Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Atherosclerosis?

A

The process by which plaques made of fibrous tissue, lipids, cholesterol and lymphocytes build up in arteries over time. Can cause the arteries to narrow and harden, restricting the blood flow and oxygen supply.
Progresses over lifetime.

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for Atherosclerosis?

A
Smoking
Hypertension
Type 2 diabetes that is poorly controlled
Hyperlipidaemia
Obesity
Physically inactive
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3
Q

What are the theories concerning what causes Atherosclerosis?

A

Lipid insudation theory: high levels of lipids in the blood infiltrate the walls of the arteries to cause the atherosclerotic plaque to form.
BUT the lipids present in the plaque were different and the theory did not account for the fibrosis and inflammation present.
Instead: caused by endothelial cell damage on the lining of the arteries, caused by nicotine, increased lipid, shearing forces from hypertension at bifurcation points or poorly controlled diabetes.

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4
Q

How does an Atherosclerotic plaque form?

A

Begin as fatty streaks early in life which can develop overtime to produce a plaque in the artery wall.
Over time, damage to endothelial wall causes addition of platelets and fibrosis tissue. The endothelial layer repairs but more of the lumen is occluded.
Haemorrhage can speed up the process.
As the blockage gets bigger, more of the artery is occluded, causing onset of symptoms e.g. claudication

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5
Q

What is Apoptosis?

A

A genetically directed process of cell self-destruction that is marked by the fragmentation of nuclear DNA. A normal physiological process eliminating DNA-damaged, superfluous, or unwanted cells. Activated either by the presence of a stimulus or removal of a suppressing agent or stimulus.
In the process of apoptosis, the cell undergoes blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, chromosomal DNA fragmentation, and global mRNA decay before being engulfed by a phagocyte.
Bcl2 protein and Fas receptor-ligand complex activate caspases which activate Apoptosis.

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6
Q

When is Apoptosis useful and harmful?

A

Apoptosis is useful in development - we required many cells to die in order to change webbed fingers into digits.
Tissues with a high-cell turnover require apoptosis to remove cells that have stopped being useful.

Lack of apoptosis leads to cancer (uncontrolled cell growth).
Too much apoptosis leads to HIV.

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7
Q

What is Necrosis?

A

Unprogrammed and traumatic death of cells due to disease, injury or failure of the blood supply.
Various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space.

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8
Q

What is Necrosis?

A

Unprogrammed and traumatic death of cells due to disease, injury or failure of the blood supply.
Various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space.
Examples include cerebral infarction and avascular necrosis of bone (particularly scaphoid bone).

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9
Q

What are the different types of Necrosis?

A

Coagulative necrosis: Architecture of dead tissue is preserved
Liquifactive necrosis: Digestion of dead cells form a viscous liquid mass
Caseous necrosis: Maintains a cheese-like appearance, the dead tissue appears as a soft and white proteinaceous dead cell mass.

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10
Q

What is Hypertrophy?

A

Increased size of tissue due to increased size of the constituent cells.
e.g. mutation in myostatin gene which would normally provide restriction on muscle cell size

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11
Q

What is Hyperplasia?

A

Increased size of tissue due to increase in number of constituent cells.
e.g. benign hypostatic hyperplasia in prostate smooth muscle or endometrium tissue

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12
Q

What is Atropy?

A

Decrease in size of tissue caused by a decrease in constituent cells or a decrease in their size.
e.g. Alzheimer’s or optic atropy

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13
Q

What is Metaplasia?

A

Change in differentiation of a cell from one fully differentiated cell to another fully differentiated cell.
e.g. cilia usually move mucous up the bronchial tree, but in smoking they are directly affected so ciliated columnar epithelium differentiate into squamous epithelium.
No cilia present means increased incidence of infection/disease.

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14
Q

What is Dysplasia?

A

Imprecise term for the morphological changes seen in cells in the progression to becoming cancerous.
Abnormal architecture and arrangement.

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15
Q

What are the different types of spina bifida?

A
  • Spina Bifida Occulta: 1 or more vertebrae don’t form properly
  • Meningocele: meninges push out through the spine
  • Myelomeningocele: spinal canal remains open along several vertebrae
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16
Q

What’s the difference between congenital, inherited and acquired disorders?

