Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What is endocrinology?

A

Study of hormones (and their gland of origin), their receptors, the intracellular signalling pathways and associated diseases.

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2
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine?

A

Endocrine: glands ‘pour’ secretions into the blood stream
Exocrine: glands ‘pour’ secretions into ducts that lead to the target tissue

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3
Q

What are some of the major chemical messengers present in the body?

A

Endocrine hormones - can be local or distant
Neurotransmitters - local to the synapse e.g. ACh, GABA
Neuroendocrine - secretion from nerves into blood e.g. ADH, Oxytocin

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4
Q

What do paracrine and autocine mean?

A

Autocrine: a cell-produced substance that has an effect on the cell by which it is secreted
Paracrine: a cell-produced substance that has an effect on the cell by which it is secreted (near neighbours)

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5
Q

What are the two major types of hormones?

A

Water-soluble: Unbound, bind to a surface receptor, short half-life, fast clearance e.g. peptides, monoamines

Fat-soluble: protein-bound, diffuse into cell, long half-life, slow clearance e.g. thyroid hormone, steroids

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6
Q

What are the major types of endocrine hormone?

A

Steroids - adrenal cortex, ovaries, testes
Proteins and polypeptides - growth hormone, insulin
Tyrosine derivatives - adrenaline, thyroxine, 5HT

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7
Q

What does negative feedback do?

A

Negative feedback involves close regulation of hormone action to prevent over-activity.
It occurs post-stimulus at all levels: transcription, translation, post-translational processing, storage.
The conditions or products from hormone action suppress its further release.

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8
Q

What does positive feedback do?

A

The end products of the action cause more of that action to occur in a feedback loop. This amplifies the original action.
Time-dependent.
e.g. Oestrogen-induced LH surge in menstrual cycle

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9
Q

What are cyclical variations of hormone release?

A

Periodic variations in hormone release influenced by Seasonal changes, Developmental stages, Circadian rhythms, Diurnal (daily) cycle, Sleep.
e.g. Growth Hormone

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10
Q

What are the different timelines of hormone action?

A

Hormone action can be:
- Rapid: msec / sec (nerve impulse; haemostasis)
- Delayed: mins/hours/days (growth, cell division)
Can be induced by very small quantities (picogram to nanogram).
Allows for multiple layers of medical intervention.

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11
Q

What are the major receptors involved in signal transduction?

A

Ion channels - Ca, Na, Cl, K
Membrane-bound steroid receptors - indirect effect on gene expression
Neurotransmission - AChR, GABA, 5-HT
Growth factor receptors - EGFR, VEGF. IGFs, GH
Nuclear steroid receptors - direct effect on gene expression
GPCRs

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12
Q

What are GPCRs?

A

G-protein coupled receptors
Ubiquitous (>800 sequences)
>50% of all drugs mimic or inhibit various GPCRs
GPCR is made up of 5 parts:
Receptor – gives primary specificity
Three G-proteins – a, B, Y (Ga further specificity)
Enzyme to modulate second messenger (e.g. cAMP)

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13
Q

What are the different a subunits in GPCRs and their effects?

A

G as: POSITIVE, makes cAMP,
e.g. b2 agonists, PGE2 via EP2 receptor (uterine relaxation)
G ai: NEGATIVE, prevents cAMP
a adrenergic agonists - ergometrine
PGE2 via EP1 and EP3 receptors (uterine contraction; Misoprostol)
G aq: POSITIVE, makes IP3 and DAG
Oxytocin receptor, PGF2 via FP2a receptor
(uterine contraction; severe PPH; Carboprost)

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14
Q

What are the different parts of the pituitary gland?

A
  • Anterior pituitary (Adenohypophysis): embryonic invagination of pharyngeal epithelium, epithelioid nature of cells, contains Rathke’s pouch
  • Posterior pituitary (Neurohypophysis): neural tissue outgrowth of hypothalamus, large numbers of glial cells
  • Pars intermedia (part of anterior): secretes Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
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15
Q

Why is it important that the pituitary gland is highly vascularised?

A

Carries hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory hormones to anterior pituitary through the Hypothalamic hypophysial portal system.

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16
Q

Which hormones come from which part of the pituitary gland?

A

Anterior pituitary: Thyrotropes (Thyroid stimulating hormone), Somatotropes (Growth hormone), Pro-opiomelancortin (POMC) which gives rise to Corticotropes like Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
(ACTH) and Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH), Gonadotropes (LH and FSH), Lactotropes like prolactin.

Posterior pituitary: Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) and Oxytocin

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17
Q

What regulates pituitary hormone secretion?

A

Mostly the hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary uses hypothalamic releasing and hypothalamic inhibitory hormones through the hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system.
Posterior pituitary use Magnocellular neurones.
Supra-optic (ADH) and Paraventricular nuclei (Oxytocin)
whose signals terminate in posterior pituitary.

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18
Q

What are the major effects of growth hormone?

A

PROTEIN DEPOSITION INCREASED: increased cellular amino acid uptake, transcription, translation, decreased protein catabolism.
FAT METABOLISM INCREASED: increased fatty acid mobilisation, Acetyl-CoA formation, lead body mass, may see ketosis.
REDUCED CARBOHYDRATE UTILISATION: promotes insulin resistance, increased hepatic glucose synthesis, insulin secretion, decreased glucose uptake by tissues.

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19
Q

How does Growth Hormone secretion vary over time?

A

Growth hormone is a protein hormone (191 amino acids)
Released in 8-9 bursts/24 hrs – irregular
Usually in slow-wave sleep phase
Max. secretion in adolescence
Decreases ~14%/decade
Replacement therapy given in the evening

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20
Q

What are the two types of bone growth?

A

Appositional growth - growth in diameter (bone lamellae)

Interstitial growth - growth in length (Epiphyseal plate)

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21
Q

How does growth hormone promote bone growth?

A

Growth hormone promotes chondrocyte expansion through hyperplasia and hypertrophy which maintains epiphyseal cartilage matrix.
- Degrade; osteoblast invasion
- New bone added to diaphysis
Balance between chondrocyte growth/degradation important

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22
Q

When is growth hormone release stimulated and inhibited?

A

Growth hormone secretion
Stimulates: trauma/stress, Ghrelin, increase in AA in blood, deep sleep, GHRH, Fasting, Exercise, decrease in blood glucose/fatty acids, testosterone and oestrogen.
Inhibits: growth hormone inhibitory hormone, somatomedins (IGF-I and IGF-II), increase blood glucose/fatty acids, aging, exogenous growth hormone, obesity.

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23
Q

What are the causes of Child Growth Hormone Deficiency?

A

50% of cases idiopathic
Pituitary gland atrophy (Pan hypo-pituitarism and Isolated – only GH affected)
Reduced Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone Secretion
Craniopharyngiom: Benign tumour – residue from Rathke’s pouch (mouth epithelium)

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24
Q

What are some of the causes of short stature?

A
Normal genetic shortness
Growth delay
Chromosomal disorders
Intra-uterine mal-development
Endocrine gland disorders
Cartilage and bone disorders
Disorders of food absorption
Heart, lung and kidney problems
Steroids and radiation
Psychological distress
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25
Q

What is the phenotype of Child Growth Hormone Deficiency?

A

Ateliosis – proportional short stature but normal features/intelligence
(achondroplasia – non-proportional)
Mismatch between chronological age and skeletal (bone) age.
Reduced lean body mass
Delayed onset of puberty – augmentation with hCG/testosterone

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26
Q

How do you diagnose Growth Hormone Deficiency?

A

Insulin tolerance test (ITT) tests hypothalamic:pituitary:adrenal axis
Bolus of IV insulin
Hypoglyceamia
Physiological stress
GH and cortisol released to buffer this
GH measured every 15-30 mins for 2 hrs
GH levels < 5ng/ml GHD OR < 3ng/ml severe GHD

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27
Q

What is the treatment for Growth Hormone Deficiency?

A

Must be done BEFORE epiphyseal plates close
Aim for “acceptable” final adult height
Recombinant growth hormone used – Somatropin
Daily injections of Somatropin
More consistent plasma level using Sub-cutaneous rather than intra-muscular

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28
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of Adult Growth Hormone Deficiency?

A

Symptoms: Decreased energy level, Social isolation, Lack of positive well-being, Depressed mood, Increased anxiety.
Signs:
Increased body fat, LDL cholesterol, plasma fibrinogen
Decreased insulin sensitivity, muscle mass, bone density, HDL cholesterol, extra-cellular fluid.

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29
Q

What are thyroid hormones?

A

Incorporate iodine
Thyroxine (T4): 93% metabolically active hormone
Triiodothyronine (T3): 7% metabolically active hormone
T3 has greater potency and shorter half life
Calcitonin involved in plasma Ca regulation

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30
Q

What are the major actions of thyroid hormones?

A

Significantly increase metabolic rate
Increase activity of mitochondria and Na/K ATPase
Increase growth rate and brain growth in children
Reduced sexual function and libido
Cardiovascular increase
Respiration increase
Pscychoneurotic tendencies and muscle tremor
Increase in gut motility
Increase vitamin requirements
Stimulation of carbohydrate and fat metabolism

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31
Q

What is the action of TSH?

A

TSH increases all the known secretory activities of the thyroid glandular cells.
TSH causes…
Increased proteolysis of stored thyroglobulin
Increased activity of the iodide pump
Increases “iodide trapping” rate
Increased iodination of tyrosine
Forms thyroid hormones.
Increased size and secretory activity of thyroid cells
Increased number of thyroid cells and infolding of follicle thyroid epithelium
Releases thyroid hormones

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32
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

Thyroid increase 2-3X normal size due to follicle hyperplasia.
Symptoms include: High state of excitability, Heat intolerance, Increased sweating, Weight loss, Diarrhoea, Anxiety, Muscle weakness, Tremor of hands, Extreme fatigue, Inability to sleep, Exopthalmos.

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33
Q

What is Graves’ Disease?

A

Most common form of hyperthyroidism
Autoimmune disease
Antibodies raised against thyroid TSH receptor
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) bind TSH receptor and induce continual cell stimulation (~12 hours)
Persistent high level of TSI-induced thyroid hormone secretion suppresses anterior pituitary TSH formation.
TSH concentrations < normal (zero)

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34
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

Not enough thyroid hormone
Symptoms: Fatigue and extreme somnolence, Prolonged sleep periods (2 to 14 hrs/day), Extreme muscular sluggishness, Reduced heart rate, cardiac output, blood volume, Increased body weight, Constipation, Mental sluggishness, Failed growth functions- depressed hair growth of hair and scaliness of the skin, Myxoedema (oedematous body appearance).

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35
Q

What are the main hypothyroidism diseases?

A

Hashimoto’s disease: Autoimmune thyroiditis (inflammation), Gradual decline in thyroid hormone secretion, Gland destroyed.
Myxoedema: Total lack of thyroid hormone, Non-pitting oedema
Endemic Goitre: Enlarged thyroid gland, Insufficient dietary iodine
Cretinism: Fetal extreme hypothyroidism, Poor growth, Impaired brain development

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36
Q

What is Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Excess PTH synthesis/secretion

Can be primary or secondary

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37
Q

What is primary Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Frequent cause of hypercalcaemia
Third most common endocrine disorder
Defect in parathyroid glands – benign tumour
(rarely malignant)
Increased PTH, calcitriol, Ca2+; decreased PO43-
Normal calcitriol/phosphate changes signals seen which indicate normal kidney function but increased cell numbers mean PTH levels increased overall.

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38
Q

What is secondary Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Arises through defective feedback control - compensation for hypocalcaemia.
Usually associated with chronic kidney disease
Concept of Renal Bone Disease: No renal response to PTH causing poor renal Ca2+ reabsorption, no vit. D activation, poor intestinal Ca2+ reabsorption
(hypocalcaemia), High bone demineralisation as Ca2+ released - Renal osteodystrophy.
Negative feedback mechanisms fail; PTH levels remain elevated.

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39
Q

What are the adrenal hormones?

A

Two major groups of adrenocortical hormones
Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Both have genomic effects, inducing changes in gene expression.

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40
Q

Where are the different adrenal hormones present?

A
  • Mineralocorticoids like Aldosterone: Zona glomerulosa
    ECF mineral balance (Na+, K+)
  • Glucocorticoids like Cortisol, Androgens, and some oestrogen: Zona fasciculata
    Increasing blood sugar
  • DHEA and Androstenedione: Zona Reticularis
  • Adrenaline and Noradrenaline: Adrenal medulla
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41
Q

What does Aldosterone do?

A

Principal mineralocorticoid (90%) but Cortisol, (glucocorticoid) also gives some mineralocorticoid activity.
Main actions:
- Na+/water reabsorption
- K+ homeostasis (generally secretion)

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42
Q

What is primary aldosteronism?

A

Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome, refers to the excess production of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal glands, resulting in low renin levels. This abnormality is caused by hyperplasia or tumors. Many suffer from fatigue, potassium deficiency and high blood pressure which may cause poor vision, confusion or headaches. Symptoms may also include: muscular aches and weakness, muscle spasms, low back and flank pain from the kidneys, trembling, tingling sensations, numbness and excessive urination.

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43
Q

What happens when there is Mineralocorticoid Deficiency?

A

Severe renal NaCl wasting:
Significant increased renal Na+Cl- loss, reduced [Na+]ECF, reduced plasma volume (Dehydration, Reduced blood pressure, Circulatory shock)

Hyperkalaemia:
Reduced renal K+ excretion, Increased [K+]ECF leading to Hyperkalaemia > 5 mmol/l and Cardiotoxicity.

Mild acidosis becuase H+/K+ exchange less efficient
Death within two weeks. Basis of Addison’s disease.

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44
Q

Where in the body is Aldosterone’s action particularly important?

A

Sweat glands - conservation of NaCl in hot environment
Salivary glands - conservation of NaCl to prevent excessive loss in saliva
Colon - Enhanced Na+ absorption, reduces faecal Na+ loss
Without it: Poor absorption of Na+, Cl-, other anions, Poor water absorption gives Diarrhoea.

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45
Q

What is cortisol?

A

Principal glucocorticoid, accounts for ~95% activity.
Corticosterone provides further activity.
Follows a Circadian rhythm of secretion:
- Highest early morning (~20mg/dl)
- Low in evening/night (~5mg/dl)
Involved in metabolic regulation, stress response (physical/mental) and defence against inflammation.

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46
Q

What are the physiological effects of cortisol?

A

CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM: Increased gluconeo- genesis: Hepatic gluconeogenic enzymes activated
Amino acid mobilisation from extra-hepatic tissues
Antagonism of insulin-induced hepatic gluconeo-genesis inhibition.
FAT METABOLISM: Increased Fatty acid mobilisation, Oxidation of fatty acids, Metabolism favours fat burning not glucose.
PROTEIN METABOLISM: Reduction in extra-hepatic cellular protein through decreased protein synthesis and amino acid transport, increased protein catabolism.

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47
Q

What kinds of stress might initiate the release of cortisol?

A

Trauma, infection, surgery, intense hot or cold, debilitating diseases, physical restraint, noradrenaline/sympathomimetic drugs, subcutaneous injection of necrotizing substances.

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48
Q

How does stress initiate the release of cortisol?

A

Stress on the body
Hypothalamic release of CRH and hypophysial circulation in the pituitary
In the anterior pituitary, corticotrophs release ACTH
ACTH acts on zona fasciculata which causes the secretion of cortisol
Cortisol has direct negative feedback on the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus
Cortisol acts to cause Gluconeogenesis, Protein Metabolism, Fat mobilisation and Lysosome stabilisation to relieve the stress.

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49
Q

What processes occur in inflammation?

A

Tissue damage causes release of pro-inflammatory mediators: Histamine, Bradykinin, Proteases, Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes which increase blood flow to area - Erythema.
Increased capillary permeability causes exudation of virtually pure plasma and tissue fluid clots. Causes non-pitting oedema.
Infiltration of leukocytes after several days or weeks leads to ingrowth of fibrous tissue facilitates healing.

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50
Q

How does Cortisol impact the inflammation process?

A
  • Stabilizes lysosomal membranes, reducing cell/ lysosome rupture
  • Decreases capillary permeability, preventing plasma exudation into tissues
  • Suppresses immune system, reducing Lymphocyte reproduction, T-lymphocyte numbers, Antibodies
  • Attenuates fever by reducing IL-1 release from white blood cells (key stimulus for hypothalamic temp control)
  • Decreases Extravasation of white blood cells into inflamed area and Phagocytosis of damaged cells
  • Inhibits synthesis of Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes
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51
Q

What are the different abnormalities in Adrenocortical Secretion?

A

Primary Aldosteronism – Conn’s Syndrome
Hypoadrenalism - Addison’s Disease
Hyperadrenalism - Cushing’s syndrome

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52
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Hypoadrenalism
Reduced adrenocortical hormone synthesis by adrenal cortices.
Commonly caused by primary atrophy or injury of the adrenal cortices due to autoimmunity, TB or a tumour.
Impaired pituitary function
Reduced ACTH secretion means there is decreased cortisol and aldosterone production. Adrenal glands may atrophy because of a lack of ACTH stimulation.
Glucocorticoid deficiency due to lack of cortisol production - failure to stimular gluconeogenesis, mobilise protein or fat.
May lead to a Addisonian Crisis.
Treatment: mineralocorticoids and/or glucocorticoids

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53
Q

What are the possible causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Many abnormalities of Cushing’s syndrome ascribed to hyper­-cortisolism.
- Adrenal cortex adenomas
- Abdominal carcinoma: “Ectopic” ACTH secretion”
- Abnormal hypothalamic function: Increased CRH
increased ACTH release
- Anterior pituitary ACTH-secreting adenomas:
Causes adrenal hyperplasia and excess cortisol secretion (Cushing’s disease)

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54
Q

What’s the difference between Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s disease?

A

Cushing’s disease: Excess anterior pituitary secretion of ACTH is primary problem (70%)
Increased [ACTH]plasma and [cortisol]plasma
Cushing’s syndrome: Primary overproduction of cortisol by adrenal glands (~20-25%). Cortisol feedback inhibition reduces anterior pituitary ACTH secretion
Fat mobilization to thoracic and upper abdominal regions. Excess steroids causes oedematous face.
Androgenic potency may causes acne and hirsutism.

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55
Q

What is the pancreas’ exocrine and endocrine functions?

A
Exocrine function: Digestive enzymes through the pancreatic acini into Duodenum
Endocrine function: Hormones into blood
Insulin: b-cells
Glucagon: a-cells
Somatostatin: d-cells
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56
Q

What are the effects of insulin on metabolism?

A

INCREASED CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM - increased hepatic glucose uptake, hepatic glycogen formation, decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis
INCREASED FAT METABOLISM - increased fat storage, increased hepatic fatty acid synthesis, prevents fatty acid release in adipose tissue, promotes Glc uptake
INCREASED PROTEIN METABOLISM - increased cellular amino acid uptake, increased transcription and translation, decreased protein catabolism, decreased gluconeogenesis

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57
Q

What are the effects of decreased blood glucose?

A

Decreased blood glucose reduces pancreatic insulin secretion.
Decreased insulin secretion promotes hepatic Glycogen breakdown into glucose-6-phosphate (via glycogen phosphatase) and then into hepatic glucose (via glucose phosphatase).

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58
Q

How does the absence of the pancreas affect growth?

A

Insulin and growth hormone act synergistically to each promote the uptake of different amino acids.
No insulin OR growth hormone - minimal effect
No insulin AND growth hormone - no growth

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59
Q

What happens in a state of insulin deficiency?

A

Hormone-sensitive lipases activity increases, causing triglycerides to be hydrolysed and an increased concentration of fatty acids in the plasma.
Excess Acetyl-CoA formed so excess Acetoacetate synthesised, which is converted to ketone bodies causing Ketosis – metabolic acidosis.
Protein catabolism increases, increased conc of protein in plasma (significant protein wasting).

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60
Q

How are amino acids involved in insulin secretion?

A

Amino acids Arginine and Lysine
If administered in absence of increased blood glucose, there are small increases in insulin secretion.
If administered when blood glucose elevated, there is doubled glucose-induced insulin secretion.
Amino acids potentiate glucose stimulus for insulin secretion.
Links insulin to insulin-induced amino acid transport and protein synthesis

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61
Q

How are gastrointestinal hormones involved in insulin secretion?

A

A number of hormones knowns as incretins:
- Gastrin, Secretin, CCK
- Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
- Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP)
Enhance insulin secretion when blood glucose elevated
Inhibit a-cell glucagon secretion
These GI hormones induce “anticipatory” increase in blood insulin.
Significant augmentation of glucose-induced insulin secretion.
Incretins used as drug targets (metformin, tolbutamide, gliclazide)

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62
Q

What’s the timeline of insulin’s response?

A

Fasting [Glucose]blood ~5mmol/l
Sudden prolonged Glc increase (2-3X) initiates a biphasic insulin response.
- Initial spike ~10x [insulin]plasma (secretion of preformed insulin, increase not maintained)
- Slower increase ~20 mins later
Higher [insulin]plasma reached

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63
Q

How does insulin control whether fat or glucose are used?

A

High insulin levels means that glucose utilised principally, fat utilisation depressed and excess blood glucose stored as liver glycogen, fat, and muscle glycogen.
Low insulin levels means increased fat utilisation and nhibition of glucose use (except brain).
Blood glucose levels determines the level of insulin (acts as a switch). Growth hormone, cortisol, adrenaline glucagon also involved.

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64
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

Impaired carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism
Type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent) - lack of insulin secretion
Type 2 diabetes (non-insulin-dependent) - decreased tissue sensitivity to insulin (resistance)
Baseline [glucose]blood higher and peaks higher for longer. Normally returns to baseline within 2 hours.
Signs: polyphagia, polydypsia, polyurea

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65
Q

What is glucagon?

A

Secreted by a-cells as response to decreased [glucose]blood.
Functions diametrically opposed to insulin
Principal effect to increase [glucose]blood
Increased [glucose]blood –ve feedback on glucagon secretion

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66
Q

What are the main effects of glucagon?

A

GLUCOSE METABOLISM: promotes Glycogenolysis and increases Gluconeogenesis, increasing blood glucose
FAT METABOLISM: Activates adipose cell lipase and inhibits hepatic triglyceride storage, increasing availability of fatty acids
Also acts to enhance heart strength, increases blood flow to kidneys, enhance bile secretion and inhibit gastric acid secretion.

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67
Q

What is Thyrotropin-releasing hormone?

A

Hypothalamus hormone
Peptide structure
Stimulates secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin by thyrotropes

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68
Q

What is Corticotropin-releasing hormone?

A

Hypothalamus hormone
Peptide structure
Causes release of adrenocorticotropic hormone by corticotropes

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69
Q

What is Growth hormone–releasing hormone?

A

Hypothalamus hormone
Peptide structure
Causes release of growth hormone by somatotropes

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70
Q

What is Growth hormone inhibitory hormone (somatostatin)?

A

Hypothalamus hormone
Peptide structure
Inhibits release of growth hormone by somatotropes

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71
Q

What is Gonadotropin-releasing hormone?

A

Hypothalamus hormone

Causes release of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone by gonadotropes

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72
Q

What is Dopamine or prolactin-inhibiting factor?

A

Hypothalamus hormone
Amine structure
Inhibits release of prolactin by lactotropes

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73
Q

What is Growth hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Stimulates protein synthesis and overall growth of most cells and tissues

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74
Q

What is Thyroid-stimulating hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones (thyroxine and triiodothyronine)

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75
Q

What is Adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Stimulates synthesis and secretion of adrenocortical hormones (cortisol, androgens, and aldosterone)

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76
Q

What is Prolactin?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Promotes development of the female breasts and secretion of milk

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77
Q

What is Follicle-stimulating hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Causes growth of follicles in the ovaries and sperm maturation in Sertoli cells of testes

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78
Q

What is Luteinizing hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Stimulates testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells of testes; stimulates ovulation, formation of corpus luteum, and oestrogen and progesterone synthesis in ovaries

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79
Q

What is Antidiuretic hormone (Vasopressin)?

A

Posterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Increases water reabsorption by the kidneys and causes vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure

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80
Q

What is Oxytocin?

A

Posterior pituitary hormone
Peptide structure
Stimulates milk ejection from breasts and uterine contractions

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81
Q

What are Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

Thyroid hormones
Amine structure
Increases the rates of chemical reactions in most cells, thus increasing body metabolic rate

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82
Q

What is Calcitonin?

A

Thyroid hormones
Peptide structure
Promotes deposition of calcium in the bones and decreases extracellular fluid calcium ion concentration

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83
Q

What is Parathyroid hormone?

A

Parathyroid hormone
Peptide structure
Controls serum calcium ion concentration by increasing calcium absorption by the gut and kidneys and releasing calcium from bones

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84
Q

What is Cortisol?

A

Adrenal Cortex hormone
Steroid structure
Has multiple metabolic functions for controlling metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats; also has anti-inflammatory effects

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85
Q

What is Aldosterone?

A

Adrenal Cortex hormone
Steroid structure
Increases renal sodium reabsorption, potassium secretion, and hydrogen ion secretion

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86
Q

What are Norepinephrine and epinephrine?

A

Adrenal medulla hormones
Amine structure
Same effects as sympathetic stimulation

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87
Q

What is Oestrogen?

A

Ovaries hormone
Steroid structure
Promotes growth and development of female reproductive system, female breasts, and female secondary sexual characteristics

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88
Q

What is Progesterone?

A

Ovaries hormone
Steroid structure
Stimulates secretion of “uterine milk” by the uterine endometrial glands and promotes development of secretory apparatus of breasts

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89
Q

What is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?

A

Placenta hormone
Peptide structure
Promotes growth of corpus luteum and secretion of oestrogens and progesterone by corpus luteum

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90
Q

What is Human somatomammotropin?

A

Placenta hormone
Peptide structure
Probably helps promote development of some fetal tissues, as well as the mother’s breasts

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91
Q

What are the major classes of endocrine hormone?

A

Peptides: linear or ring structures, may bind to carbohydrates, stored in secretory granules, released in pulses or bursts, cleared by circulating enzymes
Amines: use a-adrenoreceptors (PIP2 to IP3 which increases Ca and DAG which activates protein kinase C) OR b-adrenoreceptors (ATP to cAMP via adenylyl cyclase, activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase)
Iodothyronines: 99% protein bound, incorportation of iodine on tyrosine molecules, conjugation to give T£ and T4.
Cholesterol-derivates and steroids: VitD enters cells directly to nucleus, adrenocortical and gonal steroids enter cell and pass to nucleus to induce response, altered to active metabolite and bind to cytoplasmic receptor

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92
Q

How are T3 and T4 made?

A
  • Thyroglobulin is synthesised and discharged into the follicle lumen
  • Iodide is actively transported into the cell from the blood
  • Iodide is oxidised to iodine
  • Iodine is attached to thyrosine in collois, forming DIT and MIT
  • Iodinated tyrosines are linked together to form T3 and T4
  • Thyroglobulin colloid is endocytosed and combined by lysosome
  • Lysosomal enzymes cleave T3 and T4 from thytoglobulin
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93
Q

What is the process of steroid hormone action?

A

Steroid hormone diffuses through plasma membrane and binds to receptor
Receptor-hormone complex enters nucleus and binds to GRE
Binding initiates transcription of gene to mRNA
mRNA directs protein synthesis

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94
Q

How is hormone secretion controlled?

A

Basal secretion - continuously or pulsatile
Superadded rhythms - day-night cycle
Release inhibiting factors
Releasing factors

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95
Q

How is hormone action controlled?

A

Hormone metabolism - increased metabolism to reduce function
Hormone receptor induction - induction of LH receptors by FSH in follicle
Hormone receptor down regulation
Synergism - combined effects of two hormones amplified
Antagonism - one hormone opposes the other hormone

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96
Q

How does the posterior pituitary store Oxytocin and ADH?

A

Hypothalamic neurons synthesise oxytoxin or ADH.
Oxytoxin and ADH are transported down the axons of the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract to the posterior pituitary.
Oxytocin and ADH are stored in axon terminals in posterior pituitary.
When hypothalamic neurons activated, hormones released.

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97
Q

What might be the reasons for pituitary dysfunction?

A

Tumour mass effects
Hormone excess
Hormone deficiency

Hormone tests are important for investigation. If hormone tests are abnormal, perform MRI pituitary.

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98
Q

What does growth hormone do?

A

GH binds to the liver and other tissues
Produces insulin-like growth factor
Skeletal - increased cartilage formation and skeletal growth
Extraskeletal - increased protein synthesis, cell growth and proliferation
Fat metabolism - increased fat breakdown and release
Carbohydrate metabolism - increased blood glucose, anti-insulin effects

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99
Q

What does thyroid hormone do?

A
Accelerate food metabolism
Increases protein synthesis
Stimulation of carbohydrate metabolism
Enhances fat metabolism
Increase in ventilation rate
Increase in CO and HR
Brain development in foetal and postnatal life
Growth rate accelerated
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100
Q

What does appetite, hunger, and satiety mean?

A

Appetite: the desire to eat
Hunger: the need to eat
Satiety: feeling of fullness (disappearance of appetite)

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101
Q

What are the BMI values?

A
<18.5 Underweight
18.5-24.9 Normal
25.0-29.9 Overweight
30.0-39.9 Obese
>40 Morbidly obese
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102
Q

What are the risks of obesity?

A
Type 2 diabetes
Hypertension
Coronary heart disease
Stroke
Osteoarthritis
Obstructive sleep apnea
Carcinoma (breast, endometrium, prostate, colon)
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103
Q

Why do we eat?

A

Internal physiological drive to eat
Feeling that prompts the thought of food and motivates food consumption
External psychological drive to eat
In the absence of hunger

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104
Q

How do the hypothalamus and other factors regulate eating?

A

Lateral hypothalamus (hunger centre)
Ventromedial hypothalamic nucleus (satiety centre)
NPY, MCH, AgRP, Orexin, Endocannabinoid increase desire to eat.
a-MSH, CART, GLP-1, Serotonin decrease desire to eat.
Peripheral factors like leptin (white fat) and insulin (pancreas) also have an impact.
Gut peptides like Ghrelin, PYY, GLP1 and CKK.
Central areas - NPY in arcuate nucleus
Hypothalamus - POMC, MSH, Agouti-related peptide, MC3 and MC4 receptors

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105
Q

What is the action of Leptin?

A

Increase in Leptin decreases appetite
Expressed in white fat
Binds to Leptin receptor (cytokine receptor family in hypothalamus), switches off appetite and is immunostimulatory.
Blood levels increase after meal and decrease after fasting.

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106
Q

What does Peptide YY do?

A

Structurally similar to NPY, binds NPY receptors.
Secreted by neuroendocrine cells in ileum, pancreas and colon in response to food.
Inhibits gastric motility and reduces appetite.

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107
Q

What does Cholecystokinin do?

A

Receptors present in pyloric sphincter - delays gastric emptying, gall bladder contraction and insulin release.

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108
Q

What does Ghrelin do?

A

Expressed in stomach.
Action stimulates growth hormone release, stimulates appetite,
Blood levels high when fasting, fall on re-feeding.
Levels lower after gastric bypass surgery.

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109
Q

What does POMC do?

A

Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is the pituitary precursor of circulating melanocyte stimulating hormone (α-MSH), adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH), and β-endorphin.
If POMC is not present, ACTH deficiency.

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110
Q

What increases satiety as you eat?

A

Stretch receptors in stomach increase satiety
Release of CCK, GLP, insulin, PYY increase sateity
More long-term, leptin, nutrients and temp regulate satiety and hence energy balance

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111
Q

How do Ca levels affect PTH?

A

When serum Ca decreases, this is detected by the parathyroid and parathyroid hormone increases.
This results in increased Ca reabsorption, increased bone modelling and increased Ca absorption.
Small change in Ca, big change in PTH.

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112
Q

Why might the levels of PTH change?

A

Appropriately - to maintain calcium balance

Inappropriately - to cause calcium imbalance

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113
Q

What are the consequences of hypocalcaemia?

A
Parasthesia
Muscle spasm: Hands and feet, Larynx, Premature labour
Seizures
Basal ganglia calcification
Cataracts
ECG abnormalities - long QT interval
– Long QT interval
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114
Q

Why do we need to calculate a corrected calcium value?

A

Low serum albumin means there is a low total serum calcium but not a low ionised calcium
corrected calcium =
total serum calcium + 0.02 * (40 – serum albumin)

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115
Q

What are some of the causes of hypocalcaemia?

A

Undermineralised bone - pseudofractures
Vitamin D deficiency - lack of sunshine, dietary input
Cannot absorb calcium (or phosphate)

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116
Q

What are the signs for Hypocalcaemia?

A

Chvostek’s sign: tap over facial nerve, look for spasm of facial muscles
Trousseau’s sign: inflate blood pressure cuff to 20mmHg above systolic for 5 mins - pointed hand

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117
Q

What are some of the consequences of Hypoparathyroidism?

A
Thymic aplasia
Immunodeficiency
Cardiac defects
Cleft palate
Abnormal facies
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118
Q

What are some of the causes of Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Can be caused by surgical damage (removing the thyroid or neck cancer surgery)
Radiation treatment
Autoimmune effect - isolated or polyglandular type 1
Infiltration - haemochromatosis and wilson’s disease

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119
Q

What happens in Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Low Calcium
Low PTH
High Phosphate
Inappropriate response

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120
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Rare resistance to parathyroid hormone
Sometimes seen in genetic disorders - Mutation with deficient Ga subunit.
Signs: short stature, obesity, round facies, mild learning difficulties, subcutaneous ossification, short fourth metacarpals and other hormone resistance.
Low Ca, High PTH, High Phosphate
Appropriate behaviour

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121
Q

What is pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

Pseudo phenotype
Ca metabolism is normal
PTH, Ca, Phosphate is normal

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122
Q

What are the consequences of hypercalcaemia?

A
Thirst
Polyuria
Nausea
Constipation
Confusion - coma
Renal stones
ECG abnormalities - Short QT
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123
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcaemia?

A

Malignancy – bone mets, myeloma, PTHrP, lymphoma
(80% due to a single benign adenoma on parathyroid)
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Thiazides
Thyrotoxocosis
Sarcoidosis
Familial hypocalciuric / benign hypercalcaemia
Immobilisation
Milk-alkali
Adrenal insufficiency
Phaeochromocytoma

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124
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A
Renal failure (can't activate vitamin D)
Can't absorb calcium from gut or kidnet
Can borrow Ca from bone but only for a bit
Increased Ca, PTH, PO4
Inappropriate response
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125
Q

What’s occurring in the fasting state of a non-diabetic human?

A

All glucose comes from liver (and a bit from kidney)
Breakdown of glycogen and gluconeogenesis
Glucose is delivered to insulin independent tissues, brain and red blood cells
Insulin levels are low
Muscle uses FFA for fuel
Some processes are very sensitive to insulin, even low insulin levels prevent unrestrained breakdown of fat

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126
Q

What’s occurring in the fasting state of a non-diabetic human?

A

After feeding (post prandial) - physiological need to dispose of a nutrient load
Rising glucose (5-10 min after eating) stimulates insulin secretion and suppresses glucagon
40% of ingested glucose goes to liver and 60% to periphery, mostly muscle
Ingested glucose helps to replenish glycogen stores both in liver and muscle
High insulin and glucose levels suppress lipolysis and levels of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA or FFA) fall

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127
Q

Where does insulin and glucagon secretion occur?

A

Islets of Langerhans in the endocrine pancreas
a cells - secrete glucagon
B cells - secrete insulin
Paracrine ‘crosstalk’ between a and B cells is physiological

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128
Q

How does glucose initiate the release of insulin?

A

Glucose enters B cell by GLUT2 glucose transporter with help from glucokinase.
Glucose undergoes metabolism.
K channel closes and depolarises cell membrane
Ca channel opens, Ca enters cell
Insulin secretory granules secrete insulin

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129
Q

How does insulin allow glucose into the cell?

A

Insuliin binds to insulin receptor causing an intracellular signalling cascade.
Intracellular GLUT4 vesicles mobilized to plasma membrane, glucose entry into the cell via GLUT4.

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130
Q

What is the action of insulin?

A

Supresses hepatic glucose output
 Glycogenolysis
 Gluconeogenesis
Increases glucose uptake into insulin sensitive tissues (muscle, fat)
Suppresses Lipolysis and Breakdown of muscle

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131
Q

What is the action of glucagon?

A
Increases hepatic glucose output
 Glycogenolysis
 Gluconeogenesis
Reduce peripheral glucose uptake
Stimulate peripheral release of gluconeogenic precursors (glycerol, AAs) through lipolysis and muscle glycogenolysis and breakdown
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132
Q

How does diabetes mellitus cause morbidity and mortality?

A

Acute hyperglycaemia which if untreated leads to acute metabolic emergencies diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperosmolar coma (Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State )
Chronic hyperglycaemia leading to tissue complications (macrovascular and microvascular)
Side effects of treatment- hypoglycaemia

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133
Q

What are some of the major complications of diabetes mellitus?

A
Diabetic retinopathy
Diabetic nephropathy
Stroke
Cardiovascular disease
Diabetic neuropathy
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134
Q

What are the different types of diabetes?

A

Type 1
Type 2
Includes gestational and medication induced diabetes
Maturity onset diabetes of youth (MODY), also called monozygotic diabetes
Pancreatic diabetes
“Endocrine Diabetes” (acromegaly/Cushings)
Malnutrition related diabetes

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135
Q

How is diabetes diagnostically defined?

A

Symptoms and random plasma glucose > 11 mmol/l
Fasting plasma glucose > 7 mmol/l
No symptoms - GTT (75g glucose) fasting > 7 or 2h value > 11 mmol/l (repeated on 2 occasions)
HbA1c of 48mmol/mol (6.5%)

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136
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Type 1 diabetes?

A

An insulin deficiency disease characterised by loss of beta cells due to autoimmune destruction
Beta cells express antigens of HLA histocompatability system perhaps in response to an environmental event(?virus)
Activates a chronic cell mediated immune process leading to chronic ‘insulitis’

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137
Q

What happens to glucose metabolism in Type 1 diabetes?

A

Failure of insulin secretion leads to continued breakdown of liver glycogen and u nrestrained lipolysis and skeletal muscle breakdown providing gluconeogenic precursors and inappropriate increase in hepatic glucose output and suppression of peripheral glucose uptake
Rising glucose concentration results in increased urinary glucose losses as renal threshold (10mM) is exceeded
Failure to treat with insulin leads to increase in circulating glucagon (loss of local increases in insulin within the islets leads to removal of inhibition of glucagon release), further increasing glucose.
Perceived ‘stress’ leads to increased cortisol and adrenaline. Progressive catabolic state and increasing levels of ketones.

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138
Q

What happens to glucose metabolism in Type 2 diabetes?

A

A consequence of insulin resistance and progressive failure of insulin secretion (but insulin levels are always detectable)
Impaired insulin action leads to
- Reduced muscle and fat uptake after eating
- Failure to suppress lipolysis and high circulating FFAs
- Abnormally high glucose output after a meal
- Even low levels of insulin prevent muscle catabolism and ketogenesis so profound muscle breakdown and gluconeogenesis are restrained and ketone production is rarely excessive

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139
Q

How does the pathophysiology between type 1 and type 2 diabetes differ?

A

Type 1 diabetes
Severe insulin deficiency due to autoimmune destruction of the B cell (initiated by genetic susceptibility and environmental triggers)
Type 2 diabetes
Insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion due to a combination of genetic predisposition and environmental factors (obesity and lack of physical activity)

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140
Q

What are the principles for treatment of Type 2 diabetes?

A

Control of symptoms
Prevention of acute emergencies, ketoacidosis, hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar states
Identification and prevention of long-term microvascular complications
Limited evidence yet that glucose control per se reduces cardiovascular events (confirmed by recent clinical trials, ACCORD, ADVANCE) in the short-term
But long-term follow-up indicates a modest reduction in IHD from tight glucose control if started at diagnosis
HbA1c 50mmol/mol (6.5%) (as low as possible in those not on insulin or sulphonylureas)

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141
Q

What are the two major types of insulin you can take for diabetes?

A

Basal insulin: long-acting

Prandial/meal-time insulin: fast-acting (imitating normal insulin release after meals

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142
Q

What is modern insulin therapy like for T1 diabetics?

A

Separation of basal from bolus insulin to mimic physiology
Pre-meal rapid acting boluses adjusted according to pre-meal glucose and carbohydrate content of food to cover meals
Basal insulin should control blood glucose in between meals and particularly during the night
Basal insulin is adjusted to maintain fasting blood glucose between 5–7 mmol/L

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143
Q

Why does T1 and T2 diabetes require different insulin approaches?

A

T1:
Autoimmune condition (β-cell damage) with genetic component
Profound insulin deficiency
T2:
Insulin resistance
Impaired insulin secretion and progressive β-cell damage but initially continued insulin secretion
Excessive hepatic glucose output
Increased counter-regulatory hormones including glucagon

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144
Q

What is modern insulin therapy like for T2 diabetics?

A

Many people with T2DM require insulin – particularly later in the disease course or in individuals with poor glycaemic control on other medications
In general, basal insulin is initiated followed by addition of a prandial insulin where necessary
Long-acting basal insulin analogues are associated with lower risk of symptomatic, overall and nocturnal hypoglycaemia1
Prandial insulins mimic meal-time insulin secretion2 and their faster action allows for greater flexibility at mealtimes3
Premix insulins are also available

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145
Q

What are the different insulin options?

A

Human basal insulin: intermediate-acting, 90mins onset, peak action 2-4 hrs, duration 24 hrs e.g. NPH
Basal analogues: steady state after 1-2 days, duration 24hrs, e.g. Detemir, Glargine U100
Rapid-onset analogues: 10-20mins onset, peak action 30-90mins, duration 2-5hrs e.g. insulin aspart, insulin lispo, insulin glulisine
Human premixed 70/30: 30mins onset, peak action 2-8 hrs, duration 24hrs e.g. Mixtarol, Humulin M3

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146
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of basal insulin in Type 2

A

Advantages: Simple for the patient, adjusts insulin themselves, based on fasting glucose measurements
Carries on with oral therapy
Less risk of hypoglycaemia at night
Disadvantages: Doesn’t cover meals
Best used with long-acting insulin analogues which are considered expensive.

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147
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages for pre-mixed insulin?

A

Advantages: Both basal and prandial components in a single insulin preparation
Can cover insulin requirements through most of the day
Disadvantages: Not physiological, Requires consistent meal and exercise pattern, Cannot separately titrate individual insulin compononents, increased risk for nocturnal hypoglycaemia and fasting hyperglycaemia if basal component does not last long enough
Often requires accepting higher HbA1c goal of <7.5% or ≤8% (<58 or ≤64 mmol/mol)

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148
Q

How is hypoglycaemia defined?

A

Low plasma glucose causing impaired brain function neuroglycopenia 3mmol/l Clinical definition of hypoglycaemia:
Mild: self-treated (but many episodes are asymptomatic)
Severe: requiring help for recovery (Except in children)
3.9 mmol/L used clinically

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149
Q

How is hypoglycaemia classified into levels?

A
Level 1 (Alert value): Plasma glucose <3.9 mmol/l (70 mg/dl) and no symptoms
Level 2 (Serious biochemical): Plasma glucose <3.0 mmol/l (55 mg/dl)
Non-severe: Patient has symptoms but can self-treat and cognitive function is mildly impaired
Severe: Patient has impaired cognitive function sufficient to require external help to recover (Level 3)
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150
Q

What are the common hypoglycaemia symptoms?

A

Autonomic: trembling, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, hunger
Neuroglycepenic: difficulty concentrating and speaking, confusion, weakness, drowsiness, dizziness, visual impairment
Non-specific: nausea, headache

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151
Q

What are the risk factors of severe hypoglycaemia in T1D?

A
History of severe episodes
HbA1c <6.5% (48 mmol/mol)
Long duration of diabetes
Renal impairment
Impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia
Extremes of age
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152
Q

What are risk factors of severe hypoglycaemia in T2D?

A
Advancing age
Cognitive impairment
Depression
Aggressive treatment of glycaemia
Impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia
Duration of MDI insulin therapy
Renal impairment and other comorbidities
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153
Q

What is the impact of non-severe hypoglycaemia on a patient?

A

Reduced quality of life in both T1DM and T2DM
May cause fear of hypoglycaemia
May cause psychological morbidity

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154
Q

What are the consequences of hypoglycaemia?

A

Seizures, comas, cognitive dysfunction, accidents, fear, poor quality of life, CVD risk

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155
Q

What are the established risk factors to initiate diabetes screening?

A
Low HbA1c; high pre-treatment HbA1c in T2DM
Long duration of diabetes
A history of previous hypoglycaemia
Impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia (IAH)* 
Recent episodes of severe hypoglycaemia
Daily insulin dosage >0.85 U/kg/day
Physically active (e.g. athlete)
Impaired renal function
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156
Q

What are the glucose targets for a T1 diabetic?

A

Aim for lowest HbA1c not associated with frequent hypoglycaemia
It may sometimes be appropriate to relax targets in patients with advanced disease, complications or limited life expectancy
In such patients, aim for glucose levels low enough to minimize symptoms of hyperglycaemia

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157
Q

What are the glucose targets for a T2 diabetic?

A

Aim for lowest HbA1c not associated with frequent hypoglycaemia
HbA1c <7.0% (53 mmol/mol) is usually appropriate for recent-onset disease
It may sometimes be appropriate to relax targets (e.g. severe complications, advanced co-morbidities, cognitive impairment, limited life expectancy, unacceptable hypoglycaemia from stringent control)

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158
Q

How can patient education help prevent hypoglycaemia?

A

Discuss hypoglycaemia risk factors and treatment with patients on insulin or sulphonylureas
Educate patients and caregivers on how to recognize and treat hypoglycaemia
Instruct patients to report hypoepisodes to their doctor/educator
Consider enrolling patients with frequent hypoglycaemiain a blood glucose awareness training programme

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159
Q

How should insulin medication be adjusted for hypoglycaemia?

A

If on an SU (for T2DM), revise dose or consider changing to another drug class
If on basal-bolus insulin, check BG before each meal every day
Ensure medication is dosed correctly
Consider insulin adjustments:
Regular/soluble insulin → rapid-acting insulin
NPH/isophane → insulin analogues
Adjusting insulin in relation to exercise

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160
Q

How should a hypoglycaemic attack be treated?

A

Recognise the symptoms so that they can be treated
Confirm the need for treatment
Treat with 15g of fast-acting carbohydrate
Retest in 15mins to ensure blood glucose is greater tjam 4.0mmol/l
Eat a long-acting carbohydrate to prevent recurrence of symptoms

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161
Q

What are the metabolic changes that occur in pregnancy?

A
Increased erythropoetin, cortisol, noradrenaline
High cardiac output
Plasma volume expansion
High cholesterol and triglycerides
Pro thrombotic and inflammatory state
Insulin resistance
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162
Q

What are some of the potential gestational syndromes that could occur in pregnancy?

A
Pre-Eclampsia
Gestational Diabetes
Obstetric cholestasis
Gestational Thyrotoxicosis
Transient Diabetes Insipidus
Lipid disorders
Postnatal depression
Postpartum thyroiditis
Postnatal autoimmune disease
Paternal Disease
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163
Q

How does the thyroid gland develop?

A

Fetal thyroid follicles and thyroxine synthesis occurs at 10 weeks
Axis matures at 15-20 weeks
Maternal T4 0-12 weeks regulates neurogenesis, migration and differentiation then fetal T4

164
Q

What is hypothyroidism like in pregnancy?

A

2-3 % Prevalence
- Overt hypothyroidism 0.3-0.5 %
- Subclinical hypothyroidism 2-3 %
Signs and symptoms usually predate the pregnancy:
Weight gain, cold intolerance, poor concentration, poor sleep pattern, dry skin, constipation, tiredness,

165
Q

What should TSH be during pregnancy and how often should they be tested?

A
1st trimester 0.1-2.5 mIU/L
2nd trimester 0.2-3.0 mIU/L
3rd trimester 0.3-3.0 mIU/L
4 weekly for 20 weeks gestation
Again 26-32 weeks
166
Q

What causes hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

A

Autoimmune: Hashimotos, Atrophic thyroiditis
Drugs: Lithium, Amiodarone, Iodine Deficiency
Congenital
Toxic nodule
Post partum thyroiditis
Subacute thyroiditis
Hypopituitarism

167
Q

How does hypothyroidism affect the pregnancy?

A

Inadequate treatment: Gestational hypertension, Placental abruption, Post partum haemorrhage
If untreated: Low birth weight, Preterm delivery, Neonatal goitre, Neonatal respiratory distress

168
Q

Who is screened for hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

A
Age >30
BMI >40
Miscarriage preterm labour
Personal or family history
Goitre
Anti TPO 
Type 1 DM
Head and neck irradiation
Amiodarone, Lithium or contrast use
169
Q

What are the treatment options for pregnant women with hypothyroidism?

A

Symptomatic treatment- beta blockers are safe
Anti-thyroid medication
PTU Carbimazole (prevent thyroid peroxidase enzyme coupling and iodinating tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin reduce T3 and T4)
RAI is contraindicated during pregnancy
Surgical interventions- if intolerant, optimal timing 2nd trimester

170
Q

How can you assess an increased risk of fetal/neonatal thyrotoxicosis?

A

TSH-R antibodies (TRAB/TBII) measured at 22-26 weeks
If raised 2-3 fold or present fetal/neonatal thyrotoxicosis risk increased and surveillance needed
Good to test current Graves, past Graves, previous neonate with Graves, etc

171
Q

What is fetal thyrotoxicosis?

A

Transplacental cross over of TSH-R antibodies
Occurs in 0.01 % of cases
Management options anti-thyroid medication
Associated with: IUGR, Fetal goitre, Fetal Tachycardia, Fetal hydrops, Preterm delivery, Fetal demise

172
Q

What is gestational thyrotoxicosis?

A
Limited to the first half of the pregnancy
Raised T4, Low/suppressed TSH
Absence of thyroid autoimmunity
Associated with hyperemesis gravidarum
5-10 cases/1000 pregnancies
Multiple gestation
Hydatidaform mole
Hyperplacentosis
Choriocarcinoma
173
Q

What is amiodarone?

A

A drug that modifies the action of thyroid hormone
Potent anti-arrhythmic
37 % iodine by weight
Lipid soluble
Long elimination half life
14-18 % get abnormalities, Amiodarone Induced Hypothyroidism or Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis

174
Q

Who is at risk of post-partum thyrotoxicosis?

A

Type 1 diabetics
Graves disease in remission
Chronic viral hepatitis

Prevalence 7%
Measure TSH 3 months post partum

175
Q

What is Ipilimumab and what are the endocrinopathies it can cause?

A

Ipilimumab recently recommended by NICE for advanced melanoma
Mode of action: monoclonal antibody, activates immune system by inhibiting CTLA-4 which normally downregulates immune system
Can cause:
Hypophysitis
Hypothyroidism (thyroiditis related)
Hyperthyroidism (thyroiditis related)
Primary Adrenal Insufficiency

176
Q

What is the anatomy of the pituitary gland?

A

1 cm diameter
Difficult to access
Andenohypophysis - anterior part
Neurohypophysis - posterior part (neural tissue, bright on MRI)
Optic chiasm is above (enlargement affects visual ability)

177
Q

How is the pituitary gland supplied with blood?

A

Lies outside the blood-brain barrier
The anterior pituitary has no arterial blood supply but receives blood through a portal venous circulation from the hypothalamus, bringing with it ‘releasing factors’, causing release of hormones.

178
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A

Conductor of the orchestra
(direct association with the hypothalamus)
Regulates many things including growth, thyroid (under/overactivitiy), puberty and steroids.

179
Q

How does TRH cause the production of T3 and T4?

A

Thyrotrophin releasing hormone is produced in the hypothalamus and passes down the venous plexus to the anterior pituitary. Here it binds to the TRH receptor causing cells to release TSH. TSH acts to produce T3 and T4. Secreted in a ratio of T4:T3 14/15:1
T4 is largely inactive so needs to be converted to T3 by deiodinases.
T3 binds to the thyroid hormone receptor, translocated to the nucleus and has effects on gene transcription.

180
Q

What happens in the pituitary gonadal axis in men?

A

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone released by hypothalamus, acts on gonadotrophic cells in the pituitary to produce LH and FSH.
LH required for the formation of testosterone
FHS required for the formation of sperm
If pituitary isn’t working - infertility, reduced sex drive, erectile dysfunction.

181
Q

What is the Hypothalamic-pituitary axis for cortisol?

A

Cortisol is required for life in the face of infection and trauma to the body. CRH acts on the pituitary which causes it to release ACTH which acts on the adrenal glands to release cortisol.
Neg feedback, in the presence of cortisol, reduced CRH, reduced ACTH, reduced cortisol.

182
Q

What is the GH/IGF-1 axis?

A

High GHRH and low SMS from hypothalamus signals the release of growth hormone in the pituitary. Circulation in the blood stream, GH binds to receptors in the liver to cause IGF-1 production (acts to provide neg feedback).

183
Q

How would a mass in the pituitary affect levels of prolactin?

A

Dopamine is released from the lactotroph cells in the anterior pituitary to provide tonic inhibition of prolactin, preventing too much being produced in the pituitary gland.
If there is a mass in the pituitary gland that stops dopamine release, there will be an increased level of prolactin.

184
Q

What are the main pituitary diseases?

A

Benign pituitary adenoma (in anterior pituitary)
Craniopharygioma
Trauma - compression/damage
Apoplexy/Sheehans - bleeding into the pituitary
Sarcoid/TB

185
Q

What effects will a tumour of the pituitary have?

A

Pressure on the local structures e.g. optic nerves - bitemporal hemianopia
Pressure on normal pituitary - hypopituitarism
Functioning tumour - prolactinoma, acromegaly, cushing’s disease

186
Q

How does a pituitary tumour cause pressure on local structures?

A

Impact on superior nasal fibres - tunnel vision
Impact on inferior nasal fibres - peripheral vision impaired
Can map visual fields with a red pin
If it impacts laterally - interfere with oculomotor nerve
Can cause CSF leak if impacting sigmoid sinus
Can impact brain stem (very rare)

187
Q

How does a pituitary tumour cause pressure on normal pituitary?

A
Cause hypopituitarism
Pale - low testerone, anaemic
No body hair - low testerone
Central obesity - low testerone, low growth hormone
In women - menstrual dysfunction
188
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Chronic, excessive and inappropriate elevated levels of circulating plasma glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Red face, excess fat (no growth), truncal obesity, muscle wasting, bruising, thin skin, recurrent non-healing ulcers
Increased and redistributed fat
Protein catabolism causes muscle wasting, thin skin bruising
Androgenic effects: hirsutism, acne

189
Q

What are the possible causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Tumour in pituitary
Tumour elsewhere e.g. lung
Both cause increase in ACTH
Adrenal tumour (ACTH-independent) - tumour makes pituitary resistant to neg feedback

190
Q

What are the clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Carbohydrate metabolism - impaired glucose tolerance, diabetes
Electrolyte disturbance - sodium retention, hypertension, hypokalaemia
Immune suppression - susceptibility to infection
Central effects - malaise, depression, psychosis

191
Q

What are the screening tests for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Urinary free cortisol
Low dose dezamethasone suppression tests
Late night/midnight serum or salivary cortisol

192
Q

What is the treatment for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Reduced steroid dose
Surgery to remove the tumour
Radiotherapy to destroy the tumour
Drugs to reduce the effect of cortisol on the body

193
Q

What is Acromegaly?

A
Growth-hormone secreting tumour
Increased IGF-1
Large hands, sweat a lot, very tall (if you get acromegaly before fusion of epiphyseal plates), thickened jaw, enlargement of soft tissue
Mean age of diagnosis is 44 years olf
Mean duration of symptoms is 8 years
194
Q

What are the co-morbities with acromegaly?

A
Hypertension and heart disease
Sleep apnea
Insulin-resistant diabetes
Arthritic
Cerebrovascular events and headaches
With co-morbidities, life expectancy decreased by 10 years
195
Q

What are presenting clinical features of acromegaly?

A
Acral enlargement
Arthralgies
Maxillofacial changes
Excessive sweating
Headache
Hypogonadal symptoms
196
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosis of acromegaly?

A

Ongoing and excess levels of GH in contract to normal spiking at set times. Normally after being given 75gm oral glucose GH decreases over 0-60mins.
Acrogmegaly excluded if random GH <0.4 ng/ml and normal.
If either abnormal proceed to 75gm glucose tolerance test Acromegaly excluded if IGF-1 normal and GTT nadir GH <1ng/ml

197
Q

What are the objectives of therapy of acromegaly?

A

Restoration of basal GH and IGF-1 to normal levels
Relief of symptoms
Reversal of visual and soft tissue changes
Prevention of further skeletal deformity
Normalization of pituitary function

198
Q

What are the treatment options for acromegaly?

A

Pituitary surgery
Medical therapy
Radiotherapy

199
Q

Why is pituitary surgery the primary therapy for acromegaly?

A

Prospect of cure and cost effective
Will cause a rapid fall in GH
Success is based on:
Size of tumour: microadenoma 90% cure rate, macroadenoma <50% cure rate

200
Q

What are the possible complications of acromegaly?

A
Anasthetic complications
Carotid artery injury
CNS injury
Haemorrhage
Loss of vision
Ophthalmoplegia
Meningitis
Nasal septum perforation
Epistaxis and sinusitis
Hypopituitarism
Diabetes Insipidus
201
Q

How can radiotherapy be used as a treatment for Acromegaly?

A

Damaging DNA, killing cells
- Conventional - mult-fractional every day
- Stereotactic - single fraction, less radiation to surrounding tissues
- Gamma knife - very focused dose and planning
Takes time
Side-effects
Expensive

202
Q

What are the disadvantages of conventional radiotherapy for treating acromegaly?

A
Determinants of efficacy: GH level and size of tumour
Can cause:
Delayed response
Hypopituitarism
Rare secondary tumour
Rare visual defects
203
Q

What medical therapy can be used to treat acromegaly?

A

Dopamine anatogonists - cabergoline
Somatostatin analogues
Growth hormone receptor anatogonists

204
Q

What are dopamine agonists?

A

Used to treat acromegaly
Aims: control GH, IGF-1, improve well-being
Carbergoline is more potent, with less side-effects than Bromocriptine
Advantages: no hypopituitarism, oral administration, rapid onset
Disadvantages: relatively ineffective, side effects

205
Q

What are somatostatin analogues?

A

Used to treat acromegaly
Can’t use human somatostatin because of its short-half life and ability to bind all 5 receptor subtypes
Octreotide - more specific, longer half life
Lanreotide
Injection once a month
Aims: control GH, control IGF-1, clinical improvement
Determinant of success: GH level, tumour size, SMS receptor expression
Disadvantages: side effects, injection

206
Q

What is Pegvisomant?

A
Used to treat acromegaly
A GH analogue, competitive anatagonist for GH receptor, inhibiting cross-dimerisation
Half-life >70 hours
Subcutaneous injection
Very effective
207
Q

What is prolactinoma?

A

Lactotroph cell tumour of the pituitary
More common in women
More common than acromegaly and cushing’s

208
Q

What are the clinical features of prolactinoma?

A

Local effect of tumour: headache, visual field defect (bilateral hemianopia), CSF leak
Effect of prolactin: menstural irregularity, infertility, galactorrhoea, low libido, low testosterone in men

209
Q

What could be causing hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Macroprolactinoma
Microprolactinoma
Non-functioning pituitary tumour - compression of pituitary stalk
Antidopaminergic drugs

210
Q

How is prolactinoma treated?

A

Medical rather than surgery
Dopamine agonists - cabergoline, bromocriptine, quinagolide
Remarkable shrinkage usual with macroadenoma
Microadenoma - small doses of cabergoline once a week

211
Q

How is cortisol release linked to the circadian rhythm?

A

Cortisol is secreted in a very regulated way
10-1am low levels of cortisol
Build up and up until peak at 7/8am
Decrease and decrease over the day
Many metabolic problems can disrupt this rhythm
Glucocorticoids are second messengers from central (suprachiasmatic nucleus) to peripheral regions, using hormonal and neural signals to keep time across the whole body.

212
Q

What are the different types of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Primary - Addison’s disease: most commonly autoimmune adrenalitis, caused by TB infection. Loss of production of glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid and androgens.
Secondary - Hypopituitarism: caused by pituitary macroadenoma, apoplexyl hypophyitis, metastasis, infiltration, infection, radiotherapy, congenital
Tertiary - Suppression of HRA - steroids, oral, inhaler, creams

213
Q

How might adrenal insufficiency be diagnosed?

A

Symptoms: fatigue, weight loss, poor recovery from illness, adrenal crisis, headache
Past history: TB, post-partum bleed, cancer
Family history: autoimmunity, congenital disease
Treatment: any steroids, Etomidate, Ketoconazole
Signs: pigmentation
Biochemistry: low Na, high K, eosinophilia, elevated TSH

214
Q

How to diagnose adrenal insufficiency using biochemical tests?

A

Measured at 9am
>500 nmol/l (unlikely), <100 nmol/l (likely)
ACTH >22 ng/l (primary) <5 ng/l (secondary)
Synacthen test >450 nmol/l (unlikely)

215
Q

How to investigate the cause in adrenal insufficiency?

A

Primary: adrenal antibodies, very long chain fatty acids, 17-Hydroxyprogesterone, imaging, genetic
Secondary: any steroids?, imaging, genetic

216
Q

How to treat adrenal insufficiency?

A

Goal: mirror the normal physiological state
Hydrocortisone (pharmaceutical name for cortisol) twice or three times a day (15-25mg)
In primary, also replace aldosterone with fludrocortisone

217
Q

What does an adrenal crisis look like?

A
Hypotension and cardiovascular collapse
Fatigue
Fever
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia
218
Q

How to manage an adrenal crisis?

A

Take bloods (if poss) for cortisol and ACTH
Immediate hydrocortisone 100mg IV, IM
Fluid resusciatation
Hydrocortisone 50-100mg IV/IM 6 hourly
Primary: fludrocortisone 100-200ug
When stable, wean patient to normal replacement over 24/72 hrs

219
Q

How to encourage patients to prevent adrenal crisis?

A

Carry 10 10mg hydrocortisone tablets
If unwell (fever/flu) take double dose of steroids
If in doubt take double dose
If vomiting or unwell take emergency injection of hydrocortisone
If unable to have injection take 20mg hydrocortisone
Ambulance

220
Q

What’s wrong with the currect hydrocortisone therapy for adrenal insufficency?

A
Poorly mimicking physiological pattern
Increased morbidity and mortality
Impaired quality of life
Increased cardiovascular risk
Osteoporosis
221
Q

What is Chronocort?

A

Investigational product
Gradually released and absorbed over night (dealyed release due to PH coating)
Taken twice daily
Patients feeling better

222
Q

What are the common thyroid diseases?

A

Hyperthyroidism (2.5%)
Hypothyroidism (5%)
Goitre (5-15%)

223
Q

What causes autoimmune hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroglobulin and thyroid perioxidase (TPO) antibodies found in almost all patients with autoimmune hypothyroidism.
Thyroid cell destruction is mediated by cytotoxic T cells and thyroglobulin and thyroid perioxidase may cause secondary damage.
Uncommonly, antibodies against the TSH-receptors may block the effects of TSH.

224
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A
Most common type of hyperthyroidism
Swollen, red and protruding eyes - periorbital oedema
Can lead to blindness
Inappropriate attack of thyroid
Cause: TSH-R antibodies
Stimulate the receptor - hyperthyroidism
Block the receptor - hypothyroidism
225
Q

Why must a mother with hyperthyroidism be monitored?

A

Baby receives antibodies via the placenta
Neonatal hyperthyroidism has a poor prognosis - tachycardia and a failure to thrive
Maternal TSAb levels will predict fetal outcome

226
Q

What constitutes a predisposition to thyroid autoimmunity?

A

Genetic and environmental factors
Being female
HLA-DR3 and other immunoregulatory genes contribute
Environmental: stress, high iodine intake, smoking

227
Q

How does the effects of Graves’ disease change during pregnancy?

A

During pregnancy, often autoimmune diseases get better - downregulation to protect the foetus.
Graves disease and autoimmune thyroiditis often have a reduced impact during pregnancy but then overshoot postpartum.

228
Q

What causes thyroid-associated opthalmopathy?

A

Present in most Grave’s disease patients
Swelling in extraocular muscles
Most likely due to autoantigen in the extraocular muscle that cross reacts with or is identical to a thyroid autoantigen.
Fibroblasts produce glycosaminoglycans which cause water trapping (oedema and muscle swelling), interferes with architecture and can cause vision loss due to compression on the optic nerve.

229
Q

What is a Goitre?

A

Palpable and visible thyroid enlargement
Variety of causes
Most commonly sporadic non-toxic (euthyroid, diffuse, multinodular, solitary nodule, dominant nodule, benign/malignant) but can be autoimmune.

230
Q

What are the 3 main causes of Hyperthyroidism?

A

Overproduction of the thyroid hormone
Leakage of preformed hormone from thyroid
Ingestion of excess thyroid hormone

231
Q

What are the 3 main manifestations of hyperthyroidism?

A

Grave’s disease
Toxic multinodular goitre
Toxic adenoma

232
Q

Which drugs cause drug-induced hyperthyroidism?

A

Iodine - substrate for making thyroid hormone
Amiodarone
Lithium
Radioconstrast agents

233
Q

What are the clinical features of hyperthyroidism?

A

Weight loss, tachycardia, hyperphagia, anxiety, tremor, heat tolerance, sweating, diarrhoea, lid lag and stare, menstrual disturbance.

234
Q

What are the disease-specific clinical signs of hyperthyroidism diseases?

A

Graves’ specific: diffuse goitre, thyroid eye disease, pretibial myxoedema, acropachy
MNG specific: multinodular goitre
Adenoma specific: solitary nodule

235
Q

How is hyperthyroidism diagnosed?

A

Thyroid function to confirm biochemical hyperthyroidism
Diagnosis of underlying cause
Clinical history, physical signs are usually sufficient
Supporting investigations

236
Q

What tests would you use to diagnose hyperthyroidism?

A

Thyroid function tests
Primary: increased T4, T3, suppressed TSH
Secondary: increased T4, T3, inappropriately elevated high TSH
Supporting investigations - thyroid antibodies (TPO, Tg, TRAb) and isotope uptake scan

237
Q

What are the treatment options for hyperthyroidism?

A

Antithyroid drugs (course or long-term)
Radioactive I
Surgery (partial, subtotal thyroidectomy)

238
Q

What are the antithyroid drugs?

A

Reduce the activity of the thyroid
Thioramide - carbimazole (first-line), propylthioural (PTU), methimazole
Decrease synthesis of new thyroid hormone
PTU also inhibits conversion T4 to T3
Do not treat underlying cause but immune modifying effects are seen - decrease IL6 and reduction in antibofy titres

239
Q

What are the different uses of Thioramides?

A

Titration regime (12-18 months)
Block and replace regime with T4 (6-12 months) OR
Short course to render euthyroid before I or surgery OR
Long term treatment in patients unwilling to have I or surgery

240
Q

Who is at risk of relapse after course of antithyroid drugs?

A

Remission rates 30-50%
No definite way to predict remission/relapse for an individual patient
Poor prognosis factors: severe biochemical hyperthyroidism, large goitre, TRAb positive after course, male, young age of disease onset

241
Q

What are the side-effects of thioramides?

A

Generally well tolerated
Rash is most common
Less common: arthralgia, hepatitis, neuritis, thrombocytopenia, vasculitis
Usually occur within the first few months
Resolve after stopping drug

242
Q

What is radioiodine therapy for hyperthyroidism?

A

Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production
I is actively transported by the Na/I symporter into thyroid follicular cells. Radioactive I taken up in the same way.
Emits large B particles of moderate energy within a 1-2mm zone to ionize follicular cells and cause direact damage to DNA and enzymes, indirect damage via free radicals.
Some gamma ray emission.
Half life 8.1 days

243
Q

What are the early and long term effects of radioiodine therapy for hyperthyroidism?

A

Early effects: nercrosis of follicular cells and vascular occlusion
Long term effects: shorter cell survival, impaired replication cells, atropy and fibrosis, chronic inflammation, late hypothyroidism

244
Q

What are the surgery options for hyperthyroidism?

A

Near total thyroidectomy for Graves’ disease and MNG

Near total thyroidectomy/lobectomy for toxic adenoma

245
Q

What are the different types of hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid hormone levels are abnormally low
Primary: absence/dysfunction of thyroid gland, most cases due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Secondary/tertiary: pituitary/hypothalmic dysfunction

246
Q

What are the causes of hypothyroidism in adults?

A

Primary: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, I therapy, thyroidectomy, postpartum thyroiditis, drugs, iodine deficiencym thyroid hormone resistance
Secondary/tertiary: pituitary disease, hypthalamic disease

247
Q

What are the causes of hypothyroidism in children?

A

Thyroid agenesis, thyroid ectopia, thyroid dyshormonogenesis
Resistance to thyroid hormones
Isolated TSH deficiency

248
Q

Which drugs can cause hypothyroidism?

A

Iodine (inorganic/organic), iodide, iodinated contrast agents, amiodarone
Lithium
Thionamides
Interferon-a

249
Q

What are the clinical features of hypothyroidism?

A

Fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, menstural disturbance, muscle cramps, slow cerebration, dry, rough skin, periorbital oedema, delayed muscle reflexes, carotenaemia, oedema

250
Q

How can hypothyroidism be investigated?

A

Primary: increased TSH, usually decreased T4 and T3 (may be low normal), positive titre of TPO antibodies in Hashimoto’s
Secondary/tertiary: TSH inappropriately low for reduced T4/T3

251
Q

How can hypothyroidism be treated?

A

Of choice: synthetic L-thyroxine (T4)
Older treatments: dessicated thyroid
Requirements vary according to cause
Caution in patients with IHD

252
Q

How is hypothyroidism treatment monitored?

A

Primary: dose titrated until TSH normalises, T4 half-life, check levels 6-8 weeks after dose adjustment
Secondary/tertiary: TSH will always be low. T4 is monitored.

253
Q

How are the complications of diabetes classified?

A
Macro:
- Stroke
- MI
- Cardiovascular disease
- Peripheral vascular disease - increases risk of amputations
Micro
- Diabetic retinopathy - leading cause of blindness
- Diabetic nephropathy
- Diabetic neuropathy
254
Q

What is diabetic neuropathy?

A

Affects 30-50% patients with diabetes
evere pain in lower limbs - burning, praesthesia, hyperaesthesia, allodynia, worse at night (noctural exacerbation).
Autonomic problems - orthostatic hypotension, gastroparesis, diarrhoea, constipation, incontinence, erectile dysfunction
Insensitivity - foot ulceration, infection, amputation, falls, Charcot foot
All lead to reduced quality of life.
Cannot reverse neuropathy pathogenically, but can treat the symptoms.

255
Q

What is Diabetic peripheral neuropathy (DPN)?

A

Typical ‘glove and stocking’ sensory loss
Significant motor deficit is not common
Painful symptoms in 30%

256
Q

What are the risk factors for diabetic neuropathy?

A

Hypertension
Poor diabetes control
Lipidemia
Microvascular complications are preventable through rigorous hyperglycaemic control

257
Q

How can diabetic neuropathy be treated?

A

Good glycaemic control
Tricyclic antidepressants / SSRIs
Anticonvulsants (carbamazepine, Gabapentin)
Opiods (Tramadol, oxycodone)
IV lignocaine
Capsaicin
Transcutaneous nerve stimulation / acupuncture / spinal cord stimulators
Psychological interventions / hypnosis - aware that chronic pain can easily lead to depression

The best we can achieve is 50% pain relief in ⅓ of patients. Many patients still suffer considerably.

258
Q

What is Diabetic foot ulceration (DFU)?

A

Common cause for hospital bed occupancy - expensive
15% of diabetics
Increased risk of lower limb amputations and mortality
Loss of sensitivity - patient cannot feel the trauma
Most sensory neuron based, but can also affect motor nerve damage which causes high-arches and prominent heads of toes. Clawed appearance.
Foot is deformed which means shoes don’t fit as well, increasing the risk of trauma.
Can cause calluses with bleeding underneath.
Sweating moisturises the skin keeping it supple, autonomic damage means that sweating is reduced leading to very dry feet.
One of the biggest causes of ulceration is inappropriate footwear.

259
Q

What are the screening test for diabetic neuropathy?

A

Test sensation – 10 gm monofilament – neurotips
Vibration perception – Tuning fork – biothesiometer
Ankle reflexes

260
Q

What is Peripheral vascular disease?

A

Complication of diabetes
Decreased perfusion due to macrovascular disease
Sites: more distal
15-40 times more likely to have lower limb amputation
Symptoms:
Intermittent claudication - walk for a certain distance before needing to stop due to cramping
Rest pain - waking up with intense pain in their feet, relieved by standing up and walking around

261
Q

What are the clinical signs of peripheral vascular disease?

A

Diminished or absent pedal pulses
Coolness of the feet and toes
Poor skin and nails
Absence of hair on feet and legs

262
Q

How to assess for peripheral vascular disease?

A

Methods – Doppler pressure studies (ABI) – duplex arterial imaging/MRA
Rationale – identify and confirm disease – predict healing or determine need for surgical intervention

Doppler ultrasound – pressure at brachial, pedal and toe arteries
Ankle Brachial Index (ABI) <0.9 abnormal 0.9 to 1.0 normal >1.3 non-compressible

263
Q

How to treat peripheral vascular disease?

A

Quit smoking
Walk through pain - increase circulation to build up an ability to walk further before pain kicks in
Surgical intervention

264
Q

How to try to prevent the need for amputations in diabetics?

A

Screening to identify risk
Education and providing orthotic shoes
MDT foot clinic
Pressure relieving footwear, podiatry, revascularisation, antibiotics

265
Q

Who is at risk of Diabetic Retinopathy?

A
Diabetics WITH:
Long duration diabetes
Poor glycaemic control
Hypertensive
On insulin treatment
Pregnancy
266
Q

What is eye screening for diabetics?

A

Effective way of detecting early DR
DoH set up the National Screening Programme
Eligibility: >11 yrs old
Once registered patients receive an invitation letter
2 field retinal photography
Screeners grade photographs and reports sent to GP

267
Q

What’s the pathology behind diabetic retinopathy?

A

Pathogenesis – Micro-aneursyms
Pericyte loss and smooth muscle cell loss
Micro-aneurysms
MA’s adjacent to or upstream of capillary gives non-perfusion

Pathogenesis - Leakage
Basement membrane thickening
Pericyte loss
Reduces junctional contact with endothelial cells
LEAKAGE

Pathogenesis - Ischaemia
Pericyte loss, endothelial cells respond by increasing turnover > thickening > ISCHAEMIA
Glial cells grow down capillaries > OCCLUSION
Ischaemia/Occlusion > Proliferation

268
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy treated?

A
Laser Therapy
Only proven treatment for DR
The benefits outweigh the risks
Aim is to stabilise changes
Treatment does not improve sight
OP treatment over one or more visits

Can be performed just at the periphery or scattered.

269
Q

How successful is laser therapy in treating diabetic retinopathy?

A

If treatment is given at the correct stage it is very effective
Over 90% of severe sight loss prevented by laser for early proliferative retinopathy
Laser of macular changes prevents 60%

But many people report difficulty with night vision, tunnel vision, peripheral vision, drop in visual acuity, vitreous haemorrhage.

270
Q

What is diabetic nephropathy?

A

Hallmark is development of proteinuria - using a urine dipstick
Followed by progressive decline in renal function
Major risk factor for CVD
Risk factors are poor BP and BG control

Changes to glomerulus - thickening of the basal membrane, leakage of the matrix, destroying the architecture, clogs up the glomerulus and stops the filtration of the kidneys.

Loss of integrity of the basal membrane means that there is an increased filtration of proteins which shouldn’t normally be there.

271
Q

What might cause a false positive in albumin/creatinine?

A

Many reasons for false positives - Exercise, infection, fever, congestive heart failure, marked hyperglycemia, marked hypertension, pregnancy, urinary tract infection, haematuria and menstruation
So the measurements are confirmed with at least two specimens (preferably first morning midstream void), collected within a 3–6 month.

272
Q

How does nephropathy differ between T1 and T2 diabetics?

A

Microalbuminuria develops 5-10 yrs of diagnosis in T1 whereas Microalbuminuria can be present at time of diagnosis in T2.
Data from the last 10 years show a decline in T1DM DN

273
Q

How can diabetic nephropathy be treated?

A
Blood pressure control
Glycemic control
ARB / ACEi
Proteinuria control - referred to dieticians
Cholesterol control - with statins
274
Q

How can the burden of T2 diabetes be reduced?

A

Early treatment and prevention key to reducing T2DM burden
Intensive diet and exercise programmes can delay onset or prevent T2DM
Including use of metformin and thiazolidinediones

275
Q

What are the treatment options for diabetics after Metformin?

A

Sulphonylurea
Incretin based agents
SGLT-2 inhibitors
Insulin

276
Q

How does diabetic therapy lead to weight gain?

A

Poor glycaemic control increases metabolic rate and consequently, improving glycaemic control decreases metabolism. If calorie intake is not modified accordingly, then weight will increase.
Improving metabolic control reduces glucosuria (excretion of glucose through the urine), thus fewer calories are lost in this manner.
Normally, insulin suppresses food intake through its effect on CNS appetite control pathways. It has been suggested that this effect of insulin is lost in diabetes patients.
Fear of hypoglycaemia may lead to increased snacking between meals, thus increasing calorie intake.

277
Q

What are incretins?

A

Incretins are hormones secreted by intestinal endocrine cells in response to nutrient intake
Incretins influence glucose homeostasis via multiple actions including glucose-dependent insulin secretion, postprandial glucagon suppression, and slowing of gastric emptying.

278
Q

What are DPP-4 Inhibitors?

A

Dipeptidyl-peptidase 4 (DPP-4) is an enzyme present in vascular endothelial lining which inactivates the incretin hormones GIP and GLP-1
DPP-4 Inhibitors are competitive antagonists of the DPP-4 enzyme - enhancing the effects of both GIP and GLP-1
Glucose dependent reduction in fasting and postprandial glucose levels in addition to decreasing glucagon secretion.
Orally available
Little effect on gastric emptying
Do not cause nausea/ vomiting
Low risk hypoglycaemia.
Body weight unchanged

279
Q

What are GLP-1 analogues?

A
Injectable only
Large increase in GLP-1 level
Induces delay in gastric emptying
Likely to induce nausea/ vomiting	
Induces weight loss = 3/4 kg
Effects are mediated by GLP-1 Receptor
280
Q

What are TZDs?

A

Thiazolidinediones
Both effective glucose lowering agents
Positive effects on the metabolic syndrome
Contraindicated in CCF, high risk of fractures, macula oedema – it can make these conditions worse
Becoming less popular

281
Q

What are SGLT-2 Inhibitors?

A

Empaglifozin, Dapaglifozin, Canaglifozin
Current treatments are act as insulin secretagogues or sensitisers
Work on the kidneys by reducing the reabsorption of glucose in the proximal convoluted tubule
Don’t cause weight gain
Increased risk of genito-urinary infections
SGLT-2i efficacy declines with increasing renal impairment
May cause hypotension

282
Q

What is bariatric surgery?

A

BMI 35 with diabetes are eligible to be referred for bariatric surgery.
Two procedures
Roux-en-Y bypass: creating a small pouch from the stomach and connecting the newly created pouch directly to the small intestine
Sleeve : a surgeon reduces the stomach to a sleeve-like shape by removing much of it. The surgery is irreversible and can help people lose a large proportion of their body weight

283
Q

What are the glucose levels of a healthy individual like in the fasting state?

A

In the fasting state,
All glucose comes from liver
- Breakdown of glycogen
- Gluconeogenesis (utilises 3 carbon precursors to synthesise glucose including lactate, alanine and glycerol)
Glucose is delivered to insulin independent tissues, brain and red blood cells
Insulin levels are low
Muscle uses FFA for fuel

284
Q

What are the glucose levels of a healthy individual like after feeding?

A

After feeding
Physiological need to dispose of a nutrient load
Rising glucose (5-10 min after eating) stimulates insulin secretion and suppresses glucagon
40% of ingested glucose goes to liver and 60% to periphery, mostly muscle
Ingested glucose helps to replenish glycogen stores both in liver and muscle
High insulin and glucose levels suppress lipolysis and levels of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA or FFA) fall

285
Q

How does excessive fat storage and physical inactivity promote insulin resistance?

A

A number of circulating hormones, cytokines, and metabolic fuels, such as non-esterified (free) fatty acids (NEFA) originate in the adipocyte and modulate insulin action. An increased mass of stored triglyceride, especially in visceral or deep subcutaneous adipose depots, leads to large adipocytes that are themselves resistant to the ability of insulin to suppress lipolysis. This results in increased release and circulating levels of NEFA and glycerol, both of which aggravate insulin resistance in skeletal muscle and liver.

286
Q

Where do vasopressin and oxytocin originate from?

A

Vasopression and oxytocin are made in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei and transported to the posterior pituitary gland to be released into the bloodstream.
PVN and SON receive afferent fibres from the osmoreceptors which determine whether signals are fired to cause secretion.

287
Q

What are the different types of vasopressin?

A

V1a -vasculature
V2 - principal cells in the renal collecting tubules (reabsorption of water)
V1b - pituitary

288
Q

What is vasopressin’s release controlled by?

A

Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus (day to day)

Baroreceptors in brainstem and greater vessels (emergency)

289
Q

How is osmolarity and osmolality different?

A

In plasma osmolality is very similar to osmolarity but the concentration is slightly different as approx 6% of volume is made up of lipids and proteins.

290
Q

What is normal osmolality?

A

282-295 mOsmol/kg

291
Q

How does osmolality change vasopression secretion?

A

As you increased osmolality, there is an increase in vasopression release.

292
Q

What are some of the diseases associated with the posterior pituitary?

A

Lack of vasopression - cranial diabetes insipidus
(uncommon but life-threatening)
Resistance to the action of vasopressin - nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (uncommon but life-threatening)
Too much vasopression - syndrome of ADH secretion (common and life-threatening)

293
Q

What are the signs of diabetes insipidus?

A

Polyuria
Polydypsia
No glycosuria

294
Q

What are the biochemistry results for diabetes insipidus?

A

Inappropriately dilate urine for plasma osmolality
Serum osmo >300 and urine somo <200
Normonatraemia or hypernatraemia

295
Q

What are the causes of acquired DI?

A

Idiopathic
Tumours - craniopharyngioma, germinoma, metastases
Trauma
Infections - TB, encephalitis, meningitis
Vascular - aneurysm, infarction, Sherrlan’s, sickle cell
Inflammatory - neurosarcoidosis, Langerhan’s histiocytosis, Guillain Barre, Granuloma

296
Q

What are the causes of primary DI?

A

DIMOAD (Wolfram syndrome)
Autosomal dominant
Rarelt autosomal recessive

297
Q

What’s the difference between cranial and nephrogenic DI?

A

Cranial - absence of osmolality-related release of vasopression
Nephrogenic - familial
X-linked - V2 receptor defect
Autosomal - aquaporin Z defect

298
Q

How would you test vasopression levels?

A

AVP’s instability makes it difficult to measure
Water deprivation test
Hypertonic saline infusion and measure AVP
Copeptin measurement - there are equimolar amounts of AVP and Copeptin (cut off from same peptide), can be quickly and easily measured

299
Q

How would you differentiate between cranial and nephrogenic DI?

A
Water deprivation test
No access to water
Then given 2ug of desmopression
CDI will return to normal values in the plasma and urine osmolality
NDI no effec
300
Q

How would you manage cranial DI?

A

Treat any underlying condition
Desmopressin - high activity at the V2 receptor
Tablets, nasal spray or injection

301
Q

How would you manage nephrogenic DI?

A

Try to avoid precipitating drugs

High dose of desmopressin in congenital DI

302
Q

What is Hyponatraemia?

A

Serum sodium <135mmol/l
Biochemical severe <125mmol/l
Normal serum sodium 135-144 mmol/l
Usually caused by excess water rather than salt loss

303
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hyponatraemia?

A

Moderate
Headache, irritability, nausea/vomiting, mental slowing, unstable gait, confusion/delirium, disorientation
Severe
Stupor/coma, convulsions, respiratory arrest

304
Q

How does the brain respond to hyponatraemia?

A

Immediate effect: water gain
Rapid adaption: loss of sodium, potassium, chloride
Slow adaption: loss of organic osmolytes

305
Q

What investigations would you do in hyponatraemia?

A
Plasma and urine osmolality
Urinary Na, Glucose
TFTs
Assessment of cortisol
Assessment of underlying causes
306
Q

How do you manage chronic hyponatraemia?

A

Fluid overload due to liver cirrohosis/liver, CHF - fluid restrict
Normovolaemic in SIADH - fluid restrict
Dehydrated in diarrhoea, burns, pancreatitis, diuretic - saline replacement

307
Q

What is SIADH?

A
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
Common cause of hyponatraemia
Too much ADH
Plasma Na is low
Urine is inappropriately concentrated
Increased GFR
308
Q

How would you manage SIADH?

A

Diagnose and treat underlying condition
Fluid restriction <1 L/24 hours
Sometimes demeclocycline/vaptan

309
Q

What is osmotic demyelination syndrome?

A

White areas in the middle of the pons
Massive demyelination of descending axons
May take up to 2 weeks to manifest

310
Q

What are the risk factors for ODS?

A
Serum Na <105mmol/L
Hypokalaemia
Chronic excess alcohol
Malnutrition
Advanced liver disease
311
Q

How would you manage ODS?

A
Tolvaptan - selective V2 receptor oral antagonist
Competitive antagonist to AVP
Causes profound 'aquaresis'
Expensive
Also licensed for SIADH
312
Q

How is the anterior and posterior pituitary gland different?

A

Anterior lobe - glandular tissue, accounts for 75% of total weight
Posterior lobe - nerve tissue and contains axons that originate in the hypothalamus

313
Q

What are the different types of pituitary mass lesions?

A
Non-functioning pituitary adenomas
Malignant pituitary tumours
Metastases in the pituitary (breast, lung, stomach, kidney)
Pituitary cysts
Developmental abnormalities
Primary tumours of the CNS
Vascular tumours
Malignant systemic diseases
Granulomatous diseases
Vascular aneurysms
314
Q

How does the pituitary gland develop?

A

Develops from the roof of the mouth, forms Rathke’s pouch
Stalk of Rathke’s pouch degenerates, forming anterior pituitary fland
Hypothalamus produces neural lobe, joined by infundibulum
Intermediate lobe between the two

315
Q

What is a craniophrayngioma?

A

Arises from squamous epithelial remnants of Rathke’s pouch
Benign tumours although infiltrates surrounding structures
Adamantinous - cyst formation and calcification
Squamous papillary - well circumscribed
Peak ages 5-14 years old, 50-74 years old

316
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of craniophrayngioma?

A
Solid, cystic, mixed tumour that extends into supra sellar region
Raised ICP
Visual disturbances
Growth failure
Pituitary hormone deficiency
Weight increase
317
Q

What is Rathke’s cyst?

A

Derived from the remnants of Rathke’s pouch
Single layer of epithelial cells with mucoid, cellular, or serous components in cyst fluid
Mostly intrasellar components, may extend into the parasellar area
Mostly asymptomatic and small
Present with headache, amenorrhoea, hypopituitarism, hydrocephalus.

318
Q

What is Meningoma?

A

Commonest tumour of the region after a pituitary adenoma
Complication of radiotherapy
Associated with visual disturbance and endocrine dysfunction
Usually present with loss of visual acuity, endocrine dysfunction and visual field defects

319
Q

What is lymphatic hydrophysitis?

A

Inflammation of the pituitary gland due to an autoimmune reaction
More common in women
Pregnancy or post-partum

320
Q

What is a non-functioning pituitary adenoma?

A

Diagnosed between 20 and 60 years of age
Most express gonadotropins or subunits
Signs of aggressiveness: large size, cavernous sinus invasion, lovulated suprasellar margins

321
Q

How would you test pituitary function?

A

Complex because there are many hormones involved (GH, LH/FSH, ACTH, TSH and ADH) - may have deficiency in one or all. Circadian rhythms and pursatile so different concentrations at different times.
Guiding principle - if the peripheral organ is working the pituitary is working

322
Q

What do different levels of TSH and free T4 indicate?

A

Primary hypothyroid - high TSH, low FT4
Hypopituitary - normal or low TSH, low FT4
Graves’ disease - low TSH, high FT4
TSHoma - normal or high TSH, high FT4
Hormone resistance - normal or high TSH, high FT4

323
Q

What do different levels of testerone and LH/FSH indicate in men?

A

Primary hypogonadism - low T, high FSH/LH
Hypopituitary - low T, normal or low FSH/LH
Anabolic use - low T, suppressed LH

324
Q

How does the levels of oestrodiol, FSH and LH change over a woman’s lifetime?

A

Before puberty - oestradiol is very low, low FSH/LH
Puberty - pulsatile LH and oestradiol increases
Post menarche - monthly menstural cycle with LH/FSH, mid cycle surge in LH and FSH and levels of oestradiol increasing throughout cycle
Menopause/primary ovarian failure - high LH and FSH, low oestradiol

325
Q

What happens to oestrodiol, FSH and LH in hypopituitary?

A

Oligo or amenhorrhoea with low oestradiol

Normal or low LH and FSH

326
Q

What happens to cortisol and ACTH in hypopituitarism?

A

Low cortisol (measured at 0900h)
Low or normal ACTH
Poor response to synacthen (to stimulate ACTH)

327
Q

What is the pattern of GH secretion over the day?

A

GH is secreted in pulses with greatest pulse at night
Low or undetectable levels between pulses
GH levels fall with age and are low in obesity

328
Q

How would you measure prolactin levels?

A

Measure prolactin or cannulated prolactin (3 samples over an hour to exclude effects of stress of venepuncture)

329
Q

Why might prolactin be raised?

A

Stress
Drugs - antipsychotics
Stalk pressure
Prolactinoma

330
Q

How is dynamic testing useful for looking at the pituitary gland?

A

Dynamic stimulation/suppression testing may be useful in select cases to further evaluate pituitary reserve and/or pituitary function

331
Q

Why might you use an MRI to look at the pituitary gland?

A

Preferred imaging study
Better visualisation of soft tissues and vascular structures
No exposure to ionizing radiation

332
Q

Why might you want to use a CT?

A

Better at visualising bony structures and calcifications within soft tissues
Better at determining diagnosis of tumours with calcifications such as germinomas, craniopharyngiomas, meningiomas
May be useful when MRI is contraindicated such as in patients with pacemakers or metallic implants in brain/eyes

333
Q

What are the disadvantages of a CT scan?

A

Less optimal soft tissue imaging compared to MRI
Use of intravenous contrast media
Exposure to radiation

334
Q

What happens when there is deficiency in pituitary hormones?

A

GH - short stature, abnormal body composition, reduced muscle mass, poor quality of life
LH/FSH - hypogonadism, reduced sperm count, infertility, mensturation problems
TSH - hypothyroidism
ACTH - adrenal failure, decreased pigment
ASH - DI

335
Q

How do you replace thyroxine?

A

Levothyroxine
Aim to achieve levels to mid to upper half of reference tange
Check level before dose
Higher doses needed in pregnancy or patients on oestrogens

336
Q

How do you replace growth hormone?

A
<60 years 0.2-0.4mg a day
>60 years 0.1-0.2mg a day
Aiming for mid range IGF-1 levels
Measure IGF1 6 weeks after dose starts
Should improve lipid profile, body composition and bone mineral density
337
Q

How would you replace testosterone?

A

Different types of formulations - gels, injections, oral
Follow testosterone levels, FBC and PSA
Should improve bone mineral density, libido, function, energy levels, sense of wellbeing, muscle mass and reduce fat.

338
Q

How would you replace oestrogen?

A

Oral oestrogen or combined oestrogen/progesterone forumulations
Can be transdermal, topical gel, intravaginal cream
Reduced risk of CVD, osteoporosis and mortality

339
Q

How can desmopressin be taken?

A

Different formulations - subcutaneously, orally, intra-nasally, sublingually
Adjust according to symptoms
Monitor sodium levels

340
Q

What are the clinical definitions of Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

Symptoms with…
Random plasma glucose > 11mmol/L
Fasting plasma glucose > 7mmol/L

No symptoms with
Fasting plasma glucose > mmol/L
HbA1c 48 mmol/mol

341
Q

What are the presenting features of Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

Thirst - osmotic activation of hypothalamus
Polyuria - osmotic diuresis
Weight loss - lipid and muscle loss due to unrestained gluconeogenesis
Hunger - lack of useable energy source
Pruritis vulvae and balanitis
Blurred vision - altered acuity due to uptake of glucose/water into lens

342
Q

When do people get Type 1 diabetes?

A

Onset is usually in childhood/adolescence (5-15 years)
Can occur at any age and the spectrum of presentation depends on the rate of B cell destruction
By the time someone is diagnosed, they have about 10% of functioning B cells left.
Decreasing over lifetime

343
Q

When do people usually get Type 2 diabetes?

A

Usually presents in over 30s
Onset is gradual
Family history is usually positive

344
Q

How can you distinguish between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A

Can be difficult
Type 2 is also diagnosed in younger patients, including childhood
Type 1 patients can also be obese!

345
Q

How is Type 1 diabetes linked with autoimmunity?

A

Associated with antibodies Anti-GAD, pancreatic islet cell antibody, islet antigen-2 antibody, ZnT8
Associated with other autoimmune diseases like Hypothyroidism, Addisons, Coeliac disease

346
Q

What happens if the diagnosis of type 1 diabetes is missed?

A

Fat metabolism - reduced insulin leads to fat breakdown and formation of glycerol and free fatty acids
Ketone bodies - free fatty acids impair glucose uptake, and are transported to the liver providing energy for gluconeogenesis, oxidised to form ketone bodies

347
Q

How does type 1 diabetes cause ketoacidosis?

A

Absence of insulin and rising counteregulatory hormones leads to hyperglycaemia and increased ketones.
Glucose and ketones escape in the urine and lead to an osmotic diuresis and falling circulatory blood volume.
Ketones (weak organic acids) cause anorexia and vomiting.
Viscous cycle of increasing dehydration, hyperglycaemia and increasing acidosis eventually leading to circulatory collapse and death.

348
Q

What is Diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Hyperglycaemia (plasma glucose is usually <50mmol/l)
Raised plasma ketones (urine ketones >2)
Metabolic acidosis - plasma bicarbonate (<15 mmol/l)

349
Q

What triggers diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Unknown (40-50%)
Interccurrent illness - infection, MI
Treatment errors
Previously undiagnosed diabetes

350
Q

What are the clinical features of ketoacidosis?

A

Symptoms develop over days
Polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, weakness, abdominal pain, drowsiness/confusion
Signs: hyperventilation (kussmal breathing), dehydration, hypotension, tachycardia, coma

351
Q

What is a biochemical diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis based upon?

A
Hyperglycaemia (<50 mmol/l)
High K on presentation despite total body K deficit (due to acute shift of K out cell with acidosis)
HCO3 <15 mmol/l
Raised urea and creatinine
Urine ketone >2+
Blood ketone 3
352
Q

How would you manage diabetic ketoacidosis?

A
Rehydration (3L first 3 hours)
Insulin (inhibits lipolysis, ketogenesis, acidosis, reduced hepatic glucose production, increase tissue glucose uptake)
Replacement of electrolytes
Treat underlying cause
Treatment must be started without delay
353
Q

What are the complications associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A
Cerebral oedema
Adult respiratory distress syndrome
Thromboembolism
Aspiration pneumonia
Death
354
Q

What are the aims of treatment in Type 1 diabetes?

A

Relieve symptoms and prevent ketoacidosis

Prevent microvascular and macrovascular complications

355
Q

What are the microvascular complications of diabetes?

A

30% Diabetic nephropathy

Also tend to develop proliferative retinopathy and severe neuropathy with major effect on quality of life.

356
Q

How can you restore the physiology of the beta cell?

A

Insulin treatment - twice daily mixture of short/medium acting insulin (with or without pre meal quick acting insulin)
Balancing carbohydrate intake and exercise

357
Q

How does insulin by medication differ from natural release in the body?

A

Insulin goes through the subcutaneous route rather than straight into the bloodstream, so it will be different to normal release.

358
Q

What are the symptoms of a hypoglycaemic event?

A

Shaking, fast heartbeat, sweating, dizziness, anxious, hunger, impaired vision

359
Q

How does hypoglycaemia progress as the concentration of glucose drops?

A

4.6 mM Inhibition of insulin secretion
3.8 mM Counter-regulatory hormone release (glucagon and adrenaline)
3.8-2.8 mM Autonomic symptoms: sweating, tremor, palpitations
<2.8 mM Neuroglycopenic symptoms: confusion, drowsiness, altered behaviour, speech difficulty, incoordination
<1.5 mM Severe neuroglycopenic: convulsions, coma, focal neurological deficit

360
Q

What are insulin pumps?

A

Insulin pumps are small, computerized devices that mimic the way the human pancreas works by delivering small doses of short acting insulin continuously (basal rate). The device also is used to deliver variable amounts of insulin when a meal is eaten (bolus).

361
Q

What is DAFNE?

A

DAFNE is a method of managing type 1 diabetes for adults. DAFNE stands for Dose Adjustment for Normal Eating. The primary goal of DAFNE is to help diabetics live the most normal life possible, whilst keeping blood glucose levels stable and lowering the risk of diabetes complications.

362
Q

What is the dilemma for those with type 1 diabetes?

A

Setting higher glucose targets will reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia but increase the risk of diabetic complications
Setting lower glucose will reduce risk of compliciation but increase the risk of hypoglycaemia

363
Q

What factors make it difficult for people to sustain effective self-management?

A
Risk of hypoglycaemia
Too arduous a treatment
Risk of weight gain
Interference with lifestyle
Lack of sufficient training
364
Q

What is the prognosis for Type 1 diabetes?

A

2/3 of all patients can expect a good life expectancy with minor complications
Tight glucose control will increase this proportion but sometimes at the expensive of hypoglycaemia and weight gain

365
Q

What is MODY?

A
Maturity-onset diabetes of the young
Commonest type of mongenic diabetes
Diagnosed <25 years
Autosomal dominant - single gene defect altering beta cell function
Tend to be non-obese
366
Q

What mutations can cause MODY?

A

Transcription factor MODY
Hepatic nuclear factor mutations alter insulin secretion, reduce beta cell proliferation

HNF1A mutation (MODY3)
Very sensitive to suphonylurea treatment so often don't need insulin

HNF4A mutation (MODY1)
Family history, young age-of-onset, non-obese
Macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycaemia

Glucokinase gene mutation (MODY2)
GCK is the glucose-sensor of the beta cells and controls the release of insulin
Mild diabetes, no treatment required

367
Q

Which patients might have MODY?

A

Parent affected with diabetes
Absence of islet autoantibodies
Evidence of non-insulin dependence - good control on low dose insulin, no ketosis, measurable C-peptide
Sensitive to sulphonylurea

368
Q

Is C-peptide present in Type 1, Type 2 and MODY?

A

In type 1 diabetes C-peptide is negative within 5 years due to complete autoimmune beta cell destruction
Type 2 and MODY C-peptide persists

369
Q

What is permanent neonatal diabetes?

A

First appears within the first 6 months of life and persists throughout the lifespan.
Signs: small babies, epilepsy, muscle weakness

370
Q

What is the pathophysiology of permanent neonatal diabetes?

A

Mutations in Kir6.2 and SUR1 subunits of the beta cell ATP sensitive K channel
Rising ATP closes the channel as a result of hyperglycaemia, depolarising the membrane and insulin is secreted.
Mutations prevent the closure of the channel and thus beta cells are unable to secrete insulin.
Sulphonylureas close the K ATP channels.

371
Q

What is MIDD?

A

Maturally inherited diabetes and deafness
Mutation in mitocondrial DNA
Similar presentation to Type 2
Wide phenotype

372
Q

What is Lipodystrophy?

A

Selective loss of adipose tissue

Associated with insulin resistance, dyslipidaemia, hepatatic steatosis, hyperandrogenism, PCOS

373
Q

What are the major disease of the exocrine pancreas?

A

Inflammatory
Acute - usually transient hyperglycaemia due to increased glycagon secretion
Chronic pancreatitis
- Alcohol
- Alters secretions, formation of proteinaeceous plugs that block ducts and act as foci for calculi
Stop alcohol and treat with insulin

374
Q

What is hereditary hemochromatosis?

A

Autosomal recessive
Triad of cirrhosis, diabetes and bronzed hyperpigmentation
Excess iron deposited in liver, pancreas, pituitary, heart, parathyroids

Most need insulin

375
Q

What is a pancreatic neoplasm?

A

Common cause of cancer death
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer include pain in the back or stomach, unintended weight loss and yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Require subcutaneous insulin
Prone to hypoglycaemia due to loss of glycagon function
Frequent small meals, enzyme replacements, insulin pumps

376
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene mutation
Regulates chloride secretion
Viscous secretions lead to duct obstruction and fibrosis
Insulin treatment required to improve body weight, reduces infections, lung function,
Improves quality of life and survival.

377
Q

What are the endocrine causes of diabetes?

A

Acromegaly - excessive secretion of growth hormone, similar to type 2, insulin resistance rises

Cushing’s syndrome - increased insulin resistance, reduced glucose uptake into peripheral tissue

Pheochromocytoma - catecholamine, usually adrenaline excess, increase gluconeogenesis, decreased glucose uptake

378
Q

What drugs can cause diabetes?

A

Glucocorticoids increase insulin resistance

Thiazides.protease inhibitors/antipsychotic can cause diabetes although the mechanisms are not clearly understood

379
Q

What are the stages of puberty for boys?

A

1) Prepubertal: No pubic hair
2) Sparse growth of slightly curly pubic hair, mainly base of penis
Testes > 3 mL (>2.5 cm in longest diameter)
Scrotum thinning and reddening
3) Thicker, curlier hair spread to mons pubis
Growth of penis in width and length; further growth of testes
4) Adult-type hair, not yet spread to medial surface of thighs. Penis further enlarged; testes larger, darker scrotal skin colour
5) Adult-type hair spread to medial surface of thighs
Genitalia adult size and shape

380
Q

What are the stages of puberty for girls?

A

1) Prepubertal: No pubic hair
Elevation of papilla only
2) Sparse growth of long, straight or slightly curly, minimally pigmented hair, mainly on labia
Breast bud noted/ palpable; enlargement of areola
3) Darker, coarser hair spreading over mons pubis
Further enlargement of breast and areola, with no separation of contours
4) Thick adult-type hair, not yet spread to medial surface of thighs
Projection of areola and papilla to form secondary mound above level of breast
5) Hair adult-type and distributed in classic inverse triangle
Adult contour breast with projection of papilla only

381
Q

What is a Orchidometer?

A

Orchidometer measures testicular volume in mL

382
Q

How do the breasts develop?

A
First visible change of puberty
Induced by oestrogen
Completed in about 3 years
Effects of oestrogen on the breast
- Ductal proliferation
- Site specific adipose deposition
- Enlargement of the areola &amp; nipple
May be unilateral for several months
Other hormones involved in breast development: prolactin, glucocorticoids, insulin
383
Q

What are the pre-pubertal uterus and ovaries like?

A
Uterus
 Corpus : cervix ratio 1:2
 Tubular shape
 Length 2-3 cm
 Volume 0.4-1.6  ml
 Endometrium single layer of cuboidal cells

Ovaries
Volume 0.2-1.6 ml
Non functional

384
Q

What are the matured uterus and ovaries like?

A
Uterus
 Corpus : cervix ratio 2:1
 Pear shape
 Length 5-8 cm 
 Volume 3-15 ml
 Endometrium increased thickness

Ovaries
Volume 2.8-15 ml
Multicystic

385
Q

What is the pre-pubertal vagina like?

A

Reddish in colour
Thin atrophic columnar epithelium
pH neutral
Length 2.5-3.5 cm

386
Q

What is the matured vagina like?

A

Dulling of the reddish colour
Thickening of the epithelium
Cornification of the superficial layer (stratified squamous epithelium)
pH acidic 3.8-4.2
Secretion of clear whitish discharge in the months before menarche
Length 5-8 (-12)cm

387
Q

What are the effects of oestrogen on the maturation of external genitalia?

A

Labia majora & minora increase in size & thickness
Rugation & change in colour of the labia majora
Hymen thickens
Clitoris enlarges
Vestibular glands begin secretion

388
Q

What are the effects of adrenal androgens and ovarian androgens on the maturation of external genitalia?

A

Growth of pubic & axillary hair

389
Q

What is the Adrenarche?

A

Developmentally programmed peri-pubertal activation of adrenal androgen production
Mild advanced bone age, axillary hair, oily skin, mild acne, body odour
Developmental process where a specialized subset of cells arises forming the androgen-producing zona reticularis (ZR)

390
Q

What is precocious puberty?

A

Puberty happens too soon
It may be caused by tumors or growths on the ovaries, adrenal glands, pituitary gland, or brain. Other causes may include central nervous system problems, family history of the disease, or certain rare genetic syndromes. In many cases, no cause can be found for the disorder.
90% of patients female
Treatment with GnRH super-agonist to suppress pulsatility of GnRH secretion

391
Q

What is precocious pseudopuberty?

A

Precocious pseudopuberty is partial pubertal development that results from autonomous (gonadotropin-independent) production of testosterone in a prepubertal boy. Affected boys have premature virilization and rapid growth, but they do not produce sperm.
Caused by increased androgen secretion, gonadotropin secreting tumours, ovarian cyst, oestrogen-secreting neoplasm, hypothyroidism, iatrogenic or exogenous sex hormones.

392
Q

What is delayed puberty?

A

Idiopathic (constitutional) delay in growth and puberty
due to delayed activation of the hypothalamic pulse generator.
Occurs in about 3% of children
In boys, delayed puberty often constitutional and functional (63%)
In girls, delayed puberty less common and often organic
Delay in puberty leads to delay in acquisition of secondary sex characteristics, psychological problems, defects in reproduction and reduced peak bone mass.

393
Q

What indications might suggest delayed puberty in girls?

A

Lack of breast development by 13 yrs
More than five years between breas development and menarche
Lack of pubic hair by age 14 yrs
Absent menarche by age 15-16 yrs

394
Q

What indications might suggest delayed puberty in boys?

A

Lack of testicular enlargement by age 14 yrs
Lack of pubic hair by age 15 yrs
More than 5 years to complete genital enlargement

395
Q

What is CDGP?

A

Constitutional delay of growth and puberty
Single most common cause in both sexes
More common in boys
Extreme of the normal physiologic variation
Diagnosis of exclusion
More likely to be short for age with history of normal growth rate
Delay in bone maturation, delay in adrenarche
Frequently family history of late menarche in mother or sister or delayed growth spurt in father
Onset of puberty corresponds better with bone age than chronological age

396
Q

What lab investigations would you perform for CDGP?

A
Complete red blood count 
U&amp;E, renal, LFT, coeliac ab
LH, FSH
Testosterone/ Oestradiol
Thyroid function, Prolactin
DHEA-S, ACTH, Cortisol
397
Q

What does skeletal maturity tell you?

A

Bone age
Delayed bone age in GH deficiency
Advanced bone age in precocious puberty

398
Q

What is hypogonadism?

A

Hypogonadism means diminished functional activity of the gonads—the testes or the ovaries—that may result in diminished production of sex hormones.
The causes of primary hypogonadism include: autoimmune disorders, such as Addison’s disease and hypoparathyroidism. genetic disorders, such as Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome. severe infections, especially mumps involving your testicles.

399
Q

What is Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, also known as primary or peripheral/gonadal hypogonadism, is a condition which is characterized by hypogonadism due to an impaired response of the gonads to the gonadotropins, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), and in turn a lack of sex steroid hormones.

400
Q

What is Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism, is due to problems with either the hypothalamus or pituitary gland affecting the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (HPG axis). Hypothalamic disorders result from a deficiency in the release of gonadotropic releasing hormone (GnRH), while pituitary gland disorders are due to a deficiency in the release of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary.

401
Q

What is Kallmann’s syndrome?

A

Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
Failure of migration of GNRH neurons
Multiple generic causes
X-linked, autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant
Mutations in Kal-1, FGF-receptor 1, prokineticin
GnRH-receptor, GPR54 (normoosmic)

402
Q

What are the features of Turner’s syndrome?

A

At birth oedema of dorsa of hands, feet and loose skinfolds at the nape of the neck
Webbing of neck, low posterior hairline, small mandible, prominent ears, epicanthal folds high ached palate, broad cheast, cubitus valgus, hyperconvex fingernails
Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism, streak gonads
Cardiovascular malformations
Renal malformations (horseshoe kidney)
Recurrent otitis media
Short stature

403
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Klinefelter syndrome (KS), also known as 47, XXY is the set of symptoms that result from two or more X chromosomes in males. The primary features are infertility and small poorly functioning testicles. Often, symptoms may be subtle and many people do not realize they are affected.

404
Q

What are the features of Klinefelter syndrome?

A
Primary hypogonadism
Azoospermia, Gynaecomastia
Reduced secondary sexual hair
Osteoporosis
Tall stature
Reduced IQ in 40%
20-fold increased risk of breast cancer
405
Q

What is replacement therapy for females?

A

Ethinyloestradiol (tablet) orOestrogen (tablets, transdermal)
Start with low, gradual increasing doses to provide time for pubertal growth and gradual breast development
Several incremental steps over 2 years until full adult replacement dose achieved
Once full replacement dose achieved, progesterone should be added

406
Q

What is replacement therapy for males?

A

Testosterone enanthate, IM injection most common method of pubertal induction and maintenance
Increasing use of transdermal testosterone
Several incremental steps of 2(-4) years until full adult replacement dose achieved

407
Q

What is fertility treatment for hyogonadism?

A

Patients with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism potentially fertile
Typical approach to fertility induction is pump administered GnRH-TX (requires intact pituitary)
Or parenteral combination of gonadotrophin TX (LH/hCG and FSH)