of swine, avian and human flu virus
Novel virus substantially different from human H1N1 virus; many people susceptible
Human to human transmission
Sensitive to Oseltamivir and Zanamivir (at the moment)
Seasonal influenza vaccine not effective
Greater mortality in younger populations
People over 40 year have some immunity

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25
Q

What are the phases of the pandemic?

A

Containment Phase
Identification of cases – swabs (couriers),
Treatment of cases
Contact tracing – family, airline passengers
Large scale prophylaxis (anti-virals)

Treatment Phase
Treat symptomatic cases only
National Flu Pandemic Service

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26
Q

What are the rules of infection control?

A

Hand hygiene, cough etiquette
Universal precautions and PPE (mask, apron, gown, gloves)
Surgical masks OK for non aerosol generating procedures
Segregation of patients
Reduce social contact – 2m
Flu surgeries
Environmental cleaning

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27
Q

How to manage cases in a pandemic?

A

Call centres
Non medical staff manage cases according to an algorithm
Patient or relative collects antivirals
Home delivery of anti virals for some
Clinical staff free to treat high risk and severely ill people
Hospital admission criteria

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28
Q

What are antivirals?

A

UK stockpiled 30 million courses
Would cover a 50% attack rate
Mostly Tamiflu, with some Relenza
Tamiflu needs to be given with 24-48 hours of contact to have maximum effect
Evidence from seasonal flu is that it reduces hospitalisation by 50% and duration of disease by approximately 24hours (drug company studies…)

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29
Q

What are the issues with antivirals?

A

What happens if the virus develops resistance?
What about side effects?
Who do we give them to?
How do we distribute them?

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30
Q

When are face masks useful in a infection?

A
Worn correctly
Changed frequently
Removed properly
Disposed of safely
Used in combination with good universal hygiene practice
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31
Q

What is the impact of a pandemic on the health service staff?

A
STAFF ISSUES 
Anxiety/unwilling to work
Adequate protection
Access to antivirals
Risk to family
Child care
Segregation of staff
Redeployment of retired staff
Recycling of staff
Organisations sharing staff
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32
Q

What is the impact of a pandemic on schools?

A

Likely to spread rapidly in schools and other closed communities
What happens to NHS staffing levels if schools close down?
Impact on all services including police, fire, the military, fuel supply, food production, distribution and transport, prisons, education and business

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33
Q

What’s the hope of vaccines in a pandemic?

A

Developed in the past but not used - capacity issues and too late
Could take 6 -10 months, hopefully quicker
When to switch from producing normal seasonal flu vaccine to the pandemic strain?
Capacity:
- will take time to manufacture
- who do you allocate it to first?
May require two doses for at risk groups

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34
Q

What are the possible population-wide interventions that need to be taken in the face of a pandemic?

A
Travel restrictions
Restrictions of mass public gatherings
Schools closure
Voluntary home isolation of cases
Voluntary quarantine of contacts of known cases
Screening of people entering UK ports
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35
Q

What is MERS?

A

Middle East respiratory syndrome-related coronavirus is a species of coronavirus which infects humans, bats, and camels.
It was first reported in Saudi Arabia in 2012 and has since spread to several other countries

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36
Q

What are the normal oxygen values for arterial blood?

A

Arterial blood: PaO2 90 -110 mm Hg (12.14.6 kPa)

Note PaO2 ~6 mm Hg (0.8kPa) lower in supine position

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37
Q

What are the normal carbon dioxide values for arterial blood?

A

Blood PCO2 34-46 mm Hg (4.6-6.1 kPa)

Hyper/hypocapnia - Blood PCO2 outwith this range

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38
Q

What are the different types of hypoxia?

A

Hypoxia is when oxygen supplies can’t meet oxygen demands of a given tissue.
Four sub-divisions:
- Hypoxaemic hypoxia
Low PaO2 (<94, <92, <90 %,<60 mm Hg/8 kPa)
- Anaemic: Reduced Hb
- Stagnant:Poor perfusion of the tissue
- Histiotoxic: cells can’t use oxygen – CN poisoning
Only Hypoxaemic hypoxia can be corrected by supplementary oxygen

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39
Q

What is type 1 respiratory failure?

A

Defined as:
PaO2<60 mm Hg (equivalent to SaO2 of ∼90%) with a normal or low PaCO2 level.
Factors influencing oxygenation
Due to hypoxaemic hypoxia.
High altitude
Ventilation-Perfusion mismatch (ok ventilation but poor perfusion – pulmonary embolism; shunt)
Diffusion problem (Pneumonia)

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40
Q

What is type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Defined as:
PaO2<60 mm Hg (equivalent to SaO2 of ∼90%) with hypercapnia, PaCO2 >50 mm Hg.
Due to inadequate alveolar ventilation
Increased airway resistance – COPD, asthma
Reduced breathing effort
Reduced gas exchange surface area (chronic bronchitis)
Deformities in the spine preventing expansion of the chest wall (kyphoscoliosis) or damaged (flail) chest wall

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41
Q

What is the function of the nasal conchae?

A

Warms, humidifies, filters inspired air
~160 cm2
“Turbinate precipitation” – causes it to change direction quickly, bigger particulates are filtered out because they can’t change direction quick enough
Mucous collects debris

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42
Q

What is Stridor?

A

Upper airway block
Prominent sound on inspiration
Seen in children with coup

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43
Q

What are the features of the broncioles?

A
Smooth muscle
Mucous glands
Cilia
- Muco-ciliary staircase
- Remove debris
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44
Q

What happens at the alveolar epithelium?

A

Metabolic function
Site of ACE – important for regulating salt balance
Coverts Angiotensin 1 to Angiotensin 2

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45
Q

What are the two zones of the bronchial tree?

A
Conductive zone:
~16 divisions
Trachea – terminal bronchiole
No alveoli – no gas exchange
Anatomical deadspace (~150 ml)
Respiratory zone:
Gas exchange in alveolated areas
~3 L volume
~50-100m2 surface area
“sheet of blood” as a support structure around the alveoli
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46
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

the lung volume representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration

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47
Q

What is the minute volume?

A

Respiratory minute volume (or minute ventilation or minute volume) is the volume of gas inhaled (inhaled minute volume) or exhaled (exhaled minute volume) from a person’s lungs per minute.
~15 breath/min
500 mL per inspiration
~7,500 ml/min

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48
Q

What are the features of the lung mechanics?

A

Elastic lungs
Moveable ribs
Muscles - external intercostals and diagphragm

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49
Q

What are the elastic properties of lung tissue?

A

Elastic fibres in lung parenchyma – need just the right number
Alveolar surface tension – lining of fluid in the alveoli which on its own would cause lung collapse, surfactant reduces the surface tension so that the lungs don’t collapse
Lungs collapse without ribs

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50
Q

Why are newborn/premature babies at risk of lung collapse?

A

Smaller the alveoli, the greater the surface tension

Babies don’t have much surfactant and have very tiny alveoli – high surface tension

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51
Q

What are the mechanics of lung inhalation?

A

Rib cage moves upwards and outwards
Increases thoracic volume with help from external intercostals, sternocleidomastoids, anterior serrati, scaleni.
Diaphragm contracts, flattening the abdominal contents to further expand the chest volume.
This decreases the intrathoracic air pressure creating a small vacuum that draws air in.

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52
Q

What does the surface tension do?

A

Pleural membranes are held together by pleural fluid which creates a surface tension to adhere them together.
Develops sub-atmospheric intra-pleural “pressure” (~ -5mm Hg) and prevents lung collapse.

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53
Q

What is a flail chest?

A

Occurs when two or more ribs broken in two or more places.
Causes paradoxical breathing
Chest “fragment” moves in opposite direction during respiratory cycle, it is sucked back into the chest because the transpulmonary pressure is so strong

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54
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

Intra-pleural pressure equilibrates to atmospheric pressure
“Vacuum” lost
Lung collapses

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55
Q

What can cause a pneumothorax?

A

Thoracic trauma - Blunt or penetrating

Spontaneous - ruptured bullae

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56
Q

What is a bulla in the lung?

A

A bulla is a permanent, air-filled space within the lung parenchyma that is at least 1 cm in size and has a thin or poorly defined wall; it is bordered only by remnants of alveolar septae and/or pleura.

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57
Q

What are the treatment options for a pneumothorax?

A

Aim: Re-establish sub-atmospheric intra-pleural pressure
Acute – emergency thoracocentesis
(needle decompression, 14G cannula, 2nd intercostal space; may fail.)
Longer term – tube thoracostomy (chest drain, 5th intercostal space)

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58
Q

How to treat a Persistent Spontaneous Pneumothorax?

A

Pleurodosis:
“Tyre-weld” - autologous blood patch
Using n-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate as a tissue glue
Talc or bleomycin - painful
Seals and sticks the pleura back together to re-establish sub-atmospheric intra-pleural pressure.

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59
Q

What is Spirometry?

A
A method to determine lung function
Four volumes (Inspiratory Reserve volume, Tidal volume, Expiratory Reserve volume, Residual volume)
Four capacities (collection of volumes) - Total Lung Capacity, Inspiratory Capacity, Vital Capacity, Functional Residual capacity.
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60
Q

What do all the lung volumes mean?

A

Inspiratory reserve volume - the additional amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inspiration (tidal volume)
Tidal volume - the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied
Expiratory reserve volume - the amount of extra air, above anormal breath, exhaled during a forceful breath out.
Residual volume - the amount of air that remains in a person’s lungs after fully exhaling

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61
Q

What do all the lung capacities mean?

A

Total lung capacity - sum of all volume compartments or volume of air in lungs after maximum inspiration (usually about 4-6L
Inspiratory capacity - the additional amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation (IC = TV + IRC)
Vital capacity - the maximum amount of air a person can expel from the lungs after a maximum inhalation (VC = TV + IRC + ERV)
Functional residual capacity -the volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration (FRC = ERV+RV)

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62
Q

How does being pregnant affect the the capacities and volumes of the lungs?

A

Reduced inspiratory reserve volume
Increased tidal volume
Reduced expiratory reserve volume
Reduced residual volume

Reduced total lung capacity
Reduced functional residual capacity

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63
Q

What can spirometry be used for in the clinic?

A

Differentiate between
Obstructive (COPD, asthma, CF) - obstructs the patient from exhaling
Restrictive (fibrosis, oedema) - impinges on inhalation, stops people from filling their lungs

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64
Q

What is FEV1 and FVC?

A

Forced expiratory volume in 1s (FEV1): volume exhaled in first second after deep inspiration and forced expiration
Forced vital capacity (FVC): total volume of air patient can forcibly exhale in one breath
FEV1/FVC – the ratio of FEV1 to FVC expressed as a percentage

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65
Q

What is normal FEV1 and FVC?

A

FEV1: >80% predicted
FVC: >80% predicted
FEV1/FVC ratio: >0.7

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66
Q

How does airway resistance change in disease?

A

Healthy adult: main airway resistance: 4th - 8th airway generations (in the middle)
Few larger bronchi vs many smaller terminal bronchioles
Disease: greater resistance from smaller bronchioles due to:
- Muscular wall contraction
- Oedema
- Luminal mucus

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67
Q

What is lung compliance?

A

Extent to which lungs will expand for a given increase in trans-pulmonary pressure
Lung vol. change / unit of transpulmonary pressure

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68
Q

What are the different pressures in the lung?

A

Alveolar pressure: pressure inside alveoli ~ atmospheric pressure (~760 mm Hg). Convention dictates it is 0 mm Hg
Pleural pressure: pressure of pleural fluid. Negative with respect to alveolar pressure
Trans-pulmonary pressure: pressure difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure

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69
Q

What is inspiratory and expiratory compliance in the lung?

A

Inspiratory compliance: Less compliant due to parenchymal elastic and collagen fibres at apex
and surface tension reduced by surfactant at the base
Expiratory compliance: Greater uniformity due to elastic recoil

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70
Q

What happens when there is reduced lung compliance?

A

“Stiff” lungs means that there is inelastic scar tissue
It is difficult to stretch/inflate
Accumulation of fibrous tissue
Greater pressure change needed for same lung vol change
Occurs during pulmonary fibrosis; alveolar oedema; lack of surfactant (premature babies)

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71
Q

What happens when there is high lung compliance?

A
Elastic fibres degraded means there is low elastic recoil
Difficulty exhaling
Difficulty inhaling 
Collapsed alveoli
Increased work of breathing
Occurs during Emphysema and COPD
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72
Q

What is the pathophysiology of asthma?

A
Inflammation/irritation causes ontraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle (parasympathetic nerves)
Narrow airways increased resistance
Ventilation/Perfusion mismatch
Increased work of breathing
Muco-ciliary clearance reduced
Wheeze
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73
Q

What is the pathophysiology of COPD/em

A

Chronic inflammation/infection blocks bronchioles
Air is entrapped; alveoli enlarge and rupture
Respiratory membrane destroyed
Reduced surface area for gas exchange
Increased airway resistance; increased work of breathing (require accessory muscles even in ‘relaxed’ breathing)
Ventilation/Perfusion mismatch (Shunt and deadspace)
Hypercapnia – new elevated “baseline” level of CO2 - “less sensitive” to hypercapnia

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74
Q

Why can giving a COPD patient supplemental oxygen be dangerous?

A

COPD patients may rely on hypoxic response to stimulate breathing (already baseline hypercapnic)
Hyper-oxygenation may removes hypoxic drive that they rely on
So the aim is to maintain SaO2 ~90% (88-92% accepted range) to minimise the risk of exacerbating hypercapnia

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75
Q

What is the neurological control of ventilation?

A

Central control region – medullary respiratory centres
Integrates/coordinate all information from sensors

Sensors – chemoreceptors
Gather information about system

Effectors – muscles (intercostals, diaphragm…)
Alter the system

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76
Q

What do the different respiratory centres do?

A
PONS
* Apneustic centre:
Stimulates inspiratory centre
Sustained inhalation if not stopped
* Pneumotaxic centre:
Switches off inspiratory ramp
Limits inspiratory cycle
Increases resp rate
MEDULLA
* Inspiratory centre (Dorsal Respiratory Group; DRG):
Key regulator of respiration
Receives sensory info from CN IX, X
Repetitive inspiratory drive
“ramp” signals to muscles ~2secs
3 secs silence – muscles relax
* Expiratory centre (Ventral Respiratory Group; VRG) :
Gives extra respiratory drive
Active on forced exhalation
Stimulates abdominal muscles
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77
Q

What nerves are required for the neurological control of ventilation?

A

CN IX - Glossopharyngeal (Hering’s nerve; carotid bodies)
CN X – Vagus (aortic bodies)
Phrenic nerve root – diaphragm (C3-C5 keeps the diaphragm alive)
Intercostal nerves – intercostal muscles

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78
Q

What are the central and peripheral chemoreceptors?

A
ACT AS SENSORS
Central Chemoreceptors
Ventral surface of medulla
Sensitive to CO2 and H+ ions
O2 - little direct influence

Peripheral Chemoreceptors
Aortic bodies, Carotid bodies - decreased PO2, decreased pH, increased PCO2
Stretch receptors - prevent over-stretching
Irritant receptors

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79
Q

How does the body respond to an increased carbon dioxide?

A

Acute elevation – increased H+: respiratory compensation – increased resp rate.
Renal Involvement
Adjustment of H+ to normal levels over 1-2 days
Increased plasma HCO3- (renal synthesis)
HCO3- leaks into CSF – mops up excess H+
Potent acute effect on respiratory control; weak chronic effect

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80
Q

What are the general arterial blood gas values?

A

pH 7.35 - 7.45
HCO3– 24-28mmol/L
pCO2 35-45 mHhg
paO2 75-100mmHg (on air)

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81
Q

How does the kidney react to increased H+ (acidosis)?

A

Reabsorb all filtered HCO3-
Secrete H+
Synthesise new HCO3-
Phosphate Buffers - Major role in buffering renal tubular [H+]
Ammonia - Major role in buffering H+ in chronic acidosis

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82
Q

How does the kidney react to increased HCO3- (alkalosis)?

A

Excess filtered HCO3-
Not titrated by H+
Excreted in urine
Decrease resp rate (minor)

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83
Q

What’s the difference between the pulmonary and circulatory circulation?

A

Pulmonary circulation - low pressure, small difference in pressure from inlet to outlet, thin-walled arteries (little smooth muscle), receives all cardiac output all the time, rarely re-directs blood flow except in alveolar hypoxia
Systemic circulation - high pressure, big difference in pressure from inlet to outlet, thick-walled arteries (lots of smooth muscle), cardiac output is variable, regularly redistributes blood

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84
Q

What is the bronchial circulation?

A

Part of the systemic circulation
Supplies lung parenchyma
Returns via pulmonary veins

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85
Q

How do the alveolar and extra-alveolar vessels differ?

A

Alveolar vessels:
Capillaries and slightly larger vessels
Calibre determined by alveolar pressure vs luminal pressure.
Extra- alveolar vessels :
Arteries and veins in lung parenchyma
Calibre determined by lung volume (tissues stretched)

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86
Q

Why is there an uneven distribution of pulmonary blood?

A

Zone 1 (Apex): Alveolar pressure > arterial pressure
Capillaries squashed – no blood flow
Zone 2 (Middle): Arterial pressure > alveolar pressure > venous pressure
Intermittent capillary flow – systole not diastole
More like zone 3 in exercise
Zone 3 (Base): Arterial pressure > venous pressure > alveolar pressure
Continuous capillary flow
Describes most lung blood flow

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87
Q

What is the Ventilation:Perfusion Ratio?

A

Ventilation: Volume of gas/unit time (flow)
Perfusion: Volume of blood/unit time (flow)
When alveolar ventilation and perfusion are normal, there is productive gas exchange

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88
Q

What happens when there is a ventilation:perfusion mismatch?

A

Alveolar ventilation – absent due to airway obstruction, high altitude
Alveolar perfusion – normal (but wasted)
Therefore alveolar PO2 and PCO2 equilibrate to venous blood levels.
Alveolar ventilation – normal (but wasted)
Alveolar perfusion – absent due to pulmonary embolism.
Therefore alveolar PO2 and PCO2 equilibrate to inspired air.
Both cases - no gas exchange

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89
Q

What is Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction?

A

Decreased alveolar PO2 (<73 mmHg) causes local vasoconstriction of the small pulmonary arteries.
Increased pulmonary resistance (~5X)
Shunts blood to better ventilated areas
Role in High altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE)?

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90
Q

What determines whether gas exchange occurs?

A

Pressure and Partial pressure of gases within inspired air.
This affects the plasma solubility of those gases.
Oxygen: Poor plasma solubility - ~3% is dissolved
~97% carried via Haemoglobin (Hb)
Carbon Dioxide: Greater plasma solubility – but only ~2.7 ml/100ml blood
~7% is dissolved
~23% carried via Haemoglobin (carbamino-Hb)

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91
Q

What is pulse oximetry?

A

Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method for monitoring a person’s oxygen saturation (SO2). It is a reading of peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) but is not always identical to the more desirable reading of arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) from arterial blood gas analysis.

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92
Q

What anatomical changes mean that a pregnant woman’s respiratory volumes and capacities are different?

A

Diaphragmatic elevation (~4cm)
Increased sub-costal angle
Increased thoracic circumference
Decreased chest compliance but lung compliance unchanged
Progesterone-induced tracheo-bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

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93
Q

Why do pregnant women experience dyspnoea?

A

Increased tidal vol causes increased minute volume

~70% women experience subjective dyspnoea

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94
Q

Why is it important that there is a CO2 gradient between the mother and baby?

A

Maternal: Gradient between venous blood and alveolar air, CO2 excreted
CO2 must diffuse to maternal venous blood before alveolar excretion
Fetal:maternal CO2 gradient must be created
Decreased chemoreceptor sensitivity facilitates this

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95
Q

How does the kidney compensate for respiratory alkalosis in pregancy?

A

Potential for respiratory alkalosis due to excess [HCO3-]ECF.
But in the proximal renal tubule excess filtered HCO3- i not titrated by H+ and is excreted in the urine.
Reduced HCO3- as part of these compensatory mechanisms.

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96
Q

How common is asthma?

A

5.4 million in the UK receiving treatment
60% asthmatics with persistent symptom burden despite effective treatment available (potential risk of undertreated mild asthma)
65% asthmatics with asthma attacks

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97
Q

What is the pathology of asthma?

A

Bronchial hyperresponsiveness - airways get swollen and twitching
Increase in smooth muscle cells - in number and size (hypertrophy)
This narrows the diameter of the airway lumen
They constrict, which narrows the diameter of the lumen further
Swelling and inflammation also contributes to further narrowing
Mucous production also contributes to airway obstruction

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98
Q

What are the two types of asthma?

A

Eosinophilic - can be associated with allergy or not, the non-allergy variant is usually seen in adulthood.
Non-eosinophilic

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99
Q

What is atopic asthma?

A

Allergic inflammation is characterised by the recruitment of eosinophils.
Atopic asthma: atopy is the tendency to develop IgE-mediated reactions to common aeroallergens.
25% of the population are atopic, but only half of those people develop disease associated with this. So you can be atopic and healthy or atopic with an atopic disease.

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100
Q

What is Eosinophilic asthma?

A

Allergy-associated immune cells (Th2 cells) call in the eosinophils by cytokines which damage the epithelium and shredding of it, as well as mucous production and narrowing and damage of the airway.

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101
Q

What causes Atopic eosinophilic asthma?

A

Atopic eosinophilic asthma can be associated with fungal allergy, common aeroallergens (cat, dog, house, house dust mite) and occupation, pets, exposures.

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102
Q

What Non-eosinophilic asthma?

A
No eosinophils present, instead the presence of neutrophils. Not very well understood.
Divided into:
Obesity-related
Smoking-related
Non-smoking, non-eosinophilic
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103
Q

What is the overlap between asthma and COPD?

A

Common but not talked about much, difficult to define
Variable airflow obstruction, but not completely reversible
Smoke exposure (passive, active), asthma, infections
More symptomatic, greater healthcare burden
Target eosinophils with steroids, use bronchodilators

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104
Q

How does Asthma present?

A

Episodic wheeze - comes and goes over time
Cough, breathlessness
Diurnal variation - often worse at 3/4/5am (may be due to dip in adrenaline)
Brittle asthma (type 1, chronic severe, type 2 sudden dips) - known as unstable or unpredictable asthma because it can suddenly develop into a life-threatening attack.
Provoking factors: allergens, infections, menstrual cycle, exercise, cold air, laughter/emotion

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105
Q

What is cough-variant asthma?

A

A type of asthma in which the main symptom is a dry, non-productive cough.

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106
Q

What factors may indicate the severity of asthma?

A

Level of treatment required (number of inhalers)
A&E attendances, admissions, HDU/ITU care ventilation (how long?)
Attendance at GP for courses of antibiotics and steroids

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107
Q

What may suggest asthma that is poorly controlled?

A

Recent nocturnal waking?
Usual asthma symptoms in the day?
Interference with activities of daily living?
Positive to one or more suggests poor control of asthma.

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108
Q

What needs to be included when you’re taking a history of an potential asthmatic?

A

Age of onset (did it get any better at any point?)
Childhood ventilation/respiratory disease
The march of allergies
Any particular unusual features at the start (e.g. sudden onset, weight loss)
Obvious causes? Chlorine exposure? Occupation?

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109
Q

What are the associated symptoms with asthma?

A

Eczema, hay fever
Nasal polyp disease: samter’s triad (a chronic condition defined by asthma, sinus inflammation with recurring nasal polyps, and aspirin sensitivity), relevant re rare differentials such as Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)
Other food allergies, drug allergies
Reflux disease

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110
Q

What do you need to ask about a potential asthmatic’s past medical history?

A

Always a vital part of the history
Previous pneumonias (bronchiectasis?)
Neurological/renal problems (vasculitis)

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111
Q

What do you need to ask about a potential asthmatic’s drug history?

A

What are they supposed to be taking?
What do they actually take?
Are they taking beta blockers orally or topically?
Are they sensitive to NSAIDs or aspirin?
Drugs with potential interactions: theophyllines

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112
Q

What do you need to ask about a potential asthmatic’s social and family history?

A
Do they smoke?
Atopy is an inherited tendency
Family history of asthma, eczema and hayfever
Are there pets in the home?
Psychological and psychiatric history
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113
Q

What do you need to ask about a potential asthmatic’s occupation?

A

Exposure to dusts, fumes, allergens
Lab workers, veterinary staff, animal breeders
Paint sprayers
Bakers
Is your asthma better on holiday? Worse at work?

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114
Q

How would you distinguish COPD from asthma?

A

COPD is a later disease dominantly of smokers
More of a relentless progressive SOB with wheeze as part of the symptom complex
Less diurnal variation, less day-to-day variation
Winter symptoms, sputum production
Overlap occurs

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115
Q

What would you see in an physical examination for asthma?

A

May be normal
Wheeze, polyphonic, expiratory, widespread
Absence of crackles, sputum and other signs

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116
Q

What tests would you to look for asthma?

A

Blood count: eosinophils
Test for atopy and allergy: skin prick tests (SPTs) and radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Chest X-ray often useful to rule out lung cancer and COPD
Oxygen saturations

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117
Q

What would you notice in an asthmatic in a lung function test?

A

Airways obstruction may be present (reduced FEV1, reduced FEV1/FVC ratio)
PEFR reductions from percent predicted, variability (>20% predicted 3/7 days)
Increased responsiveness to challenge agents (mannitol, methacholine)

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118
Q

What is reversibility testing?

A

The test is carried out using a machine called a spirometer which measures how well your lungs work. Reversibility testing involves performing spirometry before and after you have taken medication and is sometimes done to investigate a diagnosis of asthma, or when diagnosis is not clear.
Increase in lung capacity with bronchodilators or anti-inflammatory treatment
Increase of 12% in FEV1 together with an increase of 200ml in volume is positive >400ml increase makes asthma highly likely
20% variability in PEFTR also suggests asthma

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119
Q

What are the specific tests for airway inflammation?

A

Becoming more common
Exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO), a marker of eosinophilic inflammation - but not specific, suppressed in smokers, elevated with viral infections and rhinitis
Direct measurement of cells in the airways can reliably guide treatment

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120
Q

How to diagnose asthma in the light of a high or low probability?

A

High probability of asthma - code as suspected asthma, initiation of treatment an assess response
Good response: Asthma, adjust maintenance dose
Poor response: intermediate probability of asthma, test for airway obstruction
Low probability of asthma - investigate/treat for a more likely diagnosis

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121
Q

What is severe asthma?

A

One major and two minor characteristics
MAJOR
Treatment with continuous oral steroids
Requirement for high dose inhaled steroids
MINOR
Additional daily reliever medication (beta agonists, theophylline, LTRA)
Symptoms needing reliever medication on a daily or near daily basis
Persistent airway obstruction (FEV1<80%, diurnal variation PEFR >20%)
>1 emergency visits p.a.
>3 steroid courses p.a.
Prompt deterioration with <25% reduction in oral or inhaled steroid dose
Near-fatal event in the past

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122
Q

Who is at risk of an asthma death?

A
>3 classes of treatment
Recent admission/frequent attender
Previous near-fatal disease
Brittle disease
Psychosocial factors
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123
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of asthma?

A

Bronchiolitis
Bronchiectasis (often complicates co-existing asthma)
CF
PE
Cancer
Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
Hyperventilation (often complicates co-existing asthma)
Bronchial obstruction (foreign body, tumour etc)
Vocal cord dysfunction (often complicates co-existing asthma)
Aspiration
Congestive heart failure
COPD

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124
Q

What’s the aim of asthma treatment?

A

Most patients have poor control
Aim to improve control
Address important issues for patients (exercise for example)
Maximum symptoms for minimum side-effects

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125
Q

What’s the treatment of asthma?

A

Avoidance of triggers: allergen avoidance, occupational issues

Classes of drugs available:
Bronchodilators: beta agonists, leukotriene, receptor antagonists, theophyllines, long acting beta agonists, anticholinergics
Anti-inflammatory drugs: steroids
New biologics: omalizumab, mepolizumab

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126
Q

Why do we need steroids to asthmatics?

A

Bronchodilators treat the symptoms, not the disease

We need steroids to reduce airway inflammation and decrease mortality risks

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127
Q

What are the side effects of steroids?

A

Systemic: diabetes, cataracts, osteoporosis, hypertension, skin thinning, easy bruising, growth retardation, osteonecrosis of the femoral head
Topical: hoarse voice, oral candida, skin thinning, easy bruising, cataracts (in high dose)
Adrenal suppression

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128
Q

What are the delivery devices for asthmatic treatment?

A

Multiple different delivery devices: MDIs, dry powder

Use of a spacer to improve delivery and minimise side effects

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129
Q

What are the NICE treatment steps for asthma?

A

Diagnosis and assessment - consider monitor initiation of treatment with low dose inhaled corticosteroids
STEP 1: Regular preventer: Low dose inhaled corticosteroids
STEP 2: Initial add-on therapy: Add inhaled LABA to ICS (usually a combined inhaler)
STEP 3: Additional add-on therapy: if no response to LABA, stop LABA and consider increased dose of ICS.
If LABA is beneficial but still inadequate, continue LABA but increase ICS to a medium dose.
If LABA is beneficial but still inadequate, continue LABA and ICS and consider trial of other therapy - LTRA, S-R theophylline, LAMA
STEP 4: Consider trials of increasing ICS up to high dose or addition of a fourth drug e.g. LTRA, S-R theophylline, beta agonist tablet, LAMA. Refer patient for specialist care.
STEP 5: Use daily steroid tablet in the lowest dose providing adequate control. Maintain high dose ICS. Consider other treatments to minimize use of steroid tablets.

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130
Q

What do we do if the asthma drugs aren’t working?

A

Revisit the basics, particularly technique and adherence
Investigate and treat
Second line immunosuppression
Phenotype-specific management

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131
Q

What’s the treatment for severe eosinophilic asthma?

A

Anti-IgE (omalizumab) for atopic allergic disease - removes Ig-E from the blood
Anti-IL-5 (mepolizumab) - removes IL-5 from the blood
Oral steroids, additional immunosuppressants (guided by overall atopic disease burden

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132
Q

What’s the treatment for non-eosinophilic asthma?

A

Maintain appropriate level of steroid therapy
Focus on more bronchodilator treatment (same inhalers)
Consider bronchial thermoplasty

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133
Q

What happens to asthma in pregnancy?

A

⅓ gets worse
⅓ stays the same
⅓ gets better
Most standard asthma treatments are safe in pregnancy

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134
Q

How to recognise an severe asthma attack?

A

Do PEFR, full clinical assessment
Do oximetry
Gases of acute severe or low saturations (<92% on air, or needing O2)
CXR if suspect pneumothorax, consolidation, life threatening asthma, failure to respond

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135
Q

What are the markers of an moderate asthma attack?

A
UNCONTROLLED/MODERATE
PEFR >50%
RR <25
Pulse <110
Normal speech, no other severe markers
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136
Q

What are the markers of a severe asthma attack?

A
SEVERE (any one of…)
PEFR 33-50% predicted
RR >25
HR >110
Inability to complete sentences
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137
Q

What are the markers of a life-threatening asthma attack?

A

LIFE-THREATENING (any one of…)
PEFR <33%
SaO2 <92% or PaO2 <8kPa
Normal PaCO2 4.6-6 kPa (in early asthma you tend to hyperventilate so it is low but just before you expire you return to a normal CO2)
Altered consciousness, exhaustion, arrhythmia, hypotension, silent chest, poor effort, cyanosis.

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138
Q

What are the markers of a near fatal asthma attack?

A

NEAR FATAL

Raised PaCO2 and/or requiring ventilation with raised airway pressures.

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139
Q

What is the immediate treatment for an asthma attack?

A

Oxygen 40-60% (CO2 retention not usually a problem)
Salbutamol neb 5mg (+ipratropium neb 0.5mg if life threatening) - repeated/IV infusion
Prednisolone 30-60mg (+/- hydrocortisone 200mg IV)
Consider magnesium or aminophylline IV (bolus/load)
ABGs
CXR if suspect pneumothorax, consolidation or fails to respond to treatment (or is very severe)

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140
Q

How would you monitor a patient who has just had an asthma attack?

A

PEFR check within 15-30mins/regularly
Oximetry to maintain SaO2 >92%
Repeat ABG within 2 hours if severe attack or patient deteriorating
If deteriorating despite maximal treatment with worsening hypoxia, hypercapnia or coma/exhaustion - ITU transfer
Watch K, glucose
Consider rehydration

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141
Q

What would you do before the discharge of a patient who has had an asthma attack?

A

Opportunity to educate and prevent readmissions
Achieve PEFR >75% and <25% variability
Prednisolone for minimum 7-14 days (never decrease until improving)
Step up treatment
Asthma action plan
Nurse-led follow-up
Early clinical review (48 hours at GP surgery)

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142
Q

What are the different infections you can get in the respiratory tract?

A

Sinusitis
Tonsillitis - infection of the tonsils
Pharyngitis - ‘sore throat’ infection of the pharynx
Laryngitis - infection of the larynx
Tracheitis - infection of the trachea
Bronchiolitis - infection of the bronchioles
Pleurisy - inflammation of the pleura often caused by an infection
Bronchitis - infection of the bronchi
Pneumonia - infection of the alveoli and surrounding lung

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143
Q

Why are there so many infections in the respiratory tract?

A

Skin is a good barrier to infection - keeps everything out, is waterproof and also keeps everything in except sweat
Urinary system is sterile and flow is outwards
Intestine has acidic stomach/enzymes/commensal bacteria/thick mucosal barrier/mucosal immune system, Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).
Vagina has acidic pH/commensal bacteria/thick mucosal barrier/mucosal immune system
In the lungs, air has to go in and out and cross a very thin membrane (cannot have a massive barrier), there is a huge surface area.

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144
Q

What are the lung immune defences against pathogens in the respiratory tract?

A
  • Commensal flora - colonisation resistance
  • Swallowing - normal swallowing reflex using the epiglottis, neurological and anatomical factors
  • Lung anatomy - mucus and ciliated epithelium ‘mucociliary escalator’ and barrier to some extent (moves things along) - can be damaged by viral infection - then micro aspiration from colonised URT increases risk of bacterial infection
  • Cough reflex and sneezing
  • Innate and adaptive immunity - soluble factors (IgA, defensins, collectins, lysozyme), alveolar macrophages, B and T cells, neutrophils if required
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145
Q

What are the commensal flora present in the respiratory tract?

A

Sinuses - sterile
Nares - Staphylococcus epidermidis and corynebacterium
Teeth - Streptococci, lactobacilli
Mucous - membranes streptococci and lactic acid bacteria
Pharynx - Streptococci, gram neg rods and cocci

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146
Q

Who is at greater risk of a respiratory tract infection?

A

Problems with swallowing - stroke, MND, tumour, surgery
Altered lung physiology - CF, bronchiectasis, emphysema, ILD (intrinsic), spinal disease, weakness, obesity, surgery (extrinsic)
Colonisation of the upper airways
Immune dysfunction - primary immunodeficiency, complement deficiencies, HIV, immunosuppressant therapy
Comorbidities

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147
Q

How common is pneumonia?

A

Very common (1 in 300)
20-50% hospitalised, 5-10% ITU
Average 6-8 days
Mortality: 1% community, 10% hospital, 30% ITU

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148
Q

Who is at risk of pneumonia?

A
Infants and elderly
COPD and other chronic lung diseases
Immunocompromised
Nursing home residents
Impaired swallow (neurological conditions etc.)
Diabetes
Congestive heart disease
Alcoholics and intravenous drug users
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149
Q

What is the pathology of pneumonia?

A

Bacteria that have arrived quickly or have colonised for a while get micro-aspirated into the lower lung, they translocate to the normally sterile distal airway.
Macrophages see the bacteria and eat up the bacteria in a phagolysosome.
But it can get overwhelmed if there is too much bacteria or the patient is immunosuppressed. In this case, it brings in neutrophils through gaps in the endothelium.
Pus forms due to the excess fluid, antibodies, dead neutrophils.
Pus in the alveolus inhibits gas exchange.
‘Resolution phase’ is when the bacteria are cleared - inflammatory cells are removed by apoptosis. Resolution phase leads to complete recovery.
Severe disease if excessive inflammation, lung injury and/or failure to resolve without lung damage.

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150
Q

What are the symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Fevers, sweats, rigors (generic infection response)
Cough - classically rusty sputum suggests S. pneumoniae, but may be none, particularly with organisms such as Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila and Legionella (atypical pathogens)
Short of breath
Pleuritic chest pain (pain worse on deep breathing) particularly S.pneumoniae
Systemic features including weakness and malaise
Extrapulmonary features such as neurological or gastrointestinal with Legionella sp. Or a rash with mycoplasma

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151
Q

What are the signs of pneumonia?

A
Raised heart rate
Raised respiratory rate
Low blood pressure
Fever
Dehydration
The more present, the more severe the illness.
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152
Q

What are the signs of lung consolidation on percussion and auscultation?

A
Dull to percussion
Decreased air entry
Bronchial breath sounds
Crackles +/- wheeze
Increased vocal resonance
\+/- Hypoxia and signs of respiratory failure especially if chronic lung disease or severe pneumonia
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153
Q

What are the investigative tests for pneumonia?

A

Chest X-ray
Full blood count - WBC aids diagnosis and helpful as a marker of severity
Biochemistry - for urea and electrolytes and liver function tests (renal function required to assess severity, other tests for complications)
C-reactive protein - helps with diagnosis, assessment of severity and recovery
Pulse oximetry - assess severity and if required arterial blood gas define respiratory failure
Microbiological tests

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154
Q

What can a chest x-ray tell you in a patient with pneumonia?

A

Look for ‘air bronchogram’ in consolidated area
Multi-lobar suggestive of S.pneumoniae, S.aureus, Legionella sp.
Multiple abscesses or pneumatoceles of S.aureus
Air fluid level in abscess
Upper lobe cavity K. pneumoniae
Interstitial or diffuse shadowing more suggestive of viral or Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) in HIV or immunocompromised
Pleural collections - require aspiration and management to avoid emphysema
Look for features suggestive of alternative diagnosis - TB, lung cancer

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155
Q

What are some indicators of severity and a significant infection in pneumonia?

A
Pro-inflammatory cytokines
Vasodilation
Impaired cardiac contractility
Reduced blood pressure
Impaired organ perfusion
Tissue hypoxia
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156
Q

What are the warning signs of sepsis in a patient with pneumonia?

A

Signs of delirium/confusion, renal impairment due to the urea rise, increased oxygen demand (high RR, lactic acid production), systolic and diastolic BP drop.

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157
Q

What is CURB65?

A
Signs of pneumonia
Confusion
Urea >7mmol/L
Respiratory rate >30/min
Blood pressure; low systolic <90mmHg or diastolic <60mmHg
Age >65
One point for each. Predicts mortality.
0 = 0.7%
1 = 2.1%
3 = 9.2%
4-5 = 15-40%
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158
Q

What are the indications for the results of CURB65?

A
0-1 = mild, only admit if social circumstances or single worrying feature
2 = moderate, admit to hospital
3-5 = admit and closely monitor
4-5 = consider admission to critical care unit

In the community you can use this score (without the urea result).

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159
Q

What’s the different between broad and narrow spectrum antibiotics?

A

Broad spectrum - will work (for now), but is expensive, may have adverse effects, harder to give, promotes resistance
Narrow - Might miss, more tolerable, saves other choices, cheaper

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160
Q

Give some examples of the type of bacteria that can case pneumonia?

A
S.pneumoniae 40%
Mycoplasma 11%
C.pneumoniae 13%
Legionella sp. 4%
H. influenzae 5%
Viruses 13%
No diagnosis 31%
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161
Q

What are the features of S.pneumoniae and how do you treat the pneumonia caused by it?

A

Gram positive cocci
Alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive
>90 serotypes
Any age but more likely at extremes of age
Can be severely ill with respiratory failure or sepsis
‘Invasive pneumococcal disease’
Antibiotics: B-lactam antibiotic e.g. Amoxicillin, Cefuroxime, Cefotaxime
Alternatives: Macrolides:Clarithromycin, Fluoroquinolones, Ciprofloxacin

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162
Q

What are the features of H.influenzae and how do you treat the pneumonia caused by it?

A
Gram negative coccobacilli
Encapsulated - has vaccine
Unencapsulated ‘non-typable’
Antibiotics: B-lactam antibiotic - Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid ‘co-amoxiclav’
Tetracyclines - doxycycline
NOT macrolides
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163
Q

What are the features of Staph. Aureus and how do you treat the pneumonia caused by it?

A

May complicate recent influenza
Ventilator-associated pneumonia too
Antibiotics: B-lactam antibiotic - Flucloxacillin, Cefuroxime
If resistant (MRSA) - vancomycin, linezolid

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164
Q

What are the features of Klebsiella pneumoniae and how do you treat the pneumonia caused by it?

A
Gram negative bacilli
Enterobacteriaceae
Normal flora of the mouth and intestines
Homeless, alcoholic, hospital-associated
Antibiotics: B-lactam antibiotic - Co-amoxiclav, Cephalosporins
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165
Q

What are some atypical pathogens that can cause pneumonia?

A
Legionella pneumophila
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Chlamydophila psittaci
Coxiella burnetii
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166
Q

Why are the atypical pathogens that cause pneumonia so sneaky?

A

They are intracellular pathogens that are difficult to detect and don’t grow in standard agar. Need different detection methods - need antibody/serology testing.
Don’t respond to B-lactams or penicillins.
Require ‘special’ antibiotics - macrolides (erythromycin/clarithromycin) or fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin) or tetracyclines (doxycycline).

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167
Q

What are the features of Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Epidemics every 4 years
Usually in younger adults, milder illness
May have extrapulmonary features:
Haemolytic anemia (cold agglutinins)
Raynaud’s (cold agglutinins) erythema multiforme
Bullous myringitis (blisters on tympanic membrane)
Encephalitis

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168
Q

What are the features of Legionella spp.?

A
Lives in free living amoeba - like warm water
Clusters of cases related to water cooling towers, showers, air conditioning, travel
Severe illness, respiratory failure
May be elderly, immunocompromised
Extrapulmonary features:
- Diarrhoea
- Abnormal liver function tests
- Hyponatremia
- Myalgia, raised creatinine levels
- Interstitial nephritis
- Encephalitis, confusion
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169
Q

What are the features of Chlamydophila pneumoniae?

A

Like M.pneumoniae but more likely in older groups, more prolonged wheezing
Often older adults, sometimes closed outbreaks, longer duration of symptoms

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170
Q

How do you get Chlamydophila psittaci?

A

Contact with sick birds (parrots), poultry workers

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171
Q

How do you get Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)?

A

Exposure to pregnant animals in labour, especially sheep

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172
Q

What are the microbiology tests for pneumonia?

A

Sputum culture and sensitivity +/- Gram stain
Blood culture (low sensitivity)
Serology (acute and convalescent) - for viruses and atypical organisms
Urinary antigen - Legionella spp. (if history suggests risks or severe) or S.pneumoniae where available
PCR (only in outbreaks or specific patients) - viruses, Mycoplasma pneumonia
Remember to consider acid fast bacilli stain and culture for TB if the epidemiology or clinical features are suggestive.

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173
Q

How do you treat pneumonia with antibiotics?

A

Antimicrobial stewardship: use the narrowest spectrum of antibiotics as possible to reduce antibiotic resistance, side effects e.g. antibiotic-associated diarrhoea

Mild severity pneumonia in community (CRB65 0-1)
Amoxicillin 500mg tid (3x a day) PO
Penicillin allergic? Use Clarithromycin 500mg bd or Doxycycline 200mg load and then 500mg od PO

Moderate severity (CRB65 2)
Amoxicillin plus Clarithromycin PO

Severe (CRB65 3-5)
IV Co-amoxiclav 1.2g tid and Clarithromycin 500mg bd
Alternatives - Cefuroxime 1.5mg and Clarithromycin 500mg bd

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174
Q

How long does a pneumonia patient need to take antibiotics?

A

5 days for mild-moderate, may extend >5 days if severe

14-21 days for S.aureus, gram negative bacteria and Legionella spp.

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175
Q

What are the special cases of pneumonia and how are they treated?

A

Legionella spp - ensure fluoroquinolone in regimen either alone or with clarithromycin
Necrotising pneumonia or other features of Panton-Valentine Leukocidin producing S.aureus infection - IV Linezolid 600mg bd or IV Clindamycin 1.2g qid
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - IV Ceftazidime 3g tid or Piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5g tid. With Gentamicin/Tobramycin or Ciprofloxacin 400mg bd

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176
Q

What is PVL?

A

PVL = Panton-Valentine Leukocidin is a cytotoxin produced by some aggressive strains of S.aureus that cause a fulminant necrotising pneumonia.

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177
Q

What vaccines are available to seek to prevent pneumonia?

A

Polysaccharide Pneumococcal Vaccine (protects against 23 serotypes)
Indications: >65 years, immunocompromised, splenic dysfunction, chronic medical condition: chronic heart, lung, kidney, liver, kidney disease or diabetes
Protects against invasive pneumococcal disease (IPD, bacteraemia, meningitis) but not pneumonia.

Influenza vaccine is given to those who are >65 years old, immunocompromised or have medical comorbidities.
Smoking cessation

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (13 serotypes) in children has reduced pneumonia in children and IPD in adults.

178
Q

What is Parapneumonic effusion and empyema?

A

Parapneumonic effusion in 36-57% of CAP - a cause of failure to settle and source of complications e.g. empyema
Empyema (~1% of CAP) - a collection of pus in the pleural cavity
Failure of fever or markers of inflammation (WBC/CRP) to settle on antibiotics. Pain on deep inspiration.
Signs of pleural collection (stony dull to percussion, reduced air entry)

179
Q

What can thoracocentesis tell us?

A

Parapneumonic effusion requires thoracocentesis (removed with a small needle with ultrasound guidance and sent to the lab) - to identify markers that suggest effusion will fail to resolve - is it just reactive fluid or does it need to be drained?

Markers on thoracocentesis suggesting effusion needs drainage:
pH <7.2
Glucose <3.3 mmol/L
LDH >1,000iu or pH <7
Positive gram stain or culture
Pus or thick fluid
Suggests empyema
180
Q

How would you treat paraneumonic effusions and empyema?

A

Empyema or complicated parapneumonic effusions require drainage by chest tube placement or cardio-thoracic surgery or decortication (e.g. if it is lobulated)
Antimicrobials: Co-amoxiclav, Piperacillin-tazobactam or Meropenem (need to include anaerobic coverage) x <3 weeks

181
Q

What causes a lung abscess?

A

Seen in aspiration, alcoholics and those with poor dentition
Organisms: Streptococcus milleri, anaerobes, klebsiella pneumoniae and other gram neg bacteria
Or can be metastatic infection from the right heart and venous system e.g. IVDU, Lemierre’s
Organisms: S.aureus, fusobacteria
Prolonged antibiotics for up to 6 weeks
May need surgical drainage

182
Q

When and in whom does a hospital acquired pneumonia occur?

A

Acquired at least 48 hours after hospital admission
Elderly
Ventilator-assisted
Post operative

183
Q

What are the diagnostic signs of a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A
New fever
Purulent secretions
New radiological infiltrates
New leukocytosis/CRP increase
Plus increased O2 requirements
184
Q

How would you treat a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

General principle: start broad and then focus treatment after some results
Regimen influenced by:
Time of HAP
Patient factors
Likelihood of exposure to resistant microorganisms

185
Q

What causes early-onset hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Early onset <5 days of hospital visit
Organisms similar to CAP and also anaerobes
Antibiotics for anaerobes: Metronidazole or use a B-lactam with inhibitor of B-lactamase: Co-amoxiclav or Piperacillin-tazobactam

186
Q

What causes late-onset hospital acquired pneumonia?

A
Late onset >5 days
S.aureus including MRSA
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Acinetobacter baumannii
Klebsiella pneumoniae
187
Q

How to treat hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5g qid or Meropenam 1g tid or Ceftazidime 2g tid
May need Linezolid or Vancomycin for MRSA
IV Colistin for multidrug resistant gram negatives (MDR)

188
Q

What causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?

A
Bacterial - all the common cases but may be atypical presentations
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Fungal - Pneumocystis pneumonia (PSP)
Moulds e.g. Aspergillus spp.
Viruses
Cytomegalovirus
Adenovirus
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
189
Q

What causes chronic types of pneumonia?

A

Bacterial - Nocardia spp (immunocompromised), Burkholderia pseudomallei (SE Asia, N Australia), Non-tuberculous mycobacteria
Fungal - Histoplasma capsulatum and other dimorphic fungi (americas and other regions), Moulds e.g. Aspergillus spp (patients with hematological malignancy)
Parasites - Echinococcus granulosus (dog tapeworm)
Non-infectious: malignancy, vasculitis, chronic interstitial pneumonia, drugs, eosinophils, organising pneumonias

190
Q

What is Bronchiolitis?

A

Infections due to Respiratory Syncytial virus - rarely other viruses, accounts for 80%
Inflammation of the bronchioles and mucus production cause airway obstruction

191
Q

What are the different types of emerging respiratory virus infections?

A

SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome)
Outbreak from China in 2002
Severe respiratory illness with respiratory failure

MERS-nCV
Middle east respiratory syndrome novel coronavirus
Individual cases spread from the middle east in 2012
Similar to SARS but low person to person spread

Avian influenza
Novel forms of influenza A virus
Occasional human cases with severe illness
South-east Asia
Associated with exposure to poultry
Low person to person spread to date
192
Q

What is Bronchitis?

A

Self-limiting inflammation of the epithelia of the bronchi due to upper airway infection
Generally results in cough +/- phlegm and breathlessness
Acute bronchitis should be differentiated from chronic bronchitis, a condition in patients with COPD distinguished by a cough for at least 3 months in each of two consecutive years.
Majority are viral
Bacteria are rarely a cause in healthy adults
Unless endotracheal tract or tracheostomy then similar bacteria to community acquired pneumonia.

193
Q

What are that the clinical features of Bronchitis?

A

Cough may be productive or non-productive, lasting more than 5 days (typically 1 to 3 weeks)
SOB and often wheeze, but no signs of focal consolidation
Fever and systemic features of infection unusual and suggest influenza or pneumonia

194
Q

What investigations would you do for Bronchitis?

A

Chest X-ray shows no features of pneumonia
Viral and bacterial throat swabs
Serology for Mycoplasma and Chlamydia

195
Q

What is the treatment for Bronchitis?

A

Usually none especially if viral

Little evidence for antimicrobials being helpful (unless pertussis)

196
Q

What viruses cause upper respiratory tract illness?

A
Rhinoviruses
Influenza A virus - particularly causes systemic symptoms
Coronaviruses
Adenoviruses
Parainfluenza viruses
Respiratory syncytial viruses
197
Q

Are upper respiratory tract illnesses serious?

A

Usually transient
Complications - sinusitis, pharyngitis, otitis media, bronchitis, rarely pneumonia
May lead to a bacterial superinfection

198
Q

What are the treatments for the flu?

A

Tamiflu is a neuraminidase inhibitor which prevents the virus from budding out of the cell it’s been made in.
Reserved for people in an ‘at-risk’ group: chronic respiratory disease (including asthma and COPD), heart disease, kidney disease, liver disease, neurological conditions, diabetes mellitus.
Start treatment within 48 hours (36 hours for Zanamivir in children) of the first symptoms.

199
Q

Is Tamiflu effective?

A

Shortens illness from 7 days to 61/2 days.
No reliable evidence for reducing the risk of being admitted to hospital or developing pneumonia, bronchitis, sinusitis or otitis media.

200
Q

What causes pharyngitis?

A

Viral (70-80%) - rhinovirus, adenovirus etc
Other viral: glandular fever, Epstein Barr virus, acute HIV infection
Bacteria

201
Q

What are the bacterial causes of pharyngitis?

A

GABHS (Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal) - Streptococcus pyogenes
GABHS is important because it can be associated with scarlet fever, PSGN, rheumatic fever - carditis, arthritis, chorea, erythema, marginatum and subcutaneous nodules
Other streptococci
Mycoplasma pneumoniae (3-14%) - like a nasty cold with associated headache/congestion, occurs in epidemics
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and other sexually transmitted diseases
Fusobacterium necrophorum - Lemierre’s disease

202
Q

What are the major features of Asthma?

A

Increased irritability of bronchi causing spasm
Produces paroxysmal attacks
Macroscopically overdistended lungs
Mucus plugs in bronchi
Enlarged bronchial mucous glands with excess secretions

203
Q

What are the clinical categories of Asthma?

A

Extrinsic
Atopic = IgE / Type 1 hypersensitivity
Occupational = Type 3 hypersensitivity
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Intrinsic
Aspirin, cold, infection, stress, exercise, SO2, pollutants etc - induced

204
Q

What are the causes of extrinsic asthma?

A

Enviromental agents like dust, pollens, foods, animal dusts etc.
Family history often present - other atopic disorders (hay fever, eczema)
Exposure produces the effect via cross- linked IgE on mast cells, causing histamine release

205
Q

What are the changes to the lungs that occur in asthma?

A

Bronchial obstruction with distal overinflation or atelectasis
Mucus plugging of bronchi
Bronchial inflammation (mixed)
Seromucinous gland hypertrophy
Bronchial wall smooth muscle hypertrophy
Thickening of bronchial basement membrane

206
Q

What causes intrinsic asthma?

A

Associated with reccurent chest infections
Not immune-mediated
Possibly just unusually hyper-reactive airways

207
Q

What causes occupational asthma?

A

Work-associated inhaled agent
This acts either as non-specific stimulus precipitating asthma in people with hypersensitive airways or capable of inducing airway hyper-reactivity.
Combination of type I and III types of hypersensitivity

208
Q

What is allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Driven by infection in lungs with Aspergillus fumigatus

Induces both immediate type I reaction and delayed immune complex type III hypersensitivity reaction.

209
Q

What is acute localised obstruction of the lungs?

A

Obstruction by tumour or foreign body
Causes distal collapse (atelectasis) or over expansion (valve effect)
Later may be complicated by secretions leading to distal lipid or infective pneumonia
Usually show normal pulmonary function tests

210
Q

What are the 3 forms of chronic obstruction of the lungs?

A

Chronic bronchitis and/or emphysema
Asthma
Bronchiectasis

211
Q

What is chronic obstruction of the lungs?

A

Chronic
Reversible (often variable) and intermittent
Centered on bronchi or bronchioles
‘Obstructive’ pulmonary function tests
Usually many airways involved = diffuse process

212
Q

What are the clinical features of chronic bronchitis?

A

Productive cough (cough and sputum) for 3 months over 2 consecutive years
Mucus hypersecretion with bronchial mucus gland hypertrophy
Respiratory bronchiolitis
Some asthma effects

213
Q

What causes chronic bronchitis?

A

Affects middle aged heavy smokers
Some following pollution chronically
Recurrent low grade bronchial infections

Organisms: Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, viruses (respiratory syncytial virus, adenovirus)

214
Q

What are the features of severe chronic bronchitis?

A

Often starts mild but may progress to severe
Hypercapnia
Hypoxaemia
Cyanosis (so-called ‘blue bloaters’)
coupled with (so-called ‘pink puffers’ = coexisting emphysema)
Produces right heart failure and/or respiratory failure

215
Q

What are the morphological changes in chronic bronchitis?

A

Mucus hypersecretion

Chronic inflammation leading to squamous metaplasia

216
Q

What is Emphysema?

A

Permanent enlargement of alveolar airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles due to destruction of elastin in walls
Frequent association with chronic bronchitis
Predominantly due to cigarette smoking

217
Q

What are the consequences of emphysema?

A

Gas trapping effect from emphysema prevents full exhalation of air, particularly if large air sacs (known as bullae).
This causes:
Pulmonary hypertension
Poor oxygen delivery to tissues

218
Q

What causes Emphysema?

A

Smoking
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Coal dust exposure
Cadmium toxicity

219
Q

What is the pathology of emphysema?

A

Pathogenesis probably revolves around the recruitment of neutrophils in response to free oxygen radicals with release of IL8, LTB4 and TNF.
Destructive enzymes e.g. neutrophil elastase are also released.
All results in tissue damage.

220
Q

What are the clinical features of emphysema?

A

One third of lung capacity is destroyed before symptoms
‘Pure’ emphysema appears with reduced PaCO2 and normal PaO2 at rest due to overventillation (so-called‘pink puffers’)
This leads to:
Weight loss due to metabolic demands
Right heart failure
Overinflated chest
Poor oxygen delivery to tissues

221
Q

What is Bronchiectasis?

A

This is the permanent dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles due to obstruction and/or severe inflammation.

222
Q

What are the symptoms of Bronchiesctasis?

A

Usually the lower lobes are affected
Leads to pooling of secretions with further infection

Symptoms: chronic cough with expectoration of large quantities of foul- smelling sputum, flecked with blood sometimes.

223
Q

How does the morphology of the lung change in Bronchiesctasis?

A

Dilation of bronchi and bronchioles
Inflammation during acute exacerbations
Inflammation and fibrosis extend into adjacent lung tissue

224
Q

What are the complications of Bronchiesctasis?

A

Pneumonia, recurrent
Fungal colonization…asthma
Emphysema
Septicaemia
Meningitis
Metastatic abscesses (sepsis via blood stream to brain, heart)
Amyloid formation (chronic effect)
Further necrosis and destruction of lung tissue leading to pulmonary fibrosis
Cor pulmonale (long term cardiovascular failure due to lung disease)

225
Q

What are Interstitial lung diseases?

A

Increased amount of lung tissue
Increased stiffness and decreased compliance Restrictive lung defect of the pulmonary function
Reduced Tco, VC, FEV1
Relatively normal FEV1/FVC ratio and PEFR

226
Q

What are the features of interstitial lung diseases?

A

Alveolar-capillary wall is the site of the lesion
Acute or chronic clinical picture
Numerous different causes giving similar but all have the ultimate pathology - non-compliant lung with loss alveolar surface
Many diseases show their own characteristics allowing the specific aetiology to be identified
Treatment often very limited effect because you cannot reverse the fibrosis.

227
Q

What are the causes of Adult respiratory distress syndrome?

A
Drug and toxin reactions
Gastric aspiration
Radiation pneumonitis
Diffuse intrapulmonary haemorrhage
Shock
Trauma, direct pulmonary or multisystem  trauma
Infections (often severe viral or bacterial)
Gas inhalation (NO2, SO2, smoke, Cl2)
Narcotic abuse
228
Q

What is Adult respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Diffuse alveolar damage with hyaline membranes formed
Many different clinical conditions all associated with severe injury to alveolar –capillary walls
Fatal in many cases
Causes acute respiratory distress with tachypnoea, dyspnoea, pulmonary oedema and arterial hypoxaemia refractory to O2 therapy

229
Q

What is the pathology of Adult respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Massive insult to the alveoli & capillaries
May be related to O2 toxicity (free radicals)
Polymorphs releasing enzymes and activating complement

230
Q

How can drugs and toxins cause damage to the lungs?

A

Cytotoxic drugs (Busulphan, bleomycin) lead to low grade alveolitis with healing interstitial fibrosis. Seen in novel immunotherapy for cancers

Paraquat (potent herbicide) acts by release of hydrogen peroxide and the superoxide free radical. It remains in high concentrations in the lungs after ingestion.

231
Q

How can radiation cause pneumonitis?

A

Depends on the dose given, the lung volume irradiated and the length of treatment

Changes vary from DAD (ARDS) to progressive pulmonary fibrosis

232
Q

What are the types of Chronic interstitial diseases?

A

Many types:
Fibrosing alveolitis (aka CFA, UIP) Pneumoconioses
Sarcoidosis
Diffuse malignancies
Rheumatoid diseases
Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)

233
Q

What is Fibrosing Alveolitis?

A

AKA Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pathologically defined as Usual Interstitial Pneumonia
Unknown cause, likely autoimmune
Abnormally large irregular spaces separated by thick fibrous septa (honeycomb lung) with inspissated secretions
The subpleural regions are predominantly affected Histology shows patchy zones of inflammation and
fibroplasia within normal lung
Finger and toe clubbing Results in an end-stage fibrosis (honeycomb lung) as end point
May progress to Cor pulmonale

234
Q

What is Pneumoconiosis?

A

Lung disease caused by inhaled dust
Organic or inorganic dust (mineral)
Reaction varies: inert, fibrous, allergic or neoplastic
Co-existing disease may aggravate the lung debility

235
Q

What are the different reaction types in Pneumoconiosis?

A

The lung exposed to dust can respond in different ways:
Minimal reaction: coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
Fibrosis: progressive massive fibrosis, asbestosis and silicosis
Allergic: extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Neoplastic: mesothelioma, lung cancer

236
Q

What is Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis?

A

Coal dust inspired is ingested by alveolar macrophages (dust cells)
They aggregate around bronchioles
The consequences vary from trivial to lethal

237
Q

What are the different types of Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis?

A

Anthracosis: the presence of coal dust pigment in the lung, with no reaction or fibrosis
Macular CWP: small aggregates of dust laden macrophages with no significant scarring
Nodular CWP : fibrotic nodules (>10mm) in a background of extensive macular CWP, with no significant diffuse scarring

238
Q

What might Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis progress to?

A

Progressive massive fibrosis (PMF) which is where fusion of nodules creates a large zone of dense scarred and black lung
Emphysema - same as for smoking
May rarely progress to lung fibrosis
Caplan’s syndrome is Rheumatoid Arthritis nodularity in association with CWP)

239
Q

What is Silicosis?

A

Silicates are inorganic minerals abundant in stone and sand
The crystals (generally) 2µm fibres are toxic to macrophages, leading to their death with release of proteolytic enzymes.
The causes local lung tissue destruction and fibrosis Nodules are formed after many years of exposure
Progressing slowly towards diffuse interstitial
fibrosis
(There is a raised incidence of TB in silicotic cases)

240
Q

What is Asbestos disease?

A

Asbestos is an inconsumable silicate
Used for its fire resistance for centuries, commonly causing benign pleural plaques (non-pathological)
The non-neoplastic diseases include diffuse pulmonary fibrosis (asbestosis).
Less common effects are diffuse pleural fibrosis and persistent pleural effusion.

241
Q

What is Extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

AKA Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Type 3 hypersensitivity causing bronchiolitis
Later leads to chronic inflammation and granulomas These may resolve or lead to progressive
fibrosis
Classic types = Bird fancier’s lung or Farmer’s lung

242
Q

How is Rheumatoid disease linked to lung disease?

A

Many patients with connective tissue disorders have lung involvement.
The lungs may show diffuse fibrosis, rheumatoid nodules and if coal worker’s pneumoconiosis present they may feature Caplan’s nodules.
The pleura often shows fibrosis and lymphocytic aggregates.

243
Q

What is Diffuse malignancy?

A

These are neoplastic conditions that can look like diffuse non-neoplastic lung fibrosis on radiology.

  • Lymphangitis (carcinomatosa) is a process with diffuse permeation of the lung by malignant cells.
  • Lepidic carcinoma, is a lung cancer that spreads along lung alveolar surfaces with some fibrosis
244
Q

How common is lung cancer?

A

Common neoplasm affecting humans
Male : Female = 2 : 1 ratio
One third of all cancer deaths
Despite improvements in therapy there is still a poor survival rate over five years in UK

245
Q

What are the causes of lung cancer?

A

Cigarettes (MOSTLY)
Passive smoking
Occupational risk factors – asbestos, radon, nickel, chromate, arsenic, uranium….
Lung fibrosis

246
Q

What are the symptoms of lung cancer?

A
Cough
Recurrent chest infections
Haemoptysis
Increasing shortness of breath
Extra-pulmonary changes (directly/ indirectly due to the cancer)
General malaise
Weight loss
247
Q

What are some of the paraneoplastic changes caused by lung cancer?

A

Secretion of PTH
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Secretion of ACTH and other hormones
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteo-arthropathy (HPOA)
Myasthenic syndrome (Eaton Lambert)
Finger Clubbing
Migratory thrombophlebitis
Non-infective endocarditis (Libman Sacks)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

248
Q

What are the different types of lung cancers?

A
Primary lung carcinomas (most common)
Bronchial gland neoplasia
Pleural neoplasia
Soft tissue sarcoma/benign tumours
Lymphomas
Hamartomas
Thoracic neoplasia - Majority are carcinomas (90%)
Metastatic carcinoma is more common than primary lung carcinoma
249
Q

What are the different types of primary lung carcinomas?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (25%)
Adenocarcinoma (35%)
Large (non small) cell undifferentiated carcinoma (10%)
Small cell lung carcinoma (20%)
Carcinoid tumours and neuroendocrine tumours (5-10%)

250
Q

How are lung cancers classified?

A

Divided broadly into small cell lung carcinoma and non-small cell lung carcinoma.
Can also be classified based on hisotology, presentation, prognosis and response to chemo/radiotherapy.

251
Q

What is a small cell lung carcinoma?

A

A high grade epithelial neoplasm with strong cigarette smoking association.
Has usually spread beyond chest by presentation
Chemotherapy is primary/ standard treatment

252
Q

What is non-small cell lung carcinoma?

A

A variable grade/type epithelial neoplasm with a cigarette smoking association.
May have metastasised by presentation/diagnosis
Chemotherapy may be offered, along with new gene-based chemotherapy but surgery and radiotherapy may be mainstay of treatment.

253
Q

What do the new treatments for non-small cell lung carcinomas target?

A
New drugs currently being tested for tumour  therapy by means of tissue sections
EGFR
ALK1
ROS1
PDL1
254
Q

What is a Carcinoid?

A

A slow-growing type of neuroendocrine tumor originating in the cells of the neuroendocrine system. In some cases, metastasis may occur. Carcinoid tumors of the midgut (jejunum, ileum, appendix, and cecum) are associated with carcinoid syndrome.

255
Q

What is the TNM classification?

A
T = 1-4 worse for bigger tumours
N = 0, 1, 2 worse for those with metastases
M = 0 or 1 (a/b/c) if metastasis
256
Q

How is metastasis classified in lung tumours?

A

[M0] Absent
[M1a] Contralateral lung pleural or pericardial effusion/nodule
[M1b] Distant spread outside chest
[MX] not known

257
Q

Give some examples of some rare tumours that can occur in the lung?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

Hodgkin lymphoma

258
Q

Give some examples of some benign tumours that occur in the lung?

A

TB and other infections
Lymph nodes
Benign neoplasia » Hamartoma
Hamartoma is a mostly benign, local malformation of cells that resembles a neoplasm of local tissue but is usually due to an overgrowth of multiple aberrant cells, with a basis in a systemic genetic condition, rather than a growth descended from a single mutated cell.

259
Q

What are the different types of Pleural neoplasia?

A

There are two main primary tumours affecting the pleura, as well as metastatic disease.
Pleural fibroma - mostly benign, small amount are malignant. Localized fibrous tumors of the pleura or benign mesothelioma, are rare tumors that arise from the pleura. Although, most patients are asymptomatic, they can develop symptoms like cough or chest pain, especially if the tumor is large.
Malignant mesothelioma - a cancer of the thin tissue (mesothelium) that lines the lung, chest wall, and abdomen. The major risk factor for mesothelioma is asbestos exposure. High grade pleural malignancy.

260
Q

What is the prognosis of malignant mesothelioma?

A

Average duration diagnosis to death for mesothelioma
8-12 months
Limited benefit of surgery, chemotherapy, radiotherapy

261
Q

How are precision medicines being used to treat respiratory conditions?

A
Precision medicines (part of personalised medicine) - highly targeted medicines specified to a particular genotype of a particular person.
Recent introduction of drugs for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - nintedanib and pirfenidone, which used to be very difficult to treat.
Monoclonal antibodies for asthma - mepolizumab and reslizumab (very expensive)
262
Q

What do the endings of respiratory pharmacology drugs tell us about the type of drug it is?

A
Ends in -ab: monoclonal antibodies
Ends in -sone: corticosteroid
Ends in -tersol: bronchodilators
Ends in -lone: corticosteroid
Ends in -nib: kinase inhibitor
263
Q

What are the two major regions of the lung?

A

The human respiratory system is a complex organ system and the lung is composed of more than 40 different cells.
The system is mainly composed of two vital regions:
The conducting airways
The respiratory region
The respiratory region consists of respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs.

264
Q

What are the major lung diseases?

A
Pneumonia (alveoli fill with thick fluid making gas exchange difficult)
Pulmonary fibrosis (fibrosis connective tissue builds up in lungs reducing their elasticity)
Pulmonary tuberculosis (tubercles encapsulate bacteria and elasticity of the lung is reduced)
Emphysema (alveoli burst and fuse into enlarged air spaces, surface area for gas exchange is reduced)
Asthma (airways are inflamed due to irritation and bronchioles constrict due to muscle spasm)
Bronchitis (airways are inflamed due to infection (acute) or an irritant (chronic), coughing brings up more mucus and pus)
265
Q

What are the components of respiratory disease that respiratory drugs seek to target?

A
Fibrosis
Inflammation
Infection
Cough
Allergy
Bronchiectasis
Bronchoconstriction
Malignancy
These components overlap in different lung diseases.
266
Q

What are inhaled pharmacologics?

A

Inhaled medicines are delivered directly to the lungs via the oral or nasal route.
Inhaler devices allow drugs to penetrate deep into the lung and achieve the correct dose e.g. inhaler dry powder formulation (most common device)
Nebulisers deliver medication in the form of aerosols

267
Q

How do the regions of the lungs differ in the way the transport drugs?

A

The transepithelial transport of drugs along the respiratory epithelium from the conducting airways and the respiratory region is significantly different.
Conducting airways: smaller surface area and lower regional blood flow
Higher filtering capacity (mucus, cilia) - removes up to 90% of delivered drug particles.
Respiratory region: accounts for more than 95% of the lung’s surface area and is directly connected to the systemic circulation via the pulmonary circulation.

268
Q

What are the principles of inhaled medicines?

A

Rapid absorption: small hydrophobic molecules are thought to be rapidly absorbed (within seconds) throughout the lungs by passive diffusion through the epithelial cell plasma membrane
Consider particle size: aerosol clouds with optimal properties should contain particles that are neither too small (these risk exhalation), nor too large (these deposit primarily in the upper airways, mouth and throat)
Route of administration is important:
Intranasal administration has anatomical limitation (narrower airway lumen)
Oral inhalation administration far better as it allows administration of very small particles
Inhalation technique is important - if patients inhale too forcefully from an inhaler, particle deposition in the upper airways, mouth and throat is dominant and lung deposition falls.
Lots of it ends up in the gut

269
Q

What are the different delivery systems for inhaled drugs?

A

Pressurised metered-dose inhalers (PMDIs) - the device is activated by the user pressing down on the top of the container, resulting in the release of a fine spray containing propellent and drug.
Spacer devices - slow down the particles of the drug and allow more time for evaporation of the propellant so that more of the drug can be inhaled.
Dry powder inhalers (DIPs) - DPIs do not have a propellant, instead, on activation the device releases a small amount of drug in powder form which is then inhaled (this requires the person to have sufficient inspiratory effort to breathe in the powder.
Nebulizers - Nebulizers work by dispersing a liquid into a fine mist which can be inhaled through a mask or mouthpiece. Their main advantage is that no coordination is required by the user and high doses of drugs can be delivered to the airways.

270
Q

How long are drugs retained for in the lung?

A

Drugs can be absorbed and cleared from the blood so quickly that their local efficacy in the lung/circulation is short
Ideal to have a drug that is inhaled only once or twice a day. Absorption of therapeutic agents from the lungs can be prolonged by a variety of mechanisms.

271
Q

What factors should you consider when choosing a drug for respiratory pharmacology?

A

Solubility of the drug - presently some of the least-soluble drugs administered by inhalation are inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) for asthma, such as beclomethasone dipropionate (BDP) and fluticasone propionate (FP).
Charge and tissue retention - (lung tissue binding) this can present absorption and increase half life.
Encapsulation - allows controlled release by use of excipients (molecules that modify properties of medicines e.g. improves its solubility and dispersion, masks taste etc)

272
Q

What are the advantages of inhaled drugs?

A

Lungs are robust and are able to safely handle repeated exposure to therapeutics
Inhaled medicines can act directly on the lung or enter the systemic circulation (fastest systemic uptake route other than IV)
Very rapid absorption
Lungs are naturally permeable to peptides (via epithelial cells)
Large surface area (alveolar space is about 75m2)
Fewer drug metabolising enzymes in the lung than in the blood/liver
Non-invasive port of entry into the systemic circulation
Potentially fewer side-effects

273
Q

What happens in bronchoconstriction?

A

Constriction of the airways due to tightening of the airway smooth muscle (ASM), luminal occlusion by mucus and plasma and airway wall thickening.
Leads to airway flow obstruction.
Most commonly seen in asthma and COPD.
Can be reversible or non-reversible.
In asthma, ASM is primed to contract and resistant to relaxation.

274
Q

What are the different types of bronchodilators?

A

Divided into two main categories:
Adrenergic (sympathetic) - bronchodilation
Anticholinergic (parasympathetic) - block bronchoconstriction

275
Q

What are B2 adrenergic agonists?

A

B2 adrenergic agonists act on B2-adrenoreceptors to cause smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation. Also inhibit histamine release from lung mast cells.

276
Q

What are the different types of B2 adrenergic agonists?

A
  • Short-acting B2-adrenoceptor agonists (SABA) e.g. Salbutamol
  • Long-acting B2-adrenoceptor agonists (LABA) e.g. Formoterol and Salmeterol
  • Ultra LABAs - allow for once daily dosing e.g. Indacaterol, Oldodaterol
  • Inhaled medicines either aerosolized or as dry powder.
    LABAs are often combined with inhaled corticosteroids for the treatment of asthma and with an inhaled long-acting antimuscarinic agent (LAMA) for treating COPD patients.
277
Q

What are anticholinergics?

A

Acetylcholine contracts ASM by activating muscarinic receptors on smooth muscle cells.
Antagonists (anticholinergics) block ACh binding to muscarinic receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction.

Anticholinergic compounds block muscarinic receptors (M1-M5) on airway smooth muscle, glands and nerves to prevent muscle contraction, gland secretion and enhance neurotransmitter release.

278
Q

Give some examples of anticholinergics?

A

Atropine is a naturally occuring anticholinergic found in deadly nightshade. Atropine reverses bronchoconstriction caused by parasympathetic nerve stimulation.
Ipratropium bromide and tiotropium bromide are newer synthetic derivatives of atropine with fewer side effects.
Anticholinergic drugs are often used in combination with anti-inflammatory steroids in the treatment of asthma and COPD.

279
Q

Why does inflammation cause problems in lung disease?

A

Inflammation is central to a number of lung diseases.
Inflammatory cells such as neutrophils and eosinophils inappropriately persist in the airway and lead to direct tissue damage and perpetuation of inflammation.
Chronic vs acute exacerbation - has different treatment approaches.

280
Q

How does inflammation cause problems in lung disease?

A

Within the alveolar space, there is an epithelium lining and macrophages present in the middle.
Upon infection, allergy or inhalation of noxious particles macrophages and epithelial cells send signals in the blood to cause chemotaxis, bringing more monocytes, more neutrophils, eosinophils and even mast cells from the blood and into the alveolar space.
Mast cells release histamine, neutrophils release reactive oxygen intermediates and proteases.
This causes physical damage and increased inflammatory signals from the epithelial cells.

281
Q

What are glucocorticoids and how do they help?

A

Glucocorticoids (aka corticosteroids) suppress inflammation via several mechanisms.
Most effective in anti-inflammatory asthma.
Inhaled corticosteroids:
- Improve quality of life of patients with asthma
- Improve lung function
- Reduce frequency of exacerbations
- Can prevent irreversible airway changes
Relatively ineffective in COPD, CF, IPF.
Severe asthmatics can become resistant.

282
Q

Which inhaled corticosteroids are used commonly in the UK?

A
Beclomethasone dipropionate (PMDI and DPI)
Budesonide (PMDI, DPI and single dose units for nebulisation)
Ciclesonide (PMDI)
Fluticasone propionate (DPI, PMDI and single dose units for nebulisation)
Mometasone furoate (DPI)
283
Q

How do ICS reduce inflammation?

A

At a cellular level glucocorticoids reduce the numbers of inflammatory cells in the airways.
Suppress the production of chemotaxic mediators
Reduce adhesion molecule expression
Inhibit inflammatory cell survival in the airway
ICS suppress inflammatory gene expression in airway epithelial cells - anti-inflammatory genes being turned on (IκBα the inhibitor of NF-κB transcription).

284
Q

What are the side effects of ICS?

A

Titrating to lowest effective dose reduces side effects
High dose ICS are often used in COPD. This overuse of glucocorticoids is likely to produce several long-term side effects including:
- Loss of bone density
- Adrenal suppression
- Cataracts, glaucoma

285
Q

What is Corticosteroid resistance?

A

Common in COPD, less common in Asthma.

Asthma: approximately 10% of patients require maximal dose and 1% require regular oral corticosteroids. Small numbers are completely unresponsive to ICS.
Resistance is usually linked to non-eosinophilic asthma (typically neutrophilic).

COPD: most patients are resistant to ICS. Responsive patients are thought to have concomitant asthma which may explain the element of sensitivity to ICS.

286
Q

Why might patients become resistant to corticosteroids?

A

Possible genetic causes - could this allow us to predict which patients will be resistant?
Poor GR binding and nuclear translocation
Reduced downstream cellular signalling following corticosteroid:GR binding

287
Q

Why are B2 agonists and ICS used together?

A

Inhaled B2 agonists and glucocorticoids are frequently used together (usually as a fixed combined inhaler containing a glucocorticoid with a LABA) in the control of asthma.
Important molecular interaction between these two classes of drug.
Glucocorticoids increase the transcription of the B2-receptor gene, resulting in increased expression of cell surface receptors.
LABA increases the translocation of GR from the cytoplasm to the nucleus after activation by glucocorticoids.

288
Q

How do new monoclonal antibody therapies target inflammation in asthma?

A

Inflammation in asthma is largely driven by eosinophils and lymphocytes.
Latest mAbs target IL-5 driven inflammation by rendering IL-5 inactive.

289
Q

What is Bronchiectasis?

A

Obstructive lung disease
Abnormal dilation of the bronchi - excessive sputum production, chest pain
Permits infection
Associated with cystic fibrosis
Non-CF bronchiectasis is common (mainly associated with chronic infection) but less well understood.
Some overlap with COPD and asthma.
Influx of inflammatory cells into the wall of the airways.
Pathophysiology of the bronchiectasis is thought to be due to excessive and persistent inflammation in the lung.

290
Q

How would you treat Bronchiectasis?

A

Very challenging
Antibiotics treat infective elements of bronchiectasis
Physical therapy clears airways
Surgery and transplantation for severe disease

291
Q

What treatment would you use to treat the symptoms of Bronchiectasis?

A

Strategies used to treat symptoms rather than the underlying cause of disease
Mucolytics treat hypersecretion
B2 agonists are most useful in COPD/asthma/bronchiectasis overlap syndromes
Anticholinergics have limited effect
ICS have limited effect

292
Q

What is fibrosis?

A

Excessive fibrous connective tissue that leads to permanent scarring, airway wall thickening and breathing difficulties.
A common end-stage of a number of heterogeneous conditions.
Hallmark of the interstitial lung diseases.

293
Q

What is the interstitium of the lung?

A

The interstitium of the lung is a lace-like network of tissue that extends throughout the lungs and provides support to the air sacs (alveoli).
Tiny blood vessels traverse the interstitium and facilitate gas exchange between the blood and the air.

294
Q

What are interstitial lung diseases?

A

Interstitial lung disease is a category of disorders that includes many different conditions, all of which affect the interstitium in various ways, including with increased inflammation, oedema and/or fibrosis.
These disorders - which include idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, other interstitial pneumonia and hypersensitivity pneumonitis - generally cause thickening of the interstitium and impair gas exchange.
The conditions generally present with cough and/or breathlessness on exertion.
Some interstitial lung diseases are acute, whereas others are chronic, progressive and irreversible.

295
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Progressive and irreversible
For many years IPF was considered a principally inflammatory disease due to increases in inflammatory cells in the lungs.
However, a growing body of evidence indicates that IPF is an epithelial-driven disease whereby an aberrantly activated lung epithelium produces mediators of fibroblast migration, proliferation and differentiation into active myofibroblasts.
These myofibroblasts secrete exaggerated amounts of extracellular matrix that subsequently remodel the lung architecture.

296
Q

How would you treat idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Treatment options are limited (particularly for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis) and transplantation is the best option for severe cases.
Some forms of fibrosis respond to corticosteroids.
Until recently the treatment strategy was amelioration of symptoms/preserving lung function - pirfenidone and nintedanib are new drugs that significantly slow the rate of disease progression in IPF.

297
Q

What is Pirfenidone?

A

A new and commonly used antifibrotic in IPF
Has antifibrotic, anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties but we don’t yet know the cellular target.
Reduces:
- Fibroblast proliferation
- Collagen production
- Production of fibrogenic mediators
Orally administered

298
Q

What is Nintedanib?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Inhibits VEGFR (vascular endothelial growth factor receptor) and other growth factor receptors which are some of the drivers of the fibrotic process.
Orally administered.

299
Q

What is respiratory failure?

A

Inability of the lungs to adequately oxygenated arterial blood supply (type 1) and/or eliminate CO2 from venous supply (type 2).
Type 1: PaO2 <8 kPa (low or normal PaCO2) - lung failure
Type 2: PaCO2 >6.0kPa - pump failure

300
Q

What causes respiratory drive?

A

Hypercapnia stimulates you to start breathing, to clear the excess CO2.

301
Q

How is breathing regulated?

A

NEURAL CONTROLS
Cerebral cortex - conscious control of breathing
Medulla oblongata - breathing centre
CHEMICAL CONTROLS
Medulla oblongata - chemoreceptors respond to rising blood level of carbon dioxide (increased acidity H) and lowered blood level of oxygen
Carotid bodies - chemoreceptors respond to rising blood level of carbon dioxide and low blood level of oxygen
Aortic bodies - chemoreceptors respond to rising blood level of carbon dioxide and low blood level of oxygen

302
Q

What causes respiratory failure?

A

Reduced FiO2 (concentration of oxygen that a person inhales)
Ventilation/Perfusion mismatch (most commonly)
Increased shunt
Diffusion impairment - difficult for oxygen to transfuse across the lung parenchyma
Alveolar hypoventilation
First 4 tend to cause Type 1, alveolar hypoventilation can cause Type 1 or Type 2.

303
Q

What is a V/Q mismatch?

A

Commonest cause of hypoxaemia
Imbalance between ventilation (airflow, V) and perfusion (blood flow, Q)
Normal V/Q = 0.8 L/min
Types of V/Q mismatch
Ventilation of under-perfused alveoli (dead space)
Perfusion of under-ventilated alveoli (shunt)

304
Q

What causes diffusion impairment?

A

Diffusion impairment occurs in emphysema, interstitial lung disease and pulmonary oedema.

305
Q

What are the signs of type 1 respiratory failure?

A
Cyanosis
Increased respiratory rate (tachypnoea)
Accessory muscle use
Tachycardia
Signs of underlying disease
Confusion
306
Q

What is Alveolar hyperventilation?

A

Usually in the alveoli, the CO2-rich blood flows in, and the CO2 diffuses into the alveoli to be breathed out. The O2 from the O2 rich air diffuses into the blood and it flows to the rest of the body.
But if there is a blockage in the alveoli, the CO2 cannot escape and eventually diffuses back into the blood and CO2 rises in the arterial system.

307
Q

When does alveolar hyperventilation occur?

A
Airway obstruction (COPD, asthma)
Airway secretions (CF, bronchiectasis)
Obesity hypoventilation/obstructive sleep apnea
Neuromuscular disorders (GBS, drug overdose)
Central sleep apnea
308
Q

What is Obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Usually seen in overweight/obese patients
Relaxation of the pharynx during sleep
Occlusion causes stimulation and wakening

309
Q

What are the signs of type 2 respiratory failure (hypercapnia)?

A
Bounding pulse
Flapping tremor
Confusion
Drowsiness
Reduced consciousness
310
Q

How would you treat type 1 respiratory failure?

A

Oxygen - aim for 94-98%
Treat underlying cause e.g. bronchodilators to treat asthma, antibiotics to treat infections
If unable to maintain adequate oxygen, use CPAP

311
Q

What is CPAP?

A

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is a form of positive airway pressure ventilator, which applies mild air pressure on a continuous basis. It keeps the airways continuously open in people who are able to breathe spontaneously on their own, but need help keeping their airway unobstructed.

  • Improves oxygenation by improving ventilation and improving VQ ratio
  • Prevents airway collapse
  • Decreases work of breathing
312
Q

What are the different delivery methods for oxygen?

A
Nasal cannulae (up to 4L/min)
Simple face mask (can’t tell how much the patient is actually inspiring)
Venturi mask - change the attachment based on how much oxygen you want to deliver
Non-rebreathe mask - can deliver up to 80% FiO2
313
Q

How would you treat type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Oxygen (cautious) - aim for 88-92%
Treat underlying cause, usually 1 hour of ‘medical treatment’ e,g, bronchodilators, nebulisers, antibiotics, steroids (take longer than an hour)
Check ABGs before and after medical treatment
If unable to maintain adequate oxygenation/removal of CO2, treat with non-invasive ventilation (NIV)

314
Q

What is NIV?

A

Non-invasive ventilation
Termed “non-invasive” because it is delivered with a mask that is tightly fitted to the face, but without a need for tracheal intubation (a tube through the mouth into the windpipe).
Bi-phasic positive airways pressure (i.e. two levels) - The airflow is strongest when you breathe in, to help you take in as much air as possible. Airflow pressure is lower when you breathe out - IPAP and EPAP (inspiratory and expiratory)
Aids alveolar ventilation
Increases alveolar PO2
Decreases alveolar PCO2

315
Q

What are the BTS oxygen guidlines?

A

Recommended target saturation for acutely ill patients 94-98%
For patients with known COPD or risk factors for hypercapnic respiratory failure, target 88-92%
Most breathless patients who are not hypoxaemic do not benefit from O2 but reduction of >3% should prompt assessment
Hypoxaemic patients should generally maintain an upright posture

316
Q

What is the normal pH, paO2 and paCO2 on an ABG?

A

pH: 7.35–7.45
PaO2 80–100mmHg
PaCO2 35–45 mmHg

317
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

Disease predominantly of the chest, that causes a prolonged cough, often with blood in the sputum.
Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
It is treatable and curable but diagnosis is difficult.

318
Q

Why is TB very common in poor countries?

A

Disease of poverty, industrialization, population increase and overcrowding. Malnourishment makes people more susceptible to the disease.

319
Q

How would you test for TB?

A

Sputum sample.
The detection rate of TB in one sputum sample is not brilliant so better to have 3 samples over a day or so - increases sensitivity.
Looking for pink acid fast bacilli.

320
Q

What are the features of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

High lipid content with mycolic acids in the cell wall makes Mycobacterium resistant to Gram stain.
Slightly curved, beaded bacilli.
Ziehl-Neelsen stain for acid fast bacilli
- Carbol fuchsin
- Acid alcohol (AFB are resistant to de-staining)
- Methylene blue
Need 10,000 AFB per ml sputum to visualise
Fluorochrome stains e.g. auramine phenol aid screening at lower power objective.

321
Q

What are the risk factors for TB?

A
Born in a high prevalence area - certain cities based on immigration rates
Intravenous Drug User (IVDU)
Homeless
Alcoholic
Prisons
HIV+
322
Q

How do you catch TB?

A

Spread in aerosol from infected individual’s lung to another lung via spitting or sneezing on plates or hands.
Aerosol droplets of about 5 microns contain a few bacilli and lodge in alveolae or small airways.
Unlikely to catch TB from someone on the street or on the bus. Tends to cluster in households.

You can also catch bovine TB by drinking the milk of an infected cow.

323
Q

How likely is it that household contacts will contract TB?

A

If smear (from testing sputum) from an infected person is positive for TB, then 27-50% of household contacts will become infected. If smear is negative, this is <5% (much less infectious).

324
Q

How can TB patients be asymptomatic?

A

Majority of people mount an effective immune response that encapsulates and contains the organism forever. >95% do not have any disease.
Bacteria reaches the lung and settles in the lung apex (more air and less blood supply/immune cells).
Macrophages and lymphocytes seal in and contain the majority of infecting bacilli.

325
Q

What is the pathology of TB?

A

Some TB bacteria is better adapted to survive in the phagolysosome. So the macrophages may control the TB but won’t be able to kill all of it.
The macrophages will recruit cell-mediated immune cells to form a granuloma to contain the bacteria, and here the story often ends.
However, sometimes this process is not enough to contain it. 2-5% develop clinically evident primary pulmonary disease.
Bacilli and macrophages coalesce to form a granuloma, this is called the Primary (Ghon) focus.
Inflammation, damage and pus in the lung (but this process is much slower than it is in pneumonia).
The granuloma slowly enlarges to keep up and the middle becomes necrotic.
As it enlarges like this it becomes a cavity.

326
Q

How does TB infection spread from the lungs?

A

The bacilli are then taken up into lymphatics via the hilar lymph nodes and the lymph nodes get larger as they react with an immune response.
Primary focus with the mediastinal lymph nodes = Ghon complex
(can be seen on a chest X-ray - primary complex)
The cavity can invade and communicate with one of the major airways, which means that as it is irritated the TB bacilli are expelled from the lungs through coughing.

327
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of TB?

A
Weight loss*
Low grade fever
Anorexia
Night sweats*
Malaise
*Most predictive of TB
328
Q

What are the pulmonary features of TB?

A

Cough >3/52 (most other causes resolve by then)
Chest pain
Breathlessness
Haemoptysis

May also be associated with:
Consolidation
Collapse of the lung
Pleural effusion
Pericardial effusion
Depending on the site of granuloma/lymph node and subsequent rupture.
329
Q

How can TB cause a pleural effusion?

A

If the cavity is near the lining of the lung (rather than a major airway) then the infection can then spill out into the pleural cavity which can cause a pleural effusion.

330
Q

How can TB causes a pericardial effusion?

A

Erosion into bronchus inhalation and areas of tuberculous bronchopneumonia.
If there is erosion from the lymph node into the pericardium, you can get a pericardial effusion.

331
Q

How can TB cause lung collapse?

A

If there is blockage of an airway, then any area of lung distal to that part may collapse.

332
Q

How can TB cause non-pulmonary disease?

A

If it is not contained within the lung, there is haematogenous dissemination which often leads to serious non-pulmonary disease. This may happen after primary infection or after reactivation.
TB meningitis, miliary TB, pleural TB, bone and joint TB, genito-urinary TB.

333
Q

What is latent TB?

A
First exposure (primary infection)
Within 2 years, may develop primary or progressive primary disease.
But if they do not and the bacteria are still present, they are said to have latent TB.
Latent TB in 90% of people will not do anything.
But in 10% the TB will reactivate and they will have post primary disease and this will occur wherever the dormant bacilli happen to be hiding, usually the lung.
It is also possible to be re-infected at some point later in life, and the same processes can occur.
334
Q

What are the extrapulmonary signs of TB?

A

Lymph node TB - swelling +/- discharge
Miliary TB
Bone TB - pain or swelling of joint, Potts disease with spinal cord lesion
Abdominal TB - ascites, abdominal lymph nodes, ileal malabsorption
Genito-urinary TB - epididymitis, frequency, dysuria and haematuria
CNS TB - meningitis and CN palsy, tuberculoma

335
Q

What is TB osteomyelitis?

A

Occurs secondary to lymphohematogenous spread of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from a pulmonary focus. Clinical symptoms are very nonspecific and can include insidious onset of pain, swelling, decreased range of motion and difficulty ambulating.

336
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

Pott disease is tuberculosis of the spine, usually due to haematogenous spread from other sites, often the lungs. The lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae are the areas of the spine most often affected. It causes a kind of tuberculous arthritis of the intervertebral joints.

337
Q

How would you diagnose active TB?

A

Non-specific - signs and symptoms of catabolism caused by the prolonged inflammatory response
Suggestive - changes in the cellular makeup seen in histopathology, visualisation of caseating granuloma on ZN stain
Definitive - microbiology and microscopy AFB, PCR, culture

338
Q

What are some of the non-specific signs that could be related to TB?

A
Normochromic normocytic anaemia
Thrombocytosis
Raised ESR/CRP
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypergammaglobulinemia
Hypercalcaemia
Sterile pyuria (white cells in renal tract TB)
339
Q

What investigations would you do to come to a definitive diagnosis of TB?

A
Sputum
Urine
CSF
Pleural fluid
Biopsy specimen - bone, brain and any lymph nodes: cervical, axillary, inguinal, mediastinal, abdominal
340
Q

Can we diagnose a patient with latent TB?

A

It is not possible to find the ‘dormant’ bacteria. They are metabolically inactive.
So instead an indirect measurement is used to detect an immune memory response to the organism.
This can only answer the question whether the person has been exposed to TB before.
If the answer is yes and the patient is clearly not suffering from active TB, we assume that they harbor dormant bacteria with the potential to reactive in the future.

341
Q

What is the Tuberculin skin test ‘Mantoux’?

A

Protein derived from organism
Injected intradermally (technically difficult)
Stimulates type 4 delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Not sensitive - immunosuppressed or miliary TB won’t react (false negatives)
Only moderate specific (false positives from vaccine)
Won’t easily distinguish infection from disease
Cannot tell you if you’ve got latent TB

342
Q

What is a Interferon gamma release assay (IGRAs)?

A

Separate out the white cells into tubes, first tube you do nothing, second tube you put in proteins from TB, other tube you put in something you know will react with it
Use antigens specific to M.tuberculosis e.g. ESAT-6 and CFP10
Able to distinguish BCG (Bacille-Calmette-Guerin) used in vaccination or environmental mycobacteria and TB exposure
- Quantiferon TB measures IFN-y released by cells
- T-SPOT test measures IFN-y producing T cells in an enzyme linked immunospot (ELLISPOT) assay
IGRAs demonstrate exposure to M. tuberculosis but NOT active infection

343
Q

What is the treatment for active TB?

A

TB is curable
Treat with at least 4 drugs for at least 6 months
Standard treatment in the UK
- Rifampicin (6m)
- Isoniazid (6m)
- Pyrazinamide (first 2m)
- Ethambutol (first 2m)
Compliance is critical to reduce relapse and resistance
Community TB nursing team
‘Directly observed therapy’ DOTS - given meds in a supervised fashion 3 or more times a week

344
Q

What are the requirements for TB therapy?

A

We need drugs that work in several different ways and drugs which will work in the extreme environment of the granuloma and for them to exist there for a prolonged amount of time.
These drugs are uniquely used for TB.
Side effects - low-level GI nausea, rashes, joint pains.
If you’ve got CNS TB - you need treatment for 12 months.

345
Q

What is the action of the TB drugs?

A
  • Rifampicin - Bactericidal, blocks protein synthesis, effective throughout the treatment course. SE include red urine, hepatitis, drug interactions (metabolise drugs faster meaning that they won’t work so well e.g. oral contraceptive pill)
  • Isoniazid - bactericidal for rapidly growing bacilli (blocks cell wall synthesis), most effective in initial stages). SE include hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy.
  • Pyrazinamide - Bactericidal initially, less effective later. SE include hepatitis, arthralgia/gout, rash.
  • Ethambutol - Bacteriostatic, blocks cell wall synthesis. SE include optic neuritis.
346
Q

Why is TB treatment so long?

A

Early killing of active bacteria occurs in the first weeks.
Drugs need to be taken for a long time so that any dormant bacteria reactivation is controlled and stopped over the months following the start of the treatment.

347
Q

What is drug-resistant TB?

A

There are drug-resistant TB - can be one of the drugs, two drugs, or multidrug resistance (R and I).
Most commonly to I (7%).
Increased risk if the patient has had previous treatment, in a high risk area, contact of resistant TB or poor response to therapy.
More difficult to treat - drugs with more side effects that are less effective.
IV/IM
>20 months
Increased relapse rate
Now present in many countries - very difficult to treat, high mortality.

348
Q

How can we prevent TB?

A

Active case finding - reduce infectivity
Detection and treatment of latent TB - community TB nursing team using Mantoux
Vaccination: Neonatal BCG
- Limited efficacy, but does protect vs disseminated TB/TBM
- Gives false positive Mantoux tests
- Previously routine in UK teenagers, now just for neonates from high risk groups
- No other vaccine currently available

349
Q

Who is at risk of latent TB?

A

Recent infection
Healthcare worker
Immunocompromised

350
Q

How would you diagnose and treat latent TB?

A
Diagnosis by mantoux test or IGRA
Treatment:
6 months Isoniazid
3 months Rifampicin and Isoniazid
Reduces risk of development of active TB by ⅔
351
Q

How would you define the severity of COPD?

A
Severity based on FEV1:
>80% Mild
50-79% Moderate
30-49% Severe
<30% Very severe
352
Q

What are the mechanisms underlying airflow obstruction in COPD?

A

Small airways disease - airway inflammation, airway fibrosis, luminal plugs, increased airway resistance, narrowing due to oedema and mucus
Parenchymal destruction - loss of alveolar attachments due to ruptured alveolar wall, decrease of elastic recoil, collapse of the airways

Both contribute to airway limitation

353
Q

What are the airway changes in a COPD patient?

A

In COPD, the maximum amount of air they can breath out has been reduced so they can’t generate a normal minute volume. The only way they can do this is to breathe in more deeply on average, which is uncomfortable and mechanically disadvantaged.
In exercise, they can’t increase their flow rate either (dynamic airflow obstruction) - this limits what the patient can do day-to-day.

354
Q

What are the vascular changes in a COPD patient?

A

As well as the airway changes, you also get vascular changes.
Poor V/Q match
Low PaO2
Poor ventilation may give high CO2
Obliteration and vasoconstriction gives pulmonary hypertension

355
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of COPD?

A
Shortage of breath
Cough, phlegm
Wheeze
Raised respiratory rate
Hyperexpansion/barrel shaped chest
Cyanosis
Weight loss
Breathlessness after eating
‘Cor pulmonale’ - heart failure, raised jugular venous pressure, swelling of ankles but cardiac output maintained
356
Q

Who is the average COPD patient?

A

Tend to see it in older patients, smokers, male predominance.

357
Q

What are the classical phenotypes of COPD?

A

Pink puffer - weight loss, breathless, emphysematous, maintained O2
Blue bloater - cough, phlegm, cor pulmonale, respiratory failure
Most people are somewhere on a spectrum in between

358
Q

What are the risk factors for COPD?

A

Cigarette smoke
Occupational dust and chemicals
Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) - passive smoking
Indoor and outdoor air pollution
Genes (60%)
Infections - particularly childhood infections
Socio-economic status of the patient and their patients (in-utero development - low birthweight infant with poorly developed lungs)
Aging

359
Q

How do you characterize dyspnoea?

A

1) SOB marked exertion
2) SOB on hills
3) Slow or stop on flat (at a normal speed)
4) Exercise tolerance 100-200 yards on flat
5) Housebound/SOB on minor tasks

360
Q

What is the CAT?

A
COPD assessment test
Questions scored 0-5
A score out of 40
An idea of quality of life
Can be used to compare an individual over different timepoints (not good for comparing person to person)
361
Q

What are the factors that contribute to a decline in quality of life for a COPD patient?

A

Lung disease leads to breathlessness, which limits the amount of exercise you can do.
This may lead to muscle wasting and disability.
This combined with the patient’s personality and environment may lead to increasing risk of anxiety and depression.

362
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of COPD?

A
Other causes of SOB
Heart failure (common)
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Lung cancer
Asthma (common)
Bronchiectasis (common)
363
Q

How does spirometry differ between COPD and asthma?

A

COPD
Always abnormal spirometry
Minimal variation in serial PEF
Reversibility usually <15%

Asthma
Spirometry may be normal
Day-to-day and diurnal variation in serial PEF
Reversibility usually >15%

You can get the patient to do peak flow during the day.
You can see whether bronchodilators make any difference.

364
Q

What are the classical pathological differences between COPD and asthma?

A

Asthma - lots of inflammation, smooth muscle hypertrophy, basement membrane thickening, very little fibrosis or alveolar disruption
COPD - lots of inflammation, fibrosis and alveolar disruption, very little smooth muscle hypertrophy and basement membrane thickening

365
Q

What are the classical cellular differences between COPD and asthma?

A

Asthma - eosinophilic inflammatory response, mast cells and CD4 T cells present with very few macrophages
COPD - neutrophilic inflammatory response, CD8 T cells and lots of macrophages present

There are people who have COPD but have eosinophilic presentation - require different treatment.

366
Q

How can you visualise the effects of COPD?

A

You can see the hyperexpansion in COPD on the X-ray but it is mainly used to look for cancer, pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia.
MRI can be used to look for emphysema.

367
Q

What is the Combined assessment of COPD?

A
Breathlessness score using MRC score
Quality of life score using CAT
Risk assessment based on previous exacerbation history/hospital admissions
A - low risk, low symptoms
B - low risk, high symptoms
C - high risk, low symptoms
D - high risk, high symptoms
368
Q

Why should you assess comorbidity in COPD patients?

A

COPD is often found with other diseases
More common than you would expect even allowing for smoking impact
Cardiac disease, cancer, renal failure, diabetes, weight loss, depression, anxiety, osteoporosis
May be a genetic link

369
Q

What are the first therapeutic options for COPD patients?

A

Smoking cessation has the greatest capacity to influence the natural history of COPD. Healthcare providers should encourage all patients who smoke to quit.
Pharmacology and nicotine replacements reliably increase long-term smoking abstinence
All COPD patients benefit from regular physical activity and should be repeatedly encouraged to remain active.

370
Q

Why is rehabilitation important in COPD patients?

A

All COPD patients benefit from exercise training programs with improvements in exercise tolerance and symptoms of dyspnoea and fatigue
Although an effective pulmonary rehabilitation program is 6 weeks, the longer the program continues, the more effective the results
If exercise training is maintained at home, the patient’s health status remains above pre-rehabilitation levels

371
Q

Are there useful pharmcological treatments for COPD?

A

Appropriate pharmacologic therapy can reduce COPD symptoms, reduce the frequency and severity of exacerbations and improve health status and exercise tolerance.
None of the existing medications for COPD have been shown conclusively to modify the long-term decline in lung function
Influenza and pneumococcal vaccination should be offered depending on local guidelines

372
Q

What are the drug options for COPD patients?

A
B2 agonists - short and long acting
Anticholinergics - short and long acting
Inhaled corticosteroids
Combinations: SABA with anticholinergic, LABA with anticholinergic, LABA with ICS
Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors
373
Q

What are the goals of COPD therapy?

A

Reduce symptoms:
Relieve symptoms
Improve exercise tolerance
Improve health status

Reduce risk:
Prevent disease progression
Prevent and treat exacerbations
Reduce mortality

374
Q

What are the consequences of COPD exacerbations?

A

Negative impact on quality life - over the whole time, not just at the time of the exacerbations
Impacts on symptoms and lung function
Increased economic costs
Increased mortality - more dangerous in hospital and once you’ve gone home, chance of a cardiac event is raised for 90 days after an exacerbation of COPD
Accelerated lung function decline

375
Q

Why are bronchodilators important for COPD management?

A

Central for COPD management
Prescribed on an as-needed or regular basis to prevent or reduce symptoms
Principle treatments are B2-agonists, anticholinergics, theophylline or combination therapy
Almost always choosing a long-acting agent
Choice of treatment depends on the availability of medications and each patient’s individual’s response in terms of symptoms relief and side effects

376
Q

Why are inhaled corticosteroids important for COPD management?

A

Regular treatment with inhaled corticosteroids improves symptoms, lung function and quality of life and reduces frequency of exacerbations for COPD patients with an FEV1 < 60% predicted
Inhaled corticosteroid therapy is associated with an increased risk of pneumonia
Withdrawal from treatment with inhaled corticosteroids may lead to exacerbations in some patients

377
Q

Why are combination treatments important for COPD?

A

An inhaled corticosteroid combined with a LABA is more effective than the individual components in improving lung function and health status and reducing exacerbations in moderate to very severe COPD
Addition of a long acting B2 agonist/ICS to an anticholinergic (tiotropium) appears to provide additional benefits
Combination therapy is associated with an increased risk of pneumonia

378
Q

Should COPD patients be given systemic corticosteroids?

A

Chronic treatment with systemic corticosteroids should be avoided because of its unfavourable benefit-to-risk ratio.

379
Q

Other than pharmacological treatments, what other treatments are there for COPD patients?

A

Oxygen therapy - long term administration of oxygen (>15 hours per day) to patients with chronic respiratory failure has been shown to increase survival in patients with severe, resting hypoxemia

Ventilatory support - combination of non-invasive ventilation with long-term oxygen therapy may be of some use in a selected subset of patients, particularly in those with pronounced daytime hypercapnia.

Surgery

380
Q

What are the surgical treatments for COPD patients?

A

Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS) is more efficacious than medical therapy among patients with upper-lobe predominant emphysema and low exercise capacity.
LVRS is costly relative to health-care programs not involving surgery.
In appropriately selected patients with very severe COPD, lung transplantation has been shown to improve quality of life and functional capacity.

381
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Palliative care improves the quality of life of patients and families who face life-threatening illness, by providing pain and symptom relief, spiritual and psychosocial support from diagnosis to the end of life and bereavement.

382
Q

Who provides specialist palliative care?

A

Health professionals who specialise in palliative care and work within a multi-disciplinary specialist care team
e.g.
Consultants in palliative medicine
Clinical nurse specialists
Hospice nurses, Specialist social workers, dietitians, chaplains, physiotherapists

383
Q

Who provides generalist palliative care?

A
Health professionals who have not received accredited levels of training in palliative care provision and thus are not deemed ‘specialists’, but who routinely provide health care for patients at the end of their lives.
e.g. 
GPs and hospital doctors &amp; nurses
District nurses, community matrons,  
Nursing home staff, social workers
COPD nurses
384
Q

What are the features of palliative care?

A

Holistic / humanistic
Individualised
Patient and carer / family are clients
Multidisciplinary approach

385
Q

What’s the link between older people and chronic illness?

A

Two thirds of over 75s have at least one self-reported chronic illness
One half of over 75s report a lifestyle limited by chronic illness
Increasing age = increasing co-morbid conditions

386
Q

What are the care needs of older patients?

A

Multiple co-morbidities leading to greater impairment and need for care
Greater risk of impairment from treatment complications (adverse drug reactions)
Increased psychological distress
Increased social isolation and economic hardship

387
Q

What’s the link between chronic illness and social inequalities?

A

People with lower socio-economic status have higher incidence of chronic illness
Poverty and poor living conditions increase with age
Most severe deprivation experienced by pensioners living alone
Britain has the highest proportion of winter deaths (from cold-related illnesses) in Europe

388
Q

What are gerontological care and palliative care concerned with?

A

Promoting quality of life
Promoting dignity and autonomy
Placing importance on controlling symptoms whilst avoiding the use of medical investigations and aggressive treatment

389
Q

How does palliative care differ between old and young people?

A

Older people are
… less likely to be admitted to a hospice
… less likely to die in their place of preference
… less likely to receive proper preventative planning
… more likely to experience repeated hospital admissions
… less likely to be involved in discussions concerning options available to them at the end of life (advanced care planning)

390
Q

How is COPD classified?

A

Mild: characterised by mild airflow restriction FEV1 50-70% of predicted.
Moderate: characterised by moderate airflow restriction, symptom progression, some restriction of activity FEV1 30-50% of predicted.
Severe: severe airflow obstruction, reduced quality of life, exacerbations may be life threatening FEV1 <30%.

391
Q

What are the characteristics of COPD patients?

A

COPD predominantly affects the older population, slightly more common in men.
Many patients have additional co-morbidities e.g. heart disease, diabetes, arthritis.
Smoking is the predominant cause in approx 80% of cases, other risk factors include occupational exposure to various chemicals, air pollution, and genetic factors (alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency).

392
Q

What are the major difficulties with COPD?

A

Unpredictable illness trajectory
Difficulties with prognostication
Poor patient understanding
Limited access to specialist palliative care

393
Q

What is the prognosis of COPD?

A

COPD associated with poor prognosis
Hospital based study identified that 50% of people died within 2 years of admission for an acute exacerbation
Five year survival in the UK estimated at 72-78% for patients with mild COPD but 24-30% for patients with acute disease

394
Q

Why is it so difficult to give a COPD patient a prognosis?

A

Difficult to provide an accurate prognosis when illness trajectory is so unpredictable
The majority of health professionals agree that discussions on prognosis are necessary, and they have an important role.
However, the majority acknowledge they discuss prognosis badly.

395
Q

How does COPD compare with lung cancer?

A

Patients with COPD report worse activities of daily living than LC patients.
92% of COPD patients reported to suffer from depression vs 52% of LC patients.
LC patients received more visits from district nursing teams
LC patients more likely to know they might die.
No difference in visits to GP but COPD patients more likely to visit intensive care units.
30% of LC patients received support from specialist palliative care compared to 0% of COPD patients

396
Q

Why do COPD patients end up dying in hospital?

A

Uncertainty about prognosis and whether all options exhausted
Communication; death not discussed or anticipated
No proactive management strategies
Carers (including GP) exhausted
Co-morbidity
Unresolved anxiety

397
Q

What are the difficulties associated with access to specialist palliative care for COPD patietnts?

A

Palliative care was developed around a cancer model.
Most people who receive specialist palliative care still have a diagnosis of cancer.
75% of deaths are from non-cancer conditions
COPD patients are far less likely to receive palliative care than are cancer patients and less likely to receive specialist care.
Specialist palliative care funding: cancer charities etc.
Expertise of specialist palliative care teams: cancer focus.
Differing patient needs COPD vs cancer
Stigma (smoking)

398
Q

What is occupational health?

A

Occupational medicine - branch of medicine concerned with the interaction between work and health.
Individual workers
Groups of workers
Workplace effects on surrounding populations (emissions to air, water, land)
Health of employers’ customers or clients (e.g. patients)

399
Q

What are the common work-related ill-health cases in the UK today?

A
Stress, depression, anxiety (very common)
Musculoskeletal disorders (very common)
Lung disease
Cancer
Noise-induced hearing loss
Hand-arm vibration
400
Q

How do we establish the extent of the problem in occupational health?

A
Case counts (medicolegal and reporting processes) are based on a traditional occupational disease concept
Self-report implies much higher numbers affected by work (some can underestimate)
Attributable or etiological fractions are a statistical method of assessing the fraction of cases that are attributable to work
401
Q

What are some sources of occupational illness data?

A

Labour force survey
Death certificate
Disablement benefit
Surveillance schemes

402
Q

How would you calculate attributable risk?

A

Attributable risk is mostly calculated in cohort studies where individuals are assembled based on exposure status and followed over a period of time.

403
Q

How can the effects of work on health be classified?

A
  • Acute
  • Cumulative e.g. dermatitis, COPD
  • Progressive (disease progression after exposure ceases)
  • Disease with latencies e.g. asbestosis
    There is a bit of overlap.
404
Q

How would you classify potential work hazards?

A
Mechanical
Physical
Chemical
Biological
Psychosocial
405
Q

What’s the difference between hazard and risk?

A
Hazard = potentially harmful
Risk = probability of harm
406
Q

What impact does employment and unemployment have?

A

Can depend on the nature of work
Work to unemployment - negative effect on mental and physical health
Unemployment to reemployment - positive effect on mental health and wellbeing
School leavers to first job - often deemed to be an unsatisfactory employment so has a negative effect
Work to retirement is a positive thing if voluntary, but a negative thing if forced.

407
Q

What are the features of ‘good work’?

A
Should feel stable and safe
Should have individual control, part of decision-making
Appropriate quantity of work demands
Fair salary
Opportunities for training and promotion
Prevents social isolation, discrimination and violence
A place where you can share information
Good work/life balance
Reintegrates sick or disabled people
Promotes health and well being
408
Q

When should you suspect a work-related illness?

A

If an illness fails to respond to standard treatment, does not fit the typical demographic profile or is of unknown cause, it should raise suspicion of occupational etiology.

409
Q

What are the screening questions for occupational health?

A

What type of work do you do?
Do you think your health problem might be related to your work?
Are your symptoms different at work and at home?
Are you exposed to chemicals, dust, metals, radiation, noise or repetitive work? Have you been exposed to chemical, dust, metals, radiation, noise or repetitive work in the past?
Are any of your co-workers experiencing similar symptoms?
If the answer to any one of these questions suggest that the patient’s symptoms are job-related or that the patient has been exposed to hazardous material, a comprehensive occupational history should be obtained.

410
Q

What are the features of an occupational health history?

A
Current job, employer, duration
Tasks as well as job title
Past employers and jobs
A brief exposure can be enough
External and internal exposure
Hobbies? (DIY, pets, gardening, chemicals)
411
Q

What is the GP’s role in occupational health?

A

Able to give a sickness certificate ‘fit note’
Requires GPs to state if they have advised patients that they are not fit for work or may be fit for work, and whether the patient may benefit from a phased return to work, amended duties, altered hours or workplace adaptations.
Need to spend more time finding out what the patient’s work actually entails
Requires knowledge and understanding of a range of workplaces and possible adaptations
Research shows that many do not have the knowledge required to understand the working lives of all their patients.

412
Q

What is the danger of long-term worklessness?

A
Greater risk than many ‘killer diseases’
Greater risk than most dangerous jobs
Increased risk of poor mental and physical health
Loss of fitness and wellbeing
Social exclusion and poverty
Trapped on benefits until retirement
413
Q

What are the inequalities evident in occupational health?

A

Greater risk in some jobs than others
Some jobs have greater physical demands than others
Impacts at transition points - harder to find work, harder to return to work from sickness absence, harder to find good work, less likely to remain in work

414
Q

What are health inequalities?

A

Health inequalities result from social inequalities in the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work and age.
Action to reduce health inequalities will have economic benefits in reducing losses from illness associated with health inequalities.

415
Q

What is the definition of a disability?

A
A physical or mental impairment, which has a substantial long-term adverse effect on a person’s ability to carry out normal activities.
Type of impairment is broadly defined
Substantial adverse effect
Long-term
Normal activities
416
Q

What are the adjustments that employers should be willing to make in response to work-related ill-health?

A

Altering the person’s work hours
Allowing absences during work hours for medical treatment
Given additional training
Getting special equipment or modifying existing equipment
Changing instructions or reference manuals
Changing to an open plan working policy to accomodate someone with an anxiety condition or autism
Providing additional supervision or support
Making adjustments to premises

417
Q

What are the primary, secondary, tertiary aspects of the population approach to occupational health?

A

Primary (monitor risk, controlling hazards, promotion)
Secondary (screening, early detection, task modification)
Tertiary (rehabilitation, support)

418
Q

Why is work is important?

A

Means of obtaining adequate economic resources which are essential for material well-being and full participation in today’s society
Meets important psychosocial needs
Central to an individual’s identity, social roles and social status
Main drivers of social gradients in physical and mental health and mortality

419
Q

What is occupational lung disease?

A

Occupational lung diseases represent a wide-range of respiratory conditions caused by inhaling a harmful substance in the workplace.
In addition, a wide range of workplace exposures may aggravate the symptoms of pre-existing lung disease.
Caused by inhalable particles, gases and vapours are generated from a wide range of industrial processes.

420
Q

What are the types of dust?

A

Inhalable - airborne dust less than 100 microns are termed ‘inhalable’ as they can enter the respiratory tract
Respirable - airborne dust less than 10 microns are termed ‘respirable’ as they can penetrate to an alveolar level

421
Q

What are fumes?

A

Fumes are smaller (less than 1 micron) solid particles suspended in the air

422
Q

What are mists?

A

Mists are liquid particles suspended in the air

423
Q

What are vapours?

A

Vapours are the gaseous state of a substance which is liquid at 25°C.

424
Q

What affects a worker’s response to a workplace exposure?

A

A worker’s response to a workplace exposure is very variable and dependent on a range of factors:
The physical and chemical nature of the agent
The duration and dose of exposure
Individual susceptibility

425
Q

What’s the difference between immediate effect and repeated exposure in work-related ill-health?

A

Immediate effect
E.g. A high dose exposure to chlorine gas, resulting in an acute airway injury and chronic asthma (acute irritant induced asthma)

Repeated exposure
These diseases develop after an asymptomatic or ‘latent’ period
Shorter latency (months or a few years) commonly present whilst an individual worker is still exposed to a harmful material in the workplace
Longer latency (often decades) commonly present close to or after retirement

426
Q

What questions should you be asking in light of a short latency lung disease?

A

What condition does the patient have?
Is their job making their co-incidental disease worse or is it causing them to have a disease that they would not otherwise have?
Is it safe for them to continue their job?
Are other workers at risk of becoming ill?

427
Q

What questions should you be asking in light of a long latency lung disease?

A

Did your patient’s job give them this illness? Are there other contributing factors?
What are the possible implications of that?

428
Q

What are the common occupational lung diseases?

A

Asbestos related
Mesothelioma
Pneumoconiosis
Asthma

429
Q

What causes occupational asthma?

A
Spray paint
Animals
Metalwork
Latex gloves
Cleaning solutions
Soldering
Work cutting
Bakery
430
Q

How common is occupational asthma?

A

15% of all adult onset asthma
90% asthma is induced by sensitisation to an agent inhaled at work
10% asthma is induced by a massive accidental irritant exposure at work (direct airway injury)

431
Q

What is OASYS?

A

OASYS - plots and interprets serial peak expiratory flow (PEF) readings of patients suspected as having occupational asthma or work-related asthma.

432
Q

What are the major features of occupational asthma?

A
Latent period
Deteriorating symptoms
Gradual improvement
Can occur in most jobs - think about wood, floor, metal working fluids, isocyanate paint
Can cause depression
Destroys lives
433
Q

What is Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis aka Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis?

A

Caused by metalwork fluids, mouldy hay, chickens, swimming pools.
Allergic sensitisation (combined type III/IV)
Occupational or environmental
Acute (self-limiting febrile response)
Sub-acute
Chronic (irreversible pulmonary fibrosis)
More common in non-smokers than smokers.

434
Q

What is Pneumoconiosis?

A
Lung disease caused by inhalation of mineral dust
Asbestosis
Coal worker’s pneumonia
Silicosis
Other unspecified pneumoconiosis
435
Q

What are Pleural plaques?

A
Layers of collagen, often calcified
Harmless marker of exposure
Not pre-malignant
Aetiology unclear
Doesn’t cause symptoms
436
Q

What are Diffuse pleural thickenings?

A
Follows benign effusion
Obliteration of costophrenic angle
Lung expansion restricted by thickened pleura
No effective treatment
May progress slowly
437
Q

What is Asbestosis?

A
Interstitial lung fibrosis
Long latency (decades)
History of heavy exposure
No effective treatment
May progress slowly (without further exposure)
Progressive breathlessness
438
Q

What is Mesothelioma?

A

Rapidly progressive and incurable pleural cancer-encasing lung with tumour
Often presents as unexplained pleural effusion
Progressive breathlessness, chest pain, weight loss
Average survival 8-14 months

439
Q

What happens post-diagnosis of occupational lung disease?

A
Unemployment (up to one third)
Loss of earnings
Chronic respiratory ill health
Depression
Loss of self worth
Breakdown of relationships
Compensation
440
Q

How do you prevent occupational lung disease?

A

Legal requirement
Risk assessment
Prevent or minimise exposure to harmful substances
- Elimination (asbestos)
- Substitution (latex to nitrile gloves)
- Engineering controls (exhaust ventilation)
- RPE (masks and respirators)

441
Q

How do you recognise occupational lung disease early?

A

If residual risk, monitor workers health (surveillance).
Identify health problems early
- Annual health questionnaire and spirometry for asthma
- Questionnaire, spirometry and chest x-ray for silicosis
- Prevent further harm by reducing/preventing exposure
- Review control measures to protect other workers