A

Congenital: present from birth
Inherited: caused by a genetically inherited abnormality
Acquired: caused by a non-genetic environmental factor

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17
Q

What are chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities are caused by errors in the number or structure of chromosomes. Some examples of chromosomal abnormalities cause by an error in the number of chromosomes are:
•Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21: The individual has an extra chromosome 21.
•Trisomy 18 or Edwards’s syndrome: The individual has an extra chromosome 18.
•Trisomy 13 or Patau syndrome: The individual has an extra chromosome 13

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18
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

Early-onset dementia with symptoms of irritability, depression, poor coordination and difficulty in making decisions.
Caused by a mutation which causes there to be 36-120 CAG trinucleotide repeats in the Huntington gene.

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19
Q

What is Progeria?

A

An autosomal dominant genetic disorder.
Premature symptoms of ageing.
People with progeria have specific features: Growth failure, Macrocephaly (big head), Micrognathia (undersized jaw), Absent or delayed teeth formation, Alopecia (hair loss), Aged-looking skin, Dry, scaly, or thin skin, Loss of body fat, Joint abnormalities.

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20
Q

What are the signs of ageing?

A
Balding
Cataracts - UV-B light causing cross-linking of proteins, causes cloudiness
Loss of teeth
Senile dementia
Hypertension and heart disease
Prostatic hyperplasia
Degenerative joint diseases
Deafness
Dermal elastosis - increase in elastin, caused by UV-B which causes protein cross-linking
Osteoporosis - bone weakening, increased no. of fractures
Diverticular disease of colon
Ankle oedema due to heart failure
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21
Q

How is telomere length associated with lifespan?

A

Telomeres are regions of repetitive nucleotide sequences at each end of a chromosome, which protects the end of the chromosome from deterioration or from fusion with neighbouring chromosomes.
As cells divide, telomeres get shorter.
In humans, average telomere length declines from about 11 kilobases at birth to fewer than 4 kilobases in old age.
Telomere length is paternally inhibited and is associated with paternal lifespan.

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22
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Sarcopenia is the degenerative loss of skeletal muscle mass, quality, and strength associated with aging. The rate of muscle loss is dependent on exercise level, co-morbidities, nutrition and other factors. Sarcopenia can lead to reduction in functional status and cause significant disability.

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23
Q

What’s the difference between resolution and repair?

A

Resolution: when you remove initiating factor e.g. infection, alcohol consumption tissue is either undamaged or able to regenerate.
Repair: initiating factor is still present and tissue is damaged and unable to regenerate.

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24
Q

What is lobar pneumonia?

A

Lobar pneumonia is a form of pneumonia characterized by inflammatory exudate within the intra-alveolar space resulting in consolidation that affects a large and continuous area of the lobe of a lung.
Air spaces become filled with neutrophils but can be cleared with antibiotics.

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25
Q

What is abrasion?

A

Top layers of skin removed but hair follicles and sweat glands remain. Scab forms over the surface. Epidermis grows out from the adnexa, protected by the scab. Scab falls off.

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26
Q

What are the possible outcomes following a skin wound?

A
  • 1st intention (best outcome): Incision produces a weak fibrin joint which leads to a strong collagen joint through epidermal regrowth and collagen synthesis.
  • 2nd intention: missing area of skin/hair follicles/sweat glands. Granulation tissue forms leading to organisation and early fibroid scar and scar contraction. End up with a larger scar.
  • Grannulation tissue: new connective tissue and microscopic blood vessels that form on the surface of the wound during the healing process. Grows out from the base.
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27
Q

Which cells can and can’t regenerate?

A

Cells that can regenerate: hepatocytes, pneumocytes, all blood cells, gut epithelium, osteocytes.
Cells that can’t regenerate: myocardial cells and neurons. Replacement of damaged tissue by fibrosis tissue e.g. pale collagen deposits in heart, gliosis in brain, spinal cord after trauma

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28
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

Solid mass of blood constituents formed within an inact vascular system during life.
If endothelium is damaged, platelet stick to the side (platelet aggregation) and RBCs get trapped here (thrombus formation). Platelets release chemicals which cause fibrinogen to convert to fibrin creating a mesh.
Positive feedback loop.

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29
Q

What predisposes a thrombus?

A

Change in vessel wall, blood flow or blood constituents.

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30
Q

What is an embolus?

A

Mass of material in the vascular system able to become lodged within a vessel and block it.
No blood flow distal to blockage.

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31
Q

What is ischaemia and infarction?

A

Ischaemia: reduction in blood flow
Infarction: death of cells due to reduction in blood flow

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32
Q

What is reperfusion injury?

A

If blood supply returns to a tissue after a period of ischemia/hypoxia, it may cause inflammation and oxidative damage through the induction of oxidative stress rather than normal function.

33
Q

Why are some areas of the body more prone to infarction?

A

If an organ only has one artery coming in (end artery supply) when it’s blocked, leads to infarction.
But some organs have two blood supplies, allowing blood to enter another way.
Lungs and liver have dual blood supply as do some parts of the brain.

34
Q

What’s the difference between an embolus in the arterial and venous system?

A

VENOUS
Embolus travels to vena cava through the right side of the heart and will lodge somewhere in the pulmonary arteries. It cannot reach the arterial circulation because the blood vessels split down to capillary size.
ARTERIAL
Can travel anywhere down stream of its entry point.

35
Q

What are the types of Autopsy?

A
  • Hospital autopsies: (10%) used for audit, governance, research and teaching.
  • Medico-legal autopsies: (90%) for forensic purposes
36
Q

What is the process of an Autopsy?

A
  • History/scene
  • External examination: identification of gender, age, body modification, clothing, identification of disease, treatment and injuries.
  • Evisceration: Y-shaped incision to open all the body cavities and examine all the organs in situ. Then remove thoracic and abdominal organs and brain.
  • Internal examination: work from front to back, heart and vessels, lungs, trachea, bronchi, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, thymus and lymph nodes, genitourinary tract, endocrine organs, CNS.
  • Reconstruction
37
Q

What is the role of the coronal autopsy?

A
Identify:
Who was the deceased?
When did they die?
Where did they die?
How did they come by their death?
38
Q

What are the different types of death referred to the coroner?

A
  • Presumed natural: cause of death not known
  • Presumed iatrogenic: peri/post-operative deaths, anaesthetic deaths, abortion, complications of therapy
  • Presumed unnatural: accidents, industrial death, suicide, unlawful killing, neglect, custody deaths, war/industrial pensions
39
Q

What is Basal Cell Carcinoma?

A

A non-melanoma skin cancer, and is the most common type in the UK.
Caused by exposure to UV light, most commonly found on face, head, neck and ears.
Some BCCs are superficial and look like a scaly red flat mark on the skin. Others form a lump and have a pearl-like rim surrounding a central crater.
Complete local excision is usually curative because it almost never spreads to other parts of the body.

40
Q

How is Leukemia’s treatment different to that of BCC?

A

Leukemia is a broad term for cancers of the blood cells. The type of leukemia depends on the type of blood cell that becomes cancer and whether it grows quickly or slowly.
Most commonly affects the WBCs. Since the WBCs are produced by the bone marrow and released into circulation, much more likely to spread into other areas of the body. Cannot be removed by surgery in one location, instead you use chemotherapy.

41
Q

Where do cancers spread to?

A

Carcinomas spread first to the lymph nodes that drain the area where the carcinoma originates.
Carcinomas can also spread through the blood to bone. Breast, prostate, lung, thyroid and kidney cancers most commonly spread to bone.

42
Q

What is the treatment plan for breast cancer?

A
  • Confirm diagnosis of breast cancer (scan and biopsy if required)
  • Has it spread to the axilla? (ultrasound of the axilla to look for enlarged nodes). Axillary clearance may be needed.
  • Has it spread to the rest of the body? (bone scan to look for metastasis in bone, CT scan to look at lungs and liver).
    If it hasn’t spread - surgery with/without axillary clearance.
    If it has spread - systemic chemotherapy needed.
43
Q

What is adjuvent therapy?

A

Extra treatment given after surgical excision.

e. g. breast tissue that is oestrogen-receptor positive will be given adjuvent anti-oestrogen therapy
e. g. herceptin is given for a year in HER2-amplified tumours to get rid of any micrometasises

44
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

The transformation of normal cells to neoplastic cells through permanent genetic alterations or mutations.

45
Q

What are carcinogens?

A

Agents known or suspected to cause tumours.

They act mutagenically on DNA.

46
Q

Why is it difficult to identify specific environmental causