Neurology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is obstructive hydrocephalus?

A

In subarachnoid haemorrhage/meningitis/TB/mass in posterior fossa can obstruct the foramina of Magendie and Lushka, this results in a blocking of CSF (obstructive hydrocephalus).

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2
Q

What are the signs of cerebellar syndrome?

A

Signs: ataxia, nystagmus
Patient feels drunk
Deficit is on the side of the cerebellar lesion (unlike rest of the brain)

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3
Q

How is the cerebellum located in the brain?

A

Cerebellum is attached onto the brainstem onto the cerebellar peduncles.
Above the brainstem, it is associated with the thalamus (sensory relay to cortex) and the internal capsule (motor relay to cortex).
Below is the spinal cord.

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4
Q

What are the outcomes of berry aneurysms?

A

⅓ die immediately
⅓ die in the next 48 hours
⅓ survive

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5
Q

What are the neural structures associated with the brain stem?

A

Cranial nerves III-VII
Descending motor tracts (pyramidal tracts, corticospinal) - cross at the medulla
Ascending sensory tracts (medial lemnisci)
Reticular activation system - multiple clusters of grey matter nuclei which surround the aqueduct of sylvius. Will send connections to the hypothalamus. Keeps you alive - heart beating, breathing, sleep, consciousness.
Cerebellar peduncles

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6
Q

What is the pathway of the ascending sensory tract?

A

In two parts - early (lateral spinothalamic tracts) and advanced (posterior columns) evolutionarily.
Peripheral nerve has slow-conducting unmyelinated C fibres.
When they go into the spinal cord, they cross a level or two above the point of entry.
It ascends on the opposite side and reaches thalamus to relay.
Advanced part crosses at the sensory decussation and relays in the thalamus.

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7
Q

What is cavernous sinus syndrome?

A

CN3, 4, 5, 6 run through the wall of the cavernous sinus.

Disease in this area - cavernous sinus syndrome (facial numbness and abnormal eye movement +/- dilated pupil).

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8
Q

What is the clivus?

A

The clivus is a bony part of the cranium at the skull base, a shallow depression behind the dorsum sellæ that slopes obliquely backward. It forms a gradual sloping process at the anterior most portion of the basilar occipital bone at its junction with the sphenoid bone.

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9
Q

Give some ways damage to CNs can affect patients and how they can be rectified?

A

Non-functioning eye due to damage to CN3, 4, 6 - glasses with prisms/squint surgery
Corneal injury due to damage to CN5 - eye drops and lubricant, gold weight to help close the eyelid, lateral tarsorrhaphy (stitch the corner of the eye closed)
Smile due to damage to CN7 - cross-facial nerve graft
Swallow - NG tube, tracheostomy, percutaneous enteral gastrostomy (PEG)
Voice - vocal cord injection

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10
Q

What are the disorders affecting the brain stem?

A

Tumour (¼ of all brain tumours) - meningioma, schwannoma, astrocytoma, metastasis, hemangioblastoma, epidermoid
Inflammatory - MS
Metabolic - central pontine myelonecrosis (necrosis due to decreased Na)
Trauma
Spontaneous haemorrhage - brain arteriovenous malformation (AVM), aneurysm
Infarction - vertebral artery dissection
Infection - cerebellar abscess from ear

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11
Q

What are the key features of Multiple Sclerosis?

A
Inflammatory, demyelinating disease
Specific to the CNS
Commonest cause of chronic neurological disability in young adults
Usually begins at age 20-40
Early course is relapsing/remitting
Progressive disability over time
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12
Q

What are the different types of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Relapsing/remitting: random attacks over a number of years (more frequent in the first 3/4 years), recovery varies between attacks, disabilities often accumulate with each successive attack.
Chronic progressive: slow, inexorable decline in neurological function from disease onset,
Benign: few relapses, little disability

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13
Q

What factors influence who gets Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Genetic disposition
Environmental triggers
Chance

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14
Q

What is the epidemiology of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Increased prevalence in Australia and New Zealand
Less prevalence at the equator due to increased Vit D
More prevalent in caucausians
More prevalent in women and they tend to get it earlier
MS prevalence rate can be altered by a change in the environment
Age at migration is critical for risk retention (potential for developing MS may be assigned early in life)
Identical twin – about 25%
Non-identical twin – about 4%
Half-sibling – about 2% not dependent on whether they are still in the same household

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15
Q

What are the factors that contribute to the presentation of MS?

A
Chance
Where you live (latitude)
Race
Age
Diet
Sanitation
Socioeconomic status
Multiple gene loci
Climate
Mutation
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16
Q

What is the pathophysiology of MS?

A

Exposure to virus, T lymphocytes become primed against it, they will travel in the bloodstream, cross the blood brain barrier and start a cascade of immune response which will result in damage to the myelin, the axon and the cells producing the myelin. Demyelination can recover but it’s the damage to the axon which causes the problems (no recovery). Can remyelinate – but the myelin is thinner, so if the axon is stressed the conduction is impaired (symptoms come back) – known as Uhthoff’sphenomenon

Mainly a white matter disease (but also grey). You see lesions around the ventricles.

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17
Q

What are the types of MS?

A

1 – macrophage mediated demyelination in brain and spinal cord
2 – antibody-mediated demyelination in brain and spinal cord
3 – distal oligodendrogliopathy and apoptosis
4 – primary oligodendroglia degeneration

Types 3 and 4 are more rare

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of an active lesion in MS?

A

Demyelination with breakdown products present
Variable oligodendrocyte loss
Hypercellular plaque due to infiltration of inflammatory cells
Perivenous inflammatory infiltrate
Extension BBB disruption
Older active plaques may have central gliosis

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19
Q

What are the characteristics of an inactive lesion in MS?

A
Demyelination with breakdown products absent
Variable oligodendrocyte loss
Hypocellular plaque
Variable inflammatory infiltrate
Moderate-to-minor BBB disruption
Plaques gliosed
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20
Q

How is plaque distribution related to the symptoms of MS?

A

Cerebal hemispheres - large variety of symptoms
Spinal cord - weakness, paraplegia, spasticity, tingling, numbness, Lhermite’s sign, bladder and sexual dysfunction
Optic nerve - impaired vision, eye pain
Medulla and pons - dysarthria, double vision, vertigo, nystagmus
Cerebellar white matter - dysarthria, nystagmus, intention tremor, ataxia

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21
Q

What is Lhermitte’s sign?

A

Lhermitte’s sign - a sudden sensation resembling an electric shock that passes down the back of your neck and into your spine and may then radiate out into your arms and legs

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22
Q

What are the typical and atypical symptoms of MS?

A

Typical - optic neuritis (impaired vision and eye pain), spasticity and other pyramidal signs, sensory symptoms and signs, Lhermitte’s sign, nystagmus, double vision, vertigo, bladder and sexual dysfunction
Atypical - aphasia, hemianopia, extrapyramidal movement disturbance, severe muscle wasting, muscle fasciculation

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23
Q

What are the types of disease progression in MS?

A
  • Relapsing/remitting: clearly defined disease relapses with full recovery or residual deficit
  • Primary progressive: disease progression from onset with/without plateaus
  • Secondary progressive: initial relapsing followed by progressive
  • Progressive/relapsing: progressive from onset with clear acute relapses
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24
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for MS?

A

Two or more CNS lesions disseminated in time and space

Exclusion of conditions giving a similar clinical picture

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25
Q

What will the CSF electrophoresis be like in a patient with MS?

A

IgG oligoclonal bands are present in the CSF of MS patients.

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26
Q

What are the common differential diagnoses for MS?

A
SLE
Sjogren's syndrome
Lyme disease
Syphilis
AIDS
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27
Q

What are the types of treatment for MS?

A

Treating relapses of MS symptoms (with steroid medicine)
Treating specific MS symptoms
Treatment to reduce the number of relapses (disease-modifying therapies)

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28
Q

How would you treat spasticity as a symptom of MS?

A

Mild to moderate: oral medications
Focal disabling: peripheral nerve blocks
Severe: reversible and irreversible invasive procedures
General rehabilitation: removal of trigger factors, physical treatments

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29
Q

What are the side-effects of Betaferon?

A
Generally well-tolerated but side effects are:
Injection site reactions
Flu-like symptoms
Mild intermittent lymphopenia
Mild to moderate rises in liver enzymes
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30
Q

How would you treat tremor as a symptom of MS?

A

Oral medications - beta blockers, low-dose barbituates, Gabapentin, Izonizid, Carbamazepine, Clonazepam
Orthotic devices - weighted wrist bands, computer-controlled mechanical damping devices
Thalamic surgery - stereotactic thalamotomy, thalamic electrostimulation

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31
Q

How would you treat sexual dysfunction as a symptom of MS?

A

General sexual counselling
Erectile dysfunction - papaverine or prostaglandin E1, penile prosthesis, oral yohimbine
Ejaculatory dysfunction - no specific treatment

For women, lubricating gels, topical local anasthetics, relief of other symptoms

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32
Q

What is the prognosis of MS?

A

5-10% clinically milder with no disability
30% develop significant disability within 20-25 years
Survival rate is linked to disability
Death is usually due to secondary complications (respiratory or renal)
Marburg variant can lead to coma or death within days

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33
Q

What are the bad prognosis indicators for MS?

A
Male gender
Late age of onset
High number of attacks
Short inter-attack interval
Early residual disability
Early motor, cerebellar and sphincter symptoms
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34
Q

How would you manage MS?

A

Immunomodulatory therapy for acute repulses, frequent relapses, aggressive illness, progressive illness
Management of symptoms
Non-pharmacological treatments - physio, occupational health

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35
Q

How would you treat acute relapses of MS?

A

Oral or intravenous Methylprednisolone can hasten recovery of acute exacerbation
Plasma apheresis can be used if steroids are contraindicated or ineffective

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36
Q

What are the therapeutic strategies for treatment of MS?

A

Prevention of immuno-activation
Modifying lymphocyte trafficking
Lymphocytes depletion
Immune reconstruction

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37
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for epilepsy?

A
Parasomnia e.g. narcolepsy
TIA
Dystonia
Cardiogenic syncope
Postural syncope
Hypoglycaemia
Migraine
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Cataplexy
Hyperventilation
Non-epileptic seizure
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38
Q

How to classify blackouts?

A

Primary disturbance of brain function - Could be epileptic seizures (including genetic generalised epilepsy, unclassifiable epilepsy, structural or metabolic epilepsy) or dissociative/non-epileptic seizures.

Secondary disturbance of brain function - related to the heart or low blood pressure.

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39
Q

What is an epileptic seizure?

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes of behaviour, sensation or cognitive processes are caused by excessive, hypersynchronous neuronal discharges in the brain.
Too much voltage - groups of brain cells are depolarising at the same time (added together). Spike in the EEG.

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40
Q

What are the clinical features of an epileptic seizure?

A

Duration: 30-120 seconds
‘Positive’ ictal symptoms (excessive of something - hearing/seeing/feeling/being touched when it’s not actually happening)
Postictal symptoms - weakness afterwards
Stereotypical seizures/syndromal seizure types
May occur from sleep - weakened by the state sleep (most vulnerable)
May be associated with brain dysfunction
Typical seizure phenomena - lateral tongue bite, deja vu (commonly the same each time for an individual patient).

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41
Q

What are the clinical features of a generalised secondary seizure?

A

Eye deviation to the right
Head deviation to the right
Right hand shaking
Gradual spread to both sides
TONIC: stiff, mouth open, eyes open, muscles are activated at the same time
CLONIC: individual spikes of activation of movement, big fast movements, relaxation and then more big fast movements. Amplitude grows but frequency decreases.
Staring into space, not really breathing properly.

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42
Q

What does it mean if a seizure is generalised?

A

both halves of the brain are doing the same thing (symmetrical). If it’s on both sides of the brain then both sides of the body are affected.

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43
Q

What are the clinical features of a partial seizure?

A
Different clinical features depending on which part of the brain is affected..
TEMPORAL
Lip smacking
Swallowing
Slow movement of one hand
Unconscious

FRONTAL
Awareness fully retained
No control of movements

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44
Q

What is syncope?

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive processes are caused by an insufficient blood or oxygen supplied to the brain.

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45
Q

What are the clinical features of syncope?

A

Situational
Typically from sitting or standing
Rarely from sleep
Presyncopal symptoms - seeing stars over the whole visual field, vision may go black, distorted sound, dizzy and light-headed
Duration 3-30 seconds
Recovery within 30 seconds
Cardiogenic syncope: less warning, history of heart disease

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46
Q

What is vasovagal syncope?

A

You faint because your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress. It may also be called neurocardiogenic syncope. The vasovagal syncope trigger causes your heart rate and blood pressure to drop suddenly.

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47
Q

What is a Non-epileptic seizure (dissociative)?

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive function caused by mental processes associated with psychosocial distress.
People may not be able to recall what the distress was. May happen instead of a panic attack.

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48
Q

What are the clinical features of a Non-epileptic seizure (dissociative)?

A

Situational
Duration 1-20 minutes
Dramatic motor phenomena or prolonged atonia
Eyes closed
Ictal crying and speaking
Surprisingly rapid or slow postictal recovery
History of psychiatric illness, other somatoform disorder e.g. IBS, fibromyalgia

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49
Q

How would you differentiate between syncope and epilepsy?

A

Syncope - look for upright position, presyncopal symptoms, sweating, looking pale, nausea, rapid recovery
Epilepsy - look for tongue biting, head turning, muscle pain, prolonged loss of consciousness, cyanosis, postictal confusion

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50
Q

What are the common mistake when diagnosing epilepsy?

A

Incomplete history, lack of witness account
Misinterpretation of syncopal, myoclonic jerks
Misinterpretation of EEG-changes

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51
Q

What types of seizures do you get in structural/metabolic (focal) epilepsy?

A

Associated with focal brain abnormality, may start at any age.
Seizure types:
- Partial seizures without impairment of consciousness e.g. Jacksonian seizures, deja vu
- Partial seizures with impairment of consciousness e.g. psychomotor seizures
- Secondary generalised seizures

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52
Q

What causes structural/metabolic epilepsy?

A

Common cause: hippocampal sclerosis (mesial temporal seizure) caused by encephalitis or a prolonged febrile seizure.
Starts in one place and gradually spreads.

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53
Q

What’s the treatment for structural/metabolic epilepsy?

A

First-line treatment: Carbamazepine or Lamotrigine

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54
Q

What types of seizures do you get in genetic generalised epilepsy?

A

No associated brain abnormality, manifestation usually <30 years
Seizure types:
- Absence seizures e.g. childhood absence epilepsy, juvenile absence epilepsy
- Myoclonic seizures e.g. juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
- Primary generalised tonic clonic seizures e.g. grand mal on awakening

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55
Q

What is the treatment for genetic generalised epilepsy?

A

First-line treatment: Valproate or Lamotrigine

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56
Q

How can your pharmacologically treat epilepsy by targeting the pre-synaptic neurons?

A

PRE-SYNAPTIC EXCITABILITY

  • Voltage-gated Na channel: Na increases excitability and drives action potentials. Inhibited by carbamazepine, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine.
  • Voltage-gated K channel: K efflux reduces neuronal excitability, channel increased by retigabine.

NEUROTRANSMITTER RELEASE

  • Voltage-gated Ca channels: Ca influx drives neurotransmitter release. Channel inhibited by pregabalin and gabapentin.
  • SV2A required for release of neurotransmitter from these vesicles. Inhibited by levetiracetem.
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57
Q

How can your pharmacologically treat epilepsy by targeting the post-synaptic neurons?

A

Target the GABA A receptor - reduces neuronal excitability. Increased activity by benzodiazepines, barbiturates, felbamate, topiramate.
Target GABA transaminase - degrades GABA, inhibited by vigabtrin (to elevate GABA levels)
Target the GABA transporter - removes GABA from the synapse, inhibited by tiagabine

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58
Q

How can you use anti-epileptic drugs?

A

Monotherapy: increase to lowest possible effective dose
Monotherapy: increase to fully effective/maximum tolerated dose
Consider alternative monotherapy/combination therapy
Consider epileptic surgery (electrical stimulation therapies)
Consider reduction to monotherapy in very refractory epilepsy

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59
Q

What to do if medical treatments for epilepsy fail?

A

Curative intent:
Resective surgery
Hemispherectomy

Palliative intent:
Tractotomy
Electrostimulation

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60
Q

How can vagal nerve stimulation be used as a treatment for epilepsy?

A

Stimulates 30 seconds every 5 minutes
When the heart rate goes up - given stimulation
Can reduce seizure frequency

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61
Q

What are the classical patterns of pathology related to different areas of the brain?

A

Cerebral hemisphere - unilateral dysfunction
Spinal cord - bilateral dysfunction in the legs
Cerebellum - loss of coordination
Brain stem - any that doesn’t fit the pattern
Peripheral nerves - mononeuropathies/polyneuropathies that don’t fit in dermatomes/myotomes

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62
Q

What questions do you need to be asking when a patient presents with neurological symptoms?

A

Where is the lesion? Single or multiple?
What is the likely pathology? E.g. inflammation, infection, neoplasm, vascular, neurodegenerative
Guided by the history and examination

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63
Q

What problems do different lesions cause in the optic tract?

A

Lesion at the optic chiasm you get bitemporal hemianopia - loss of temporal vision.
Lesion between optic chiasm and Meyer’s loop you get homonymous hemianopia - loss of one side in both eyes
Lesion at Meyer’s loop upper fibres you get inferior quadrantanopia - loss of bottom corner
Lesion at Meyer’s loop lower fibres you get superior quadrantanopia - loss of top corner
Lesion in the occipital pole (primary visual cortex) you get sparing of the macular

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64
Q

What is Nystagmus?

A

Nystagmus is a vision condition in which the eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements. These movements often result in reduced vision and depth perception and can affect balance and coordination. These involuntary eye movements can occur from side to side, up and down, or in a circular pattern.

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65
Q

What is Internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO) is a disorder of conjugate lateral gaze in which the affected eye shows impairment of adduction. When an attempt is made to gaze contralaterally (relative to the affected eye), the affected eye adducts minimally, if at all. The contralateral eye abducts, however with nystagmus.

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66
Q

What can Asymmetrical nystagmus suggest?

A

Asymmetrical nystagmus may suggest internuclear ophthalmoplegia (may suggest MS)

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67
Q

What is surgical 3rd nerve palsy?

A

Surgical 3rd nerve refers to the space-occupying lesion that is pressing on the 3rd nerve.The parasympathetic fibres are on the outside so they will be pushed on - dilated pupil.
Can’t have a space-occupying lesion without pupillary involvement.

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68
Q

How can microvascular lesions cause nerve palsies?

A

Microvascular lesions tend to be found in elderly patients, almost always diabetic. Have 3, 4, 6th nerve palsies but are well. Treat the diabetes (occlusion of the microvasculature).
Most common cause of 3rd nerve palsy.
Can also have this with pupillary involvement.

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69
Q

What pathology can occur at the cavernous sinus?

A

Venous sinus thrombosis, metastases, carotid rupture, inflammatory syndromes can occur in the cavernous sinus.
Common area for pathology.

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70
Q

What is one and a half syndrome?

A

A rare weakness in eye movement affecting both eyes, in which one cannot move laterally at all, and the other can move only in outward direction. Characterized by “a conjugate horizontal gaze palsy in one direction and an internuclear ophthalmoplegia in the other”. Nystagmus is also present when the eye on the opposite side of the lesion is abducted.

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71
Q

What eye movements are not affected by one and a half syndrome?

A

Eye movements not affected include convergence, vertical CNIII movements, unilateral partial adduction.

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72
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

Horner’s syndrome - lesion in the sympathetic supply
Characterized by miosis (constriction of the pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), and anhidrosis (absence of sweating of the face).

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73
Q

What are the affects of lateral medullary syndrome?

A

Single lesion

Ipsilateral side: 
Horner’s syndrome
Limb ataxia
Loss of facial sensation of pain and temperature on face, reduced corneal reflex
Dysarthria
Dysphagia

Contralateral side:
Loss of pain and temperature sensation

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74
Q

If a patient presents with Horner’s syndrome and neck pain, what should you consider?

A

Consider vertebral artery or carotid artery dissection. Carotid dissection is more common.

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75
Q

What kinds of tract dysfunction does Brown-Sequard Syndrome cause?

A

At the level of the lesion: Ipsilateral Spinothalamic (localising sign)
Below the lesion:
Ipsilateral corticospinal tract dysfunction
Ipsilateral dorsal column dysfunction
Contralateral spinothalamic tract dysfunction

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76
Q

How can head injuries be classified?

A

TYPE OF INJURY
Non-missile (most common)
Missile head injury - penetration of skull or brain
DISTRIBUTION OF LESION
Focal (one particular area)
Diffuse brain lesions (across the brain)
TIME COURSE OF DAMAGE
Primary – due to immediate biophysical forces of trauma
Secondary – presenting some time after the traumatic event (physiologial responses, effects of hypoxia/ischaema, infection)

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77
Q

What are the different types of focal lesions?

A

Scalp - contusions (damage to tissue), lacerations (tear in the tissue)
Skull - Fracture
Meninges - Haemorrhage, Infection
Brain - Contusions, Lacerations, Haemorrhage, Infection

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78
Q

What are the different types of diffuse brain lesions?

A

Diffuse axonal injury
Diffuse vasucular injury
Hypoxia-ischaemia
Swelling

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79
Q

What are the features of a skull fracture?

A

Implies considerable force
↑ risk haematoma, infection & aerocele
Angled or pointed objects cause localized fractures that are often open or depressed
Flat surfaces cause linear fractures
Can extend to skull base (sometimes called contrecoup fractures)

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80
Q

What are the features of a Extradural haematoma?

A
~ 10% severe head injuries, ~15% fatal ones
Usually associated with skull
Occur slowly over hours 
Usually a lucid interval
Causes death by
- brain displacement
- raised intracranial pressure
- herniation
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81
Q

What are the features of a Subdural haematoma?

A

Usually due to tears in bridging veins that cross subdural space from superior surface of brain to midsagittal sinus
Dehydrated, elderly or demented patients are more vulnerable.
Can occur slowly (‘chronic’)
Usually surrounded by ‘membrane’ of granulation tissue

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82
Q

What causes a Traumatic subarachnoid haematoma?

A

Contusions/lacerations
Base of skull fracture (tear vessels)
Vertebral artery rupture/dissection
Intraventricular haemorrhage

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83
Q

What causes a cerebral/cerebellar haemorrhage?

A

Superficial: due to severe contusion
Deep: related to diffuse axonal injury

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84
Q

How does contact damage cause a focal brain damage?

A

At or just deep to the point of impact

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85
Q

How does acceleration/deceleration cause a focal brain damage?

A

Force to head causes differential movement of skull & brain. This can cause:
- Impact of inner surface of skull on underlying brain causes contusion
- Traction on bridging veins causes subdural haemorrhage
Differential movement of brain tissue which causes shearing, traction and compressive stresses and damages blood vessels and axons

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86
Q

How do contusions cause focal brain damage?

A

Superficial “bruises” of the brain
“Coup” at the site of impact
“Contre coup” – away from the site of impact
At first – haemorrhagic
Then become brown/orange and soft (days weeks)
Then indented or cavitated after months years

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87
Q

How do lacerations cause focal brain damage?

A

When contusion is sufficiently severe to tear the pia mater

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88
Q

What are the different types of axonal injury?

A

Axonal injury – a non specific term, can happen in a multitude of pathologies
Traumatic axonal injury – can be focal or widespread
Diffuse axonal injury
A clinicopathological syndrome of widespread axonal damage (inc brainstem)
But can be caused by a variety of processes
Diffuse traumatic axonal injury – over the brain due to trauma

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89
Q

Which areas are suceptable to diffuse traumatic axonal injury?

A

Corpus callosum
Midbrain
Pons

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90
Q

What are the different types of traumatic axonal injury?

A

Usually involves acceleration and deceleration of the head
Mild: recovery of consciousness ± long term, variable severity deficit
Severe: unconscious from impact & remain so or severe disability

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91
Q

What are the long-term effects of traumatic axonal injury?

A

Enlargement of the ventricles
Thinning of the corpus callosum
Curvy, linear lesions in the superior frontal lobe (gliding contusion)
Lose the myelination (pink colour)

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92
Q

What causes diffuse vascular injury?

A

Usually result in near immediate death

Multiple petechial haemorrhages throughout brain

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93
Q

What causes brain swelling?

A
Occurs in ~75% patients
Leads to ↑ intra cranial pressure
Caused by:
- Congestive brain swelling
Vasodilation and ↑ cerebral blood volume
- Vasogenic oedema
Extravasation of oedema fluid from damaged blood vessels
- Cytotoxic oedema 
Increased water content of neurons and glia
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94
Q

What causes herniation?

A

Due to bleeding or swelling

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95
Q

What are some of the common sites of herniation?

A

Subfalcine herniation of the cingulate gyrus
Transtentorial herniation of medial temporal lobe
Transforaminal herniation of cerebellar tonsil

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96
Q

What is Hypoxia-ischaemia?

A

HI often causes infarction and hypoxic ischaemic damage
Likely in patients who have had
- Clinically evident hypoxia
- Hypotension with systolic BP<80mmHg for ≥15 min
- ↑ intracranial pressure
It can be widespread or confined to vulnerable regions
- Susceptible neurones
- Border zones between major cerebral territories

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97
Q

What areas are susceptible to Hypoxia-ischaemia?

A

Cortical laminar necrosis - pyramidal neurones which have long axons so high metabolic demand
Hippocampus cell populations
Purkinje cells in the cerebellum

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98
Q

What is chronic traumatic encephalopathy?

A

Seen following repetitive mild traumatic brain injury
Initially irritability, impulsivity, aggression, depression, memory loss
Then dementia, gait and speech problems, parkinsonism
Some have motor neurone disease-like symptoms

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99
Q

What is the pathology in chronic traumatic encephalopathy?

A

Atrophy: neocortex, hippocampus, diencephalon & mamillary bodies
Enlarged ventricles with fenustrated cavuum septum
Tau-positive neurofibrillary and astrocytic tangles in frontal and temporal cortex and limbic regions, especially around depths of sulci and limbic regions and blood vessels

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100
Q

What are the types of motor neuron disease?

A
Motor neurone disease (aka ALS)
Heretidary spastic paraplegia
Spinal muscular atrophy
Kennedy’s disease
Post-polio syndrome
Motor neuropathies
Hyperactivity disorders of the motor neurons e.g. stiff person syndrome
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101
Q

What is weakness?

A

AKA paresis

Impaired ability to move a body part in response to will

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102
Q

What is paralysis?

A

The ability to move a body part in response to will is completely lost

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103
Q

What is ataxia?

A

AKA incoordination

Willed movements are clumsy, ill-directioned or uncontrolled.

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104
Q

What are involuntary movements?

A

Spontaneous movement of a body part, independently of will.

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105
Q

What is Apraxia?

A

Disorder of consciously organised patterns of movement or impaired ability to recall acquired motor skills.

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106
Q

Where are the upper and lower motor neurons?

A

Upper motor neurons which have cell bodies sitting in the precentral gyrus and axons which travel down the brainstem and into the spinal cord via the corticospinal tract.
The lower motor neurons come from the motor nuclei in the brainstem and down the ventral horn of the spinal grey matter.

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107
Q

How to organise a movement?

A

Idea of a movement - association areas of cortex
Activation of the upper motor neurons in the precentral gyrus
Impulses travel to the lower motor neurons and their motor units via the corticospinal (pyramidal) tracts
Modulating activity from the cerebellum and the basal ganglia
Further modification of movement depending on sensory feedback

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108
Q

What is the final common pathway?

A

The pathway by which the CNS controls voluntary movement
Lower motor neurons have their cell bodies in the nuclei in the brainstem and spinal cord. Their axons join with other axons to form nerve roots and peripheral nerves.
It makes contact with muscle fibres at the neuromuscular junction.

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109
Q

What is the motor unit?

A

Basic functional unit of muscle activity. Lower motor neuron, axon and several supplied muscle fibres.

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110
Q

How is muscle tone controlled?

A

Stretch receptors in muscle (muscle spindles) are innervated by Y motor neurons.
When the muscle is stretched, afferent impulses from muscle spindles are sent to the spinal cord which cause a reflex partial contraction of the muscle.
Disease states e.g. spasticity and extrapyramidal rigidity alter muscle tone by altering the sensitivity of this reflex.

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111
Q

What are the potential sites of damage along the final common pathway?

A
Motor nuclei of cranial nerves
Motor neurons in the spinal cord
Spinal ventral roots
Peripheral nerves
Neuromuscular junction
Muscle
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112
Q

What are the clinical features of lower motor neuron disease?

A

Muscle tone is normal or reduced (flaccid)
Muscle wasting e.g. in tongue, upper/lower limb, respiratory muscles
Fasciculation - visible spontaneous contraction of motor units
Reflexes depressed or absent

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113
Q

What are the pathological processes that will affect the motor neurons of the brainstem or spinal cord?

A
Motor neuron disease
Spinal muscular atrophy
Poliomyelitis
Syringomyelia/syringobulbia
Spinal cord/brainstem compression
Vascular disease
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114
Q

What are the pathological processes that will affect the spinal roots?

A

Prolapsed intervertebral disc
Cervical or lumbar spondylosis
Tumours e.g. neurofibroma/ependymoma
Malignant infiltration

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115
Q

What are the pathological processes that will affect the peripheral nerves?

A

Axonal degeneration or axonal demyelination
Symmetrical polyneuropathy - distal weakness in limbs, glove and stocking patterns in sensory loss, decreased/absent reflexes
Mononeuritis multiplex pattern of weakness and sensory loss conforms to the distribution of particular peripheral nerves

116
Q

What are the pathological processes that will affect the neuromuscular junction?

A

Myasthenia gravis
Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Congenital disorders

117
Q

What are the pathological processes that will affect the muscle?

A

Many causes
Weakness tends to affect proximal muscles
Tendon reflexes preserved until late

118
Q

How to locate the lesion in the final common pathway?

A

Know the anatomy of the innervation of muscles and reflexes
Are there any coexisting sensory signs as well as motor signs
Is there any history of diurnal variability/fatigability?
Fasculications? Suggest motor neuron problem
Pattern of weakness - proximal limb and axial in muscle disease, distal in peripheral neuropathy

119
Q

How to investigate lower motor neuron problems?

A

Neurophysiology nerve conduction studies/electromyography
Neuro-imaging MRI scan head/spine
Blood tests e.g. muscle enzymes, peripheral neuropathy screen, auto-antibodies
Lumbar puncture

120
Q

What are the neural inputs to the final common pathway?

A

Reflex arc
Corticospinal or pyramidal pathway (upper motor neuron system)
Extrapyramidal or basal ganglia system
Cerebellum

121
Q

What is the corticospinal tract?

A

A major descending pathway connecting the upper and lower motor neurons, important in the control of voluntary movements.
Made up of a number of anatomical stations including the motor cortex, the corona radiata, internal capsule, cerebral peduncle in the midbrain, pyramidal bundle in the pons, pyramid in the medulla.
In the medullary pyramid 85% of the fibres cross to form the lateral corticospinal tract in the contralateral spinal cord. 15% of fibres remain uncrossed and form the anterior corticospinal tract.

122
Q

What are the clinical features of upper motor neuron pathology?

A

Muscle tone is increased (spasticity)
Tendon reflexes/jaw jerk are brisk
Plantar responses extensor (and Babinski sign)
Characteristic pattern of limb muscle weakness (pyramidal pattern) - upper limbs extensor muscles are weaker than flexors, lower limbs flexors weaker than extensors, finer more skillful movements are most severely impaired
Emotional lability may be present

123
Q

What is a pyramidal drift?

A

A pathological sign whereby a patient is unable to maintain their arms in a stretched out raised supine position. Presentation of this suggest spasticity due to an upper motor neuron lesion.

124
Q

What features would be seen if there was an upper motor neuron lesion in the cortex?

A

Contralateral, often circumscribed weakness

Dispersion of cortical representation over a wide area

125
Q

What features would be seen if there was an upper motor neuron lesion in the internal capsule?

A

Complete contralateral hemiparesis

Descending fibres grouped closely together in a very small area

126
Q

What features would be seen if there was an upper motor neuron lesion in the brainstem?

A

Often bilateral weakness due to an involvement of both descending corticospinal tracts
Involvement of the cranial nerve nuclei
Bulbar involvement often present

127
Q

What features would be seen if there was an upper motor neuron lesion in the spinal cord?

A

Often bilateral corticospinal tract lesions
Cervical - will involve upper and lower motor neurons (tetraparesis)
Below cervical - weakness of both legs (paraparesis)
Sensory level may help in localising the site of the spinal lesions

128
Q

What causes pathology of the upper motor neurons?

A

Vascular disease e.g. Cerebrovascular accident
Inflammatory e.g. MS
Compression of brain or spinal cord e.g. by a tumour or a degenerative spinal disease (spondylosis)
Infiltration of the corticospinal pathway e.g. tumour
Neurodegenerative disease of upper motor neurons +/- lower motor neurons in motor neuron disease, hereditary spastic paraplegia

129
Q

How are brain tumours named?

A

Over 150 different types
Divided based on cell or location
Meninges - Meningioma
Sellar region - Craniopharyngiomas, usually benign, cystic tumours
Germ cell tumours - rare paediatric, usually cancerous tumours in the pituitary/pineal region
Intrinsic brain - Gliomas: oligodendroglial cells, astrocytic cells, ependymal cells, neuronal tumours
Cranial nerves (schwannoma) e.g. eighth nerve - acoustic neuroma
Haematopoietic, lymph nodes (lymphoma)
Metastatic spread from lung, breast, colorectal, testicular, renal cell, malignant melanoma

130
Q

How common are brain tumours?

A

Increasing - could be genuinely an increase or due to better diagnosis
Not as common as other cancers like breast cancer but more common in young adults
55% malignant
Common differential diagnosis - frequent concern is that a headache will be a sign of a brain tumour

131
Q

How are brain tumours classified?

A

Don’t used TNM system
Use the WHO system - based on the cell that the tumour comes from
Grade using morphology into four grades of malignancy
Now also using molecular genetic features

132
Q

What are gliomas?

A

Most common primary brain tumour
Tumour of glial cells - astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells
WHO grade I and II ‘low’
WHO grade III and IV ‘high’
Grade II aren’t ‘benign’ because they are prone to transforming
Grades determine the prognosis
Characterised histologically - cellularity/mitotic activity/vascular proliferation/necrosis

133
Q

What are low grade gliomas?

A

Slow growing but will undergo anaplastic transformation
Astrocytomas 3.5 years
Oligodendrogliomas 7-10 years
Median age 35 years
Survival time longer than de novo high grade gliomas

134
Q

What are the prognostic factors for low-grade gliomas?

A
Histology type
Age
Size of tumour
Rate of growth
Location
Cross midline
Presenting features
Performance status
135
Q

What are high-grade gliomas?

A

Most common type of brain tumour (85% of new malignant brain tumours)
Either as a primary tumour or from a pre-existing low-grade
Median onset is 45 for III, 60 for IV

136
Q

What causes a brain tumour?

A
Majority - no cause found
Ionising radiation
5% family history: associated genetic syndromes, neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease
Immunosuppression (CNS lymphoma)
No evidence to link to mobile phone use
137
Q

What are the symptoms of a brain tumour?

A

Varied presentation dependent on tumour type, grade and site

Symptoms can include headaches, seizures, focal neurological symptoms, other non-focal symptoms.

138
Q

What is a classical brain tumour-caused headache?

A

Patient is woken by the headache, worse in the morning, worse lying down, associated with nausea and vomiting, exacerbated by coughing, sneezing, drowsiness.

139
Q

What’s the risk that a seizure will be a result of a brain tumour?

A

21% presenting symptom
80% associated with low-grade rather than high-grade
First fit 2-6% = brain tumour

140
Q

What can seizure symptoms tell you about where the brain tumour might be?

A

Limb jerking, head or eye deviation - frontal lobe
Sensory disturbance, spreading, tingling - parietal lobe
Deja vu, jamais vu, memories, feelings of dread, rising feeling - temporal lobe
Positive visual disturbance (coloured balls) - occipital lobe

141
Q

What are the focal and non-focal symptoms of brain tumours?

A

Focal - weakness, sensory loss, visual/speech disturbance, ataxia
Non-focal - personality change, memory disturbance, confusion

142
Q

What are the clinical signs of brain tumour?

A

Papilloedema

Focal neurological deficit - hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, visual field defect, dysphagia

143
Q

What are the red flags for a brain tumour?

A

Headache with features of raised intracranial pressure (pailloedema) or focal neurology
New onset focal seizure
Rapidly progressing focal neurology (without headache)
Past history of other cancer

144
Q

How do low-grade and high-grade brain tumours differ in their presentation?

A

Low-grade: typically present with seizures (can be incidental finding)
High-grade: rapidly progressive neurological deficit. Symptoms of intracranial pressure.

145
Q

What investigations would you perform for a suspected brain tumour?

A

Brain imaging - CT (with contrast) or MRI
MRI is best
If high-grade, you would see an irregular mass with vasogenic oedema. Enhancement often seen (disruption of BBB).

146
Q

What is the low-grade glioma scanning protocol?

A
Cerebral blood volume
MR Spectroscopy (chemical composition)
Rate of Growth
Enhancement
Brain biopsy - histology and molecular markers
147
Q

What is the treatment for a brain tumour?

A

Depends on tumour type, grade and site

Treatment is non-curative (unless it’s grade I)

148
Q

What is the treatment for high-grade gliomas?

A

Steroids - reduce oedema
Surgery - biopsy or reduction for tissue diagnosis, reduction of ICP, prolongation of survival
Radiotherapy - mainstay (radical vs. palliative)
Chemotherapy - Temozolamide, PCV
Prognosis: 6 months without treatment, 18 months with treatment

149
Q

What is the treatment for low-grade gliomas?

A

Surgery - early resection or biopsy
Radiotherapy alone - delays disease transformation not overall survival
Radiotherapy and chemotherapy - evidence suggests long-term survival

150
Q

What is an awake craniotomy?

A

If the tumor or the area of your brain where your seizures occur (epileptic focus) is near the parts of the brain that control vision, movement or speech, the patient can be woken up during surgery to be asked questions to monitor responses. The procedure also lowers the risk of damage to functional areas of your brain that could affect your vision, movement or speech..

151
Q

What are pituitary gland tumours?

A

Sits in the pituitary fossa
Almost always benign and usually curable.
Excessive hormone production
Local effects of the tumour - bilateral hemianopia due to compression of optic chiasm
Inadequate hormone production by the remaining gland

152
Q

What is dementia?

A

A decline in cognitive function that is gradual onset and progressive.
A set of symptoms including memory loss, problem-solving or language.
Alzheimer’s disease is the most common.

153
Q

What are the pathological changes in dementia?

A

Post-mortem: cerebral cortex was thinner, senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles.
You can stage dementia into I-II, III-IV, V-VI.
Begins in the amygdala and spreads into the medial temporal lobe, the cingulate gyrus before becoming more widespread.

154
Q

What is the pathology mismatch in diagnosing dementia?

A

Up to 45% normal elderly people will meet the criteria for dementia had they been demented. Known as the ‘high-pathology non-demented controls’ or individuals with asymptomatic AD’.

155
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for AD?

A

Presentation of an early and significant episodic memory impairment.
Can be isolated or associated with gradual and progressive change in memory function reported by the patient for over 6 months.
Objective evidence of an amnestic syndrome of the hippocampal type (based on failure in episodic memory test) - problems with storing memories.

156
Q

What are the biomarkers for AD?

A

Decreased Aβ1-42 together with increased T-tau or P-tau in CSF
Increased tracer retention on amyloid PET
AD autosomal dominant mutation present in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP

157
Q

What are the exclusion criteria for AD?

A
HISTORY
Sudden onset
Early occurrence of the following symptoms: gait disturbances, seizures, major and prevalent behavioural changes.
CLINICAL FEATURES
Focal neurological features
Early extrapyramidal signs
Early hallucinations
Cognitive fluctuations
158
Q

What are some other medical conditions that could account for severe memory related symptoms?

A

Major depression
Cerebrovascular disease
Toxic, inflammatory and metabolic disorders
MRI FLAIR or T2 changes in the medial temporal lobe that are consistent with infectious or vascular insult.

159
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for asymptomatic risk of AD?

A

Criteria for asymptomatic risk for AD:
Absence of specific clinical phenotype
Evidence of AD pathology - decreased Aβ1-42 together with increased T-tau or P-tau in CSF OR increased tracer retention on amyloid PET

160
Q

What are the diagnostic critera for presymptomatic AD?

A

Criteria for presymptomatic AD
Absence of specific clinical phenotype
Proven AD autosomal dominant mutation present in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP or other genes including trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)

161
Q

What are the features which will distinguish between depression and dementia?

A

Depression - onset and decline is often rapid (trigger/life event), subjective complaints of memory loss (obvious early on), patients distressed/unhappy, variability in cognitive performance, ‘don’t know’ answers.
Dementia - vague, insidious onset, unaware or attempting to hide problems (symptoms may go unnoticed), confusion in the evening, mood might be labile, cognitive performance is consistent, attempts all questions.

162
Q

What are the psychiatric changes in AD?

A

Subtle behaviour changes: inattentiveness, mild cognitive dulling, social withdrawal, emotional withdrawal and agitation
Apathy (most frequent change), disengagement
Psychotic symptoms: delusions (usually of theft) or hallucinations
Agitation or anxiety

163
Q

What’s the function of the temporal lobe?

A

Hearing (superior temporal lobe)
Language comprehension (superior temporal lobe)
Semantic knowledge (anterior temporal lobe)
Memory (hippocampus)
Emotional/affective behaviour (limbic system)

164
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Alzheimer’s disease is thought of as a posterior form of dementia.
Typical amnesic variant.
Early degeneration of medial temporal lobe before degeneration spreads to temporal neocortex, frontal and parietal association areas.

165
Q

How does Alzheimer’s disease progress?

A
Selective amnesia, semantic and language impairments
Complex attention (divided, selective, attention switching)
Global deficits
166
Q

What is the cognitive profile of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Episodic memory: frequent intrusions and repetition errors and high numbers of false positive errors in recall
Complex attention/executive function
Disproportionate impairment of category fluency as compared to phonemic fluency

167
Q

What are some of the more atypical variants of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Visual variants
Posterior occipitoparietal, occipitotemporal or more rarely primary visual cortex
Visual deficits, dyspraxia, dysgraphia, simultanagnosia
Linguistic variant:
Lateral temporal regions
Progressive aphasic syndrome

168
Q

What are the dementia differentials for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Vascular/mixed dementia: sub-cortical-frontal pattern (attention difficulties, motor/cognitive slowing and executive problems) and visuo-spatial difficulties
  • Dementia with lewy bodies: fluctuating cognition, pronounced disturbances in attention and concentration, working memory and early visuoperceptual deficits, visual hallucinations and spontaneous Parkinsonism
  • Depressive pseudodementia
169
Q

How does early-onset and late-onset AD differ?

A

Studies suggest that patients with early onset AD are less likely to have memory-related symptoms and more likely to have non-memory symptoms like apraxia/visuospatial dysfunction.

170
Q

What are some of the symptoms of non-memory dysfunction in AD?

A
Apraxia/visuospatial dysfunction
Language dysfunction
Aphasic-apraxic-agnostic syndrome
Posterior cortical atrophy
Dysexecutive syndrome
171
Q

What are some of the clinical features of preclinical AD?

A

Memory impairment is typically the first marker of AD
Poor performance on episodic memory tests
General cognitive function is preserved, activities of daily living are intact and there is no evidence of dementia
Score above 24/30 on MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)
High risk for developing AD

172
Q

How would you assess a patient for dementia?

A

Take a history from patient/family
Assess cognitive function (6CIT) - what year is it? What month is it? Give a 5 part address, count 20-1, say months of the year in reverse, repeat address
Blood tests (vitamin deficiencies, thyroid dysfunction)
Structural scan (can be CT but preferably MRI) used to exclude other cause e.g. stroke, tumour.
PET scan can be used for amyloid imaging.
FDG PET looks at glucose metabolism.

173
Q

Why is amyloid imaging not always that helpful in diagnosing AD?

A

But a large number of healthy elderly people have amyloid in their brain because the deposition increases with age. Not very good at discriminating.

174
Q

How do you manage AD?

A

Prevention: Healthy diet, healthy body weight, not smoking, reduced drinking and increased physical exercise can reduce your risk of dementia.
Support - socially and cognitively active, treat mood and anxiety
Carers - safeguarding
Advice
Medications
- Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors
- Memantime (anti-glutamate) - moderate to severe AD

175
Q

What is War neurosis?

A

A collective term used to denote the complex of nervous and mental disorders of soldiers in modern wartime societies
E.g. spasticity, tics, tremors etc
Treatment was psychosocial e.g. hypnosis, relaxation techniques, re-education, occupation

176
Q

What are the two types of symptoms?

A

Symptoms are broadly classified as organic or functional.
Organic - structural problem that is causing the symptoms that can be identified through physical examination or investigation
Functional - disorder of function (structurally intact)
E.g. IBS, chronic fatigue syndrome, fibromyalgia

177
Q

What is the defence mechanism of displacement?

A

A psychological defense mechanism in which negative feelings are transferred from the original source of the emotion to a less threatening person or object.

178
Q

What is Somatisation?

A

The manifestation of psychological distress by the presentation of physical symptoms.

179
Q

What is Dissociation?

A

Dissociation is a way the mind copes with too much stress.
People who dissociate may feel disconnected from themselves and the world around them.
Periods of dissociation can last for a relatively short time (hours or days) or for much longer (weeks or months).
It can sometimes last for years, but usually if a person has other dissociative disorders.

180
Q

What aspects are considered during a mental health examination?

A
Appearance
Behaviour
Speech
Mood
Thoughts
Perception
Cognition
Insight
181
Q

What is Neuroacanthocytosis?

A

Neuroacanthocytosis is a general term for a group of rare progressive disorders characterized by the association of misshapen, spiny red blood cells (acanthocytosis) and neurological abnormalities, especially movement disorders. The ‘core’ neuroacanthocytosis syndromes, in which acanthocytes are a typical feature, are chorea acanthocytosis and McLeod syndrome.

182
Q

What are the affects of Frontal lobe atrophy/dementia?

A

Change in personality

Apathy, irritability, disinhibition, inability to plan/organise/execute behaviour.

183
Q

What is the point of ECM?

A

ECT - pass electricity through the brain
Intention is to bring about a tonic-clonic seizure therapeutic for depression
Can work within a week
Can affect episodic memory

184
Q

How is the neurotransmitter system affected by Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s?

A

Memory impairment in Alzheimer’s - acetylcholine depletion
Depression in Parkinson’s - serotonin, noradrenaline, dopamine depletion
Psychosis in Parkinson’s treatment - excess dopamine

185
Q

What outside factors contribute to the presentation and progression of neurological conditions?

A

Age e.g. Huntinton’s is a disease of the middle age
Sex
Educational attainment e.g. higher education is protective for dementia progression
Socio-economic status
Premorbid personality traits e.g.
Psychiatric history

186
Q

What are personality traits?

A

Personality traits - repeated patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving.
Some traits are helpful but some are unhelpful.
Helpful traits should outweigh the unhelpful, allowing us to cope with the challenges of daily life.

187
Q

What is the structure and function of the cerebellum?

A

Cerebellum contains a complete motor and sensory representation of the whole body.
Dysfunction causes ataxia (lack of order).
Made up of an outer molecular layer, a single layer of large purkinje cells and then an inner granular layer. The structure is the same throughout - same population of cells repeating itself.

188
Q

What are the symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction?

A
Slurring of speech -often the volume of the speech is inappropriate to compensate for the slurring.
Dysphagia
Oscillopsia/blurring vision
Clumsiness due to loss of precision of movement
Tremor
Unsteadiness when walking
Falls
Cognitive
189
Q

What are the clinical signs of cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Dysarthria
Nystagmus - fast movement to one direction and a slow movement to the other
Limb ataxia
Action (intention) tremor
Truncal ataxia - very rare, concerns about cancer if sudden onset
Gait ataxia

190
Q

What is physiological nystagmus?

A

A form of involuntary eye movement that is part of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR), characterized by alternating smooth pursuit in one direction and saccadic movement in the other direction.

191
Q

What tests can you use to test limb ataxia?

A

Tested by asking the patient to touch their nose and then touch your finger.
Should be able to do that with precision.
Ask the patient to do a repetitive movement to test for Dysdiadochokinesia (impaired ability to perform rapid, alternating movements).
Heel-to-shin test in a straight line.

192
Q

How can you classify ataxia?

A

Congenital ataxia
Diseases where ataxia is only one of many features and may not be the most prominent one e.g. leukodystrophies
Familial ataxias, presumed genetic split into dominant and recessive
Sporadic (acquired) ataxias
Ataxias due to structural damage to the cerebellum are not included in this classification.

193
Q

What clues are found in the history that might suggest dysfunction of the cerebellum?

A

Congenital vs. early onset (genetic) vs late onset (acquired)
Rate of progression - slow is more likely to be genetic, fast is more likely to be due to degeneration or immune-associated ataxia
Episodic - recovery/relapse
Pure ataxia or ataxia plus (leg stiffness, sensory symptoms, deafness) - are there additional features?
Oscillopsia
Speech affected early or not?
Urinary, postural, nocturnal symptoms (autonomic features)

194
Q

What clues are found in the examination that might suggest dysfunction of the cerebellum?

A

Nystagmus, opsoclonus (involuntary movement in an unpredictable direction), slow saccades, ophthalmoplegia, oculomotor apraxia (eye not moving properly so need to turn head to see target)
Palatal tremor, deafness
Gait more affected than limb ataxia
Truncal ataxia
Pure or ataxia plus (autonomic, neuropathy, spasticity)
Other clues (telangiectasia, xanthomata)

195
Q

What can MRI imaging exclude when diagnosing cerebellar dysfunction?

A
Posterior circulation stroke affecting the cerebellum
Primary tumours (hemangioblastoma, acoustic neuromas, medulloplastoma)
Secondary tumours (metastasis) 
Hydrocephalus, Chiari malformation (a condition in which brain tissue extends into your spinal canal. It occurs when part of your skull is abnormally small or misshapen, pressing on your brain and forcing it downward.)
Multiple sclerosis (primary progressive)
196
Q

What is the hot cross bun sign?

A

The MRI appearance of the pons in a variety of neurodegenerative diseases. T2 hyperintensity forms a cross on axial images through the pons, representing selective degeneration of pontocerebellar tracts. It has been described in multiple system atrophy (MSA)

197
Q

What are the causes of progressive ataxia?

A

Familial/genetic (⅓) - most common is Friedreich’s ataxia
Gluten ataxia
Idiopathic ataxia
Alcohol
MSA-C (multiple system atrophy in the cerebellum)

198
Q

What do we know about idiopathic sporadic ataxias?

A

Accounts for a quarter of all sporadic ataxias
Heterogenous group
Likely some will be genetic
Less likely to be degenerative

199
Q

What are other immune ataxias/primary autoimmune cerebellar ataxia (PACA)?

A

47% had other associated immune diseases like thyroid problems, type 1 diabetes etc
HLA DQ2 present which is associated with autoimmune diseases
Anticerebellar antibodies more likely to be detected.

200
Q

What is Anti-GAD ataxia?

A

Presence of anti-GAD - antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase
Often associated with additional autoimmune disease (Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus , hypothyroid, PA)
Variable progression with periods of stability
Better to treat early with immunosuppressants
Monitored with MR spectroscopy

201
Q

As well as balance, what else does the cerebellum do?

A

Sequencing
Language
Executive function
Visuospatial abilities

202
Q

What is Cerebellar cognitive affective syndrome?

A

A condition that follows from lesions (damage) to the cerebellum of the brain.These cognitive impairments result in an overall lowering of intellectual function.

203
Q

What is a stroke?

A

A clinical syndrome caused by a cerebral infarction or haemorrhage, typified by rapidly developing signs of focal and global disturbance of cerebral functions lasting more than 24 hours or leading to death.

204
Q

What is a TIA?

A

An acute loss of cerebral or ocular function with symptoms lasting less than 24 hours caused by an inadequate cerebral or ocular blood supply as a result of low blood flow, ischaemia or embolism associated with disease of the blood vessels, heart or blood.

205
Q

What are the incidence rates of strokes/TIA?

A

Very common
Causes morbidity and mortality
Stroke/TIA are urgent/emergency
Primary and secondary prevention are essential parts of care (medicines/lifestyle changes)

206
Q

What are the features of an ischaemic stroke?

A

85% of strokes
Blood vessel in the brain is blocked
Usually atherosclerotic plaque or a clot in a larger artery ruptures, travels downstream, gets trapped in a narrower artery in the brain.
Embolic strokes are common complications of atrial fibrillation and atherosclerosis of carotid arteries.

207
Q

What are the features of hemorrhagic strokes?

A

15% of strokes
Bleeding from a blood vessel within the brain
High blood pressure is the main cause of intracerebral hemorrhagic stroke.

208
Q

How to diagnose a stroke?

A

Suspect a stroke in anyone presenting with acute onset, ongoing focal neurological deficit that cannot be explained by hypoglycaemia or other stroke mimics.

209
Q

What are focal neurological deficits?

A

Usually unilateral
Facial weakness (MCA)
Unilateral weakness of the upper and/or lower limb (MCA/ACA)
Unilateral sensory loss of the upper and/or lower limb (MCA/ACA)
Speech problems (MCA, dominant hemisphere - most commonly left)
Visual defects (PCA)
Disorders of perception (PCA)
Disorders of balance (posterior circulation)
Coordination disorders (posterior circulation)

210
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for strokes (stroke mimics)?

A

Hypoglycaemia
Labyrinthine disorders (labyrinthitis/vestibular neuronitis, Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), Meniere’s disease)
Migraine with aura
- Typical (visual symptoms, sensory symptoms, dysphasia)
- Typical (motor weakness, ‘hemiplegic migraine’, other)
Mass lesions (subdural haematoma, cerebral abscess, tumours)
Postictal weakness (aka Todd’s paralysis)
Simple partial seizures
Functional hemiparesis

211
Q

How to manage a stroke?

A

Arrange emergency admission to a specialist stroke unit

999 (if by telephone if clinically appropriate) or 1 hour admission

212
Q

How to manage a TIA?

A

Assess risk of stroke in the next 7 days

High risks require urgent referral (within 24 hours)

213
Q

How would you assess the patient’s risk of having a stroke?

A

Assess risk used ABCD score:
A - Age: 60 years or more (1 point)
B - BP (at presentation): 140/90 mmHg or greater (1 point)
C - Clinical features: unilateral weakness (2 points), speech disturbance without weakness (1 point)
D - Duration: 60mins or longer (2 points), 10-58mins (1 point)
D - Diabetes (1 point)

214
Q

Who is at a high-risk of a stroke?

A

ABCD score of 4 or more
Atrial fibrillation
More than one TIA in one week
TIA whilst on anticoagulant

215
Q

Who is at a low-risk of a stroke?

A

None of the above

Present more than a week after their last symptoms have resolved

216
Q

What are the features of primary care?

A

First point of contact for healthcare
For new problems (including urgent and emergency) and for ongoing problems
Places: GP practices, walk-in centres, minor injuries unit, dentists, opticians, 999? ED?
Wide range of practitioners
So primary care is not the same as general practice

217
Q

What are the features of general practice?

A

Healthcare provided by GPs
GPs are doctors and members of the RCGP
Training: med school, foundation training, GP specialist training
Summarised as expert medical generalism
Independent contractors to the NHS (the GP contract), owned and run by GP partners
Own buildings and employ staff
Reception, admin, nurses, healthcare assistants, physician associates, salaried GPs.

218
Q

What is Expert medical generalism?

A

Provision of healthcare to all patients with any healthcare need.
It’s focused on the person and not the disease ‘whole person medicines.
Includes: physical and mental health, end of life care, scheduled/routine care and emergencies, easy access, long term relationship, continuity, coordination, gatekeeping, evidence-based, patient education, public health, symptoms, medicines management.

219
Q

What is unique about GPs?

A

Depth of knowledge in lots of high-prevalence diseases e.g. asthma, COPD, diabetes, hypertension, headache.
Don’t have deep knowledge of all conditions, especially rare conditions.
Requires decision-making without subject specific expertise.
Emphasis on pragmatism, adaptability, resilience.
Clinical skills and clinical reasoning and the ability to manage uncertainty.
Specialist input is often required.
Working in teams is an essential part of general practice - practice-teams, community teams, hospital teams.

220
Q

What is the incidence of brain tumours?

A

Brain tumours are fairly uncommon but have a high morbidity and mortality.
20% of childhood cases (majority occur in the posterior fossa)
In adults, majority supratentorial

221
Q

What are the different types of neuroepithelial tumours?

A
Astrocytic (most common)
Oligodendroglial
Ependymal
Neuronal and neuro-glial
Pineal
Embryonal – primitive looking phenotype
Choroid plexus
222
Q

Other than neuroepithelial tumours, what are the different types of brain tumour?

A

Cranial and spinal nerve tumours
Meningeal tumours
Lymphomas – no lymphoid tissue but these can occur in older people and immunosuppressed (EBV)
Germ cell tumours – like the ones that can occur in the gonads, seen in young people
Metastatic tumours

223
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of brain tumours?

A

Loss of function – depends on location
Seizures/epilepsy
Raised ICP

224
Q

How can Astrocytic Tumours be classified?

A
Diffuse Astrocytomas (share a lot of pathological and clinical features)
diffuse astrocytoma WHO grade 2  anaplastic astrocytoma, grade 3  glioblastoma, grade 4
Other Types (biologically distinct)
eg Pilocytic
225
Q

What are the features of diffuse astrocytomas?

A

Infiltrate diffusely into brain – not very well circumscribed
This means that these tumours are not curable by surgical resection.
Propensity to undergo progressive anaplasia (aggressive progression)

226
Q

How do astrocytomas progress?

A

Become progressively more molecular abnormal
Cell of origin
Astrocytoma (Hypercellularity pleomorphism)
Anaplastic astrocytoma (Mitoses)
Glioblastoma (Necrosis and microvascular proliferation)

Note: Patients can present with a glioblastoma straight away (usually older patients).

227
Q

What are the features of Oligodendrogliomas?

A

Most common 4/5th decades
May have seizures
WHO grade II
Anaplastic Variant
Calcification recognised on scan
Co-deletion 1p19q – can be demonstrated by FISH – prognostic and predictive marker.
Mutations in IDH1 (isocitrate dehydrogenase) are present in low grade (II/III) astrocytomas and oligodendrogliomas.
Antibody for IDH1 can be used to identify whether the tumour has the mutation.

228
Q

How would you classify brain tumours based on IDH1 genetic component?

A

IDH1 mutant 1p19q del, ATRX preserved - Oligodendroglioma
IDH1 mutant 1p19q non-del, ATRX lost - Astrocytoma, secondary Glioblastoma
IDH1 wildtype - Glioblastoma de novo

229
Q

How would you histopathologically evaluate the diffuse tumours?

A
Hematoxylin and eosin stain
Immunohistochemistry
Molecular/cytogenetics e.g.
1p 19q
IDH1 mutation
MGMT methylation status –  predicts responsiveness to  alkylating agents
230
Q

What are the features of a Pilocytic Astrocytoma WHO Grade I brain tumour?

A
More prevalent in children
Present in the posterior fossa – cerebellum (common site)
Also at other sites
- Optic nerves
- Hypothalamic/midline
Often cystic
Good prognosis
231
Q

What are the features of a Medulloblastoma WHO grade IV brain tumour?

A

Embryonal tumour
Densely cellular
Primitive “small blue cell” tumour of the cerebellum
Found in childhood
Highly malignant but may respond to excision/radiotherapy/chemo (potentially curable)

232
Q

How would you categorise Medulloblastomas into low, standard and high risk?

A

Morphology
- Desmoplastic lower risk in infants
- Large cell anaplastic higher risk
Molecular subtyping - Wnt, Shh, Non-Wnt/Shh groups

233
Q

What are the features of a Meningioma?

A

Dural based
Push into brain
Most are grade I but there are more aggressive variants (grade II and III)

234
Q

What are the most common tumours that are metastatic to the brain?

A
May present with brain metastasis before the primary tumour presents.
Lung (45%)
Breast (25%)
Melanoma (12%)
GI Tract
Kidney
235
Q

What happens a intracranial lesion expands?

A

Brain is in a hard box – no space to expand
Initially there is a compensatory phase – compression of the ventricles
Only last so long
Pressure begins to rise
Exponential rise in pressure –bigger and bigger change in pressure
Starts to push on adjacent structures
Pressure gradients – things start to move across dividers (internal herniation)

236
Q

What happens when there is compression on the oculomotor nerve?

A

Oculomotor nerve is responsible for the innervation of the extraocular muscles of the eye except the superior oblique and the lateral rectus (when compressed – down and out phenotype).
Also responsible for the parasympathetic innervation of the pupil – lose parasympathetic tone (unbalance sympathetic tone) – ipsilateral pupil dilatation.

237
Q

What is a Herniation (Duret) Haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding into the brain stem (into the midbrain and the pons) due to the tear of vessels coming from the basilar artery.
Classically in the midline.
Prevent any brainstem input into the cerebrum.
Causes death.

238
Q

What is Tonsillar herniation?

A

Tonsils pushed out through the foramen magnum.
Presses on the medulla (cardio-respiratory centres).
Causes death.
Lesion sometimes referred to as coning.

239
Q

What are the anatomical effects of a mass lesion?

A

Local deformity and shift of structures
Decreased volume of CSF although there may be expansion of the ventricles in some cases.
Pressure gradients lead to internal herniation
Lateral tentorial - lethal
Cerebellar tonsillar - lethal
Central transtentorial
Subfalcine cingulate

240
Q

How can you classify the problems associated with the basal ganglia?

A

Cells death: PD and Huntington’s

Dysfunctional brain circuits: Essential tremor, dystonia, tourette’s

241
Q

How should you assess Parkinson’s symptoms?

A

Consider how quickly a symptom develops.
Time patterns are very important in considering neurological conditions.
In PD it is usually gradual onset.

Consider how the symptoms affect the areas of the body.
In PD there is usually one side which is worse than the other.

242
Q

What are the 3 cardinal symptoms of Parkinson’s diease?

A

Brady/Akinesia: problems with doing up buttons, keyboard, writing smaller, walking deteriorated, small stepped, dragging one foot etc.
Tremor: at rest, may be unilateral
Rigidity: pain, problems with turning in bed

243
Q

What are the clinical signs of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Small stepped gait with stooped posture, reduced arm swing L>R
Increased tone = rigidity, tone increased over entire radius of joint movement
Rest tremor: often asymmetrical, also some postural tremor
Decreasing amplitude/accuracy of repetitive movements - much better than the beginning, gradual worsening

244
Q

What is a DaTSCAN?

A

A tool used to confirm the diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease. It is a specific type of single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) imaging technique that helps visualize dopamine transporter levels in the brain. In Parkinson’s, there is a steady loss of dopamine transporters in the brain.

245
Q

What is the cause of Parkinson’ disease?

A

Unknown
Can be familial, but more likely to be spontaneous.
Can have genetic susceptibility factors.
Environmental factors - toxin-induced risk factors
Oxidative stress and mitochondrial dysfunction can also have an impact.

246
Q

What is the prognosis of Parkinson’s disease?

A
The disease is slowly progressive
It does not change its nature overnight
No cure
No disease-modifying treatment
Plenty of symptomatic treatment options 
Aim is to compensate for loss of dopamine
247
Q

What is the pharmacological treatment for Parkinson’s disease?

A

L-Dopa is the precursor of dopamine
Best drug for PD
Can support the action of L-Dopa by combining it with other drugs, like dopamine agonists. Act at the post-synaptic receptors.
COMT/MAO-B inhibitors can also be useful:
Catechol-O-Methyl-Transferase
Monoamino-oxidase
Reduce the breakdown of dopamine, increasing its levels.
Anticholinergics are really not ideal because they have side effects on cognition, confusion, systemic.

248
Q

What are the motor complications of late Parkinson’s disease?

A

Wearing off: the medication doesn’t work as it did before
On-dyskinesias: hyperkinetic, choreiform movements whenever drugs work
Off-dyskinesias: fixed, painful dystonic posturing, typically of feet, when drugs don’t work
Freezing: unpredictable loss of mobility

249
Q

When should the treatment for the motor symptoms in PD be started?

A

Nobody knows
Major push from drug companies to get patients started on treatment early
Factors to take into consideration: severity of motor impairment/QoL, side effects, myths, L-dopa phobia, neuroprotection
As always look at each individual patient and try to decide together

250
Q

What are the benefits/drawbacks of each PD drug?

A
MAO-B inhibitor (Rasagiline - Selegiline): not very powerful but does help some patients, neuroprotective effect
DA agonist (Ropininirole, pramipexole, Rotigotine - patches): reduced risk of dyskinesias in the short-term, first line treatment of younger PD patients, significant ‘soft tissue’ effects: tiredness, gambling, hypersexuality etc
L-Dopa: most powerful drug, the higher the dose, the greater the risk of side effects
251
Q

What are the different preparations of L-Dopa?

A

Dispersible L-Dopa: kick start in the morning
Standard release: day time medication
Slow release: night time medication

252
Q

What are the other associated side-symptoms of PD?

A

Depression is very common in PD (20%)
Other psychiatric problems are also very common: phobias, anxiety, psychosis
Dementia is also very common in PD (20%)
Can also have autonomic problems: constipation, increased urinary frequency, urinary incontinence is untypical.

253
Q

What are the features of slowly progressive walking disorders than aren’t PD?

A
Incontinence
Dementia
Symmetry
Early falls
None of these should really be present in PD (at least not at the beginning).
254
Q

What are the features of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Intermittent pressure increase
Increased ventricles
Can be treated by surgery - a shunt can result in the improvement of dementia, incontinence, walking problems

255
Q

What are the features of an essential tremor?

A

Very common
No structural pathology

Treatment
Beta-blockers - up to 100mg daily, contraindicated in asthmatics or diabetics
Primidone - start off with low doses
Others - gabapentin and clonazapam

256
Q

What can be affected in peripheral neuropathy?

A

Everything outside the brain and the spinal cord

Includes the receptors at the skin, peripheral nerves, spinal nerves, dorsal and ventral roots.

257
Q

What are the different types of sensory fibres?

A

A⍺ fibres: proprioception - where our limbs stand in space, large in diameter, myelinated
Aꞵ fibres: light touch, pressure, vibration - large in diameter, myelinated
Aδ fibres: pain and cold sensation - small in diameter, myelinated
C fibres: pain and warm sensation - small in diameter, unmyelinated

258
Q

What are the two major types of neuropathy?

A

Mononeuropathy: problem with one nerve
Polyneuropathy: problem with many nerves

Demyelination - loss of myelin, reduction in conduction velocity
Axonal damage - lesion in the axon itself

259
Q

What are the most common mononeuropathies?

A
Carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve)
Ulnar neuropathy (entrapment at the cubital tunnel)
Peroneal neuropathy (entrapment at the fibular head)
Cranial mononeuropathies (III or VII cranial nerve palsy) - can be idiopathic, immune mediated, ischemic
260
Q

How do we classify polyneuropathies?

A

Small fibre neuropathies
Large fibre neuropathies (more common)
Can be divided into:
- Acute (less than 6 months): axonal or demyelinating
- Chronic (more than 6 months): axonal or demyelinating

261
Q

How do the symptoms of neuropathies change depending on which sensory fibres are affected?

A

A⍺ fibres: ataxia, no balance, unable to tell where our limbs are
Aꞵ fibres: unable to perceive light touch, pressure, vibration
Aδ fibres: unable to perceive pain and cold sensation
C fibres: unable to perceive pain and warm sensation

262
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Poor balance
TWO TYPES: sensory (loss of proprioception) or cerebellar dysfunction
When the cause is sensory, the ataxia gets worse when it is dark or the eyes are closed.

263
Q

What are the motor symptoms of neuropathy?

A

Muscle cramps
Weakness
Fasciculations (muscle twitches)
Atrophy - can lead to high arched feet (pes cavus) when atrophies are excessive

264
Q

What are the 3 clinical presentations of motor neuropathy?

A
Symmetrical sensorimotor (most common) - length-dependent because the more distal nerves are affected first, initially sensory but eventually sensorimotor
Asymmetrical sensory - less common, patchy distribution of sensory symptoms, dorsal root ganglia are affected, think of associated diseases: cancer, Sjogren’s, gluten sensitivity/coaelic disease
Asymmetrical sensorimotor (least common) - multiple mononeuropathies, may not very affected all at the same time, variable, think of vasculitis
265
Q

How would you go about diagnosing neuropathy?

A
History
Clinical examination
	Reduced or absent tendon reflexes
	Sensory deficit
	Weakness - muscle atropies
Neurophysiological examination (i.e.. Nerve conduction studies/QST) to identify the severity and the type (axonal or demyelinating)
266
Q

What are the potential causes of axonal peripheral neuropathy?

A

Associated with systemic diseases
Inflammatory - immune mediated (mainly acute)
Infectious (i.e. hepatitis, HIV, lyme)
Ischaemic (i.e. vasculitis)
Metabolic (i.e. Fabry’s, porphyria)
Hereditary (CMT, HLPP)
Toxins (pharmaceuticals, environmental toxins, B6)

267
Q

What diseases can be associated with axonal peripheral neuropathy?

A
Diabetes
Vitamin deficiency (commonly B12)
Gluten sensitivity/coeliac disease
Chronic renal disease
Excessive alcohol drinking
Hypothyroidism
Amyloidosis
Connective tissue disease
Paraproteinemia
Paraneoplastic
Critical illness polyneuropathy
268
Q

What are the features of Chronic idiopathic axonal polyneuropathy?

A

Chronic - develops over at least 6 months
Idiopathic - no aetiology can be identified despite extensive and appropriate investigations
Axonal - axons are affected, most commonly in proportion to their length (length dependent)

269
Q

What immune related conditions can cause chronic demyelination?

A

Charcot Marie tooth disease

Hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathy

270
Q

What are the clinical features of Guillain Barre syndrome?

A

3 types: demyelinating/axonal motor/axonal sensorimotor
Can relapse
Clinically:
Rapidly ascending paralysis and sensory deficits (begins as tingling, weakness and then complete paralysis)
Infection (i.e. GI or respiratory) might precede the disease - campylobacter
Needs immediate treatment (IVIG - plasma exchange)/ITU to support respiratory function

271
Q

What is the treatment for Guillain Barre syndrome?

A

Symptomatic
Pain (i.e. amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin etc)
Cramps (i.e. quinine)
Balance (i.e. physiotherapy/walking aids)
Aim is to identify any reversible causes and prevent progression if possible.

272
Q

What’s the difference between an anterior and posterior circulation stroke?

A

Anterior circulation stroke - blockage/bleed from a artery in or coming from the circle of Willis
Posterior circulation stroke - blockage of the basilar/vertebral artery

273
Q

What are the symptoms of an anterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

Leg weakness
Sensory disturbance in the legs (due to sensory and motor loss)
Gait apraxia - truncal apraxia
Incontinence (sensory supply to the bladder)
Drowsiness
Akinetic mutism - decrease in spontaneous speech, stuporous state
(can be almost unconscious with it)

274
Q

What’s the difference between a CT scan and an MRI?

A

CT scans utilize X-rays to produce images of the inside of the body while MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) uses powerful magnetic fields and radio frequency pulses to produce detailed pictures of organs and other internal body structures.
CT looks at density of tissue - when an area of the brain’s blood supply is blocked, the cells there start to lyse and they lose their cell membranes and draw more water in, causing a change in density.
MRI looks at water content

275
Q

What are the symptoms of an middle cerebral artery stroke?

A
Contralateral arm and leg weakness
Contralateral sensory loss
Hemianopia (optic tracts pass through the area which is supplied by MCA)
Aphasia (speech areas supplied by MCA)
Dysphasia (motor cortex damage)
Facial droop
276
Q

What is Malignant MCA syndrome?

A

Rapid neurological deterioration due to the effects of space occupying cerebral oedema following middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory stroke. Can cause herniation.

277
Q

What are the symptoms of a posterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Cortical blindness with bilateral involvement of the occipital lobe branches
Visual agnosia
Prosopagnosia
Dyslexia, anomic aphasia, colour naming and discrimination problems
Only one where there may be a presenting unilateral headache

278
Q

What are the symptoms of a posterior circulation stroke?

A

Mainly affect the cerebellum and the brain stem.
Motor deficits such as hemiparesis or tetraparesis and facial paresis
Dysarthria and speech impairment
Vertigo, nausea and vomiting
Visual disturbances
Altered consciousness

279
Q

Other than the anterior/posterior circulation what other types of stroke are there?

A

Lacunar strokes - blockages of smaller vessels (branches), either get sensory or motor changes
Warning syndromes - blockages of small vessels of the cortex, stuttering and starting of areas of the body before progressing towards a stroke
TIA - blocked and then re-opens or finds another way round. Precursor for a bigger ischaemic event.

280
Q

What are the treatments for stroke?

A

Aspirin and rehabilitation
Break up the blood clots with Actilyse or other thrombolytic (has a window that it can work in: 4-6 hours)
Clot retrieval - interventional radiology to remove clots from big arteries e.g. AMP/CA, basilar artery (most effective)
Interaterial thrombolysis - inject the thrombolysis directly into the clot
Decompressive craniectomy - usually in MCA stroke

281
Q

How are thrombolytics given?

A

Up to 4.5 hours post onset of symptoms

Given intravenously to break down the clot

282
Q

What are the contraindications for thrombolysis?

A
Recent surgery in the last 3 months
Recent arterial puncture
History of active malignancy
Evidence of brain aneurysms
Patient on anticoagulation
Severe liver disease
Acute pancreatitis
Clotting disorder
Severe hypertension
283
Q

What are the risk management initiatives for prevention of stroke?

A
  • Platelet treatments: aspirin and dipyridamole of Clopidogrel
  • Cholesterol treatments: statins
  • Atrial fibrillation treatments: Warfarin and NOACs (don’t need as much monitoring but don’t have a reversible drug)
  • Blood pressure treatments: antihypertensives
284
Q

What is the Modified Rankin scale?

A

A commonly used scale for measuring the degree of disability or dependence in the daily activities of people who have suffered a stroke or other causes of neurological disability.

285
Q

What is neurogibromatosis?

A

Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes tumors to form on nerve tissue. These tumors can develop anywhere in your nervous system, including your brain, spinal cord and nerves. Neurofibromatosis is usually diagnosed in childhood or early adulthood.

286
Q

What are Kayser–Fleischer rings?

A

A pathognomonic sign, may be visible in the cornea of the eyes, either directly or on slit lamp examination as deposits of copper in a ring around the cornea. They are due to copper deposition in Descemet’s membrane. They do not occur in all people with Wilson’s disease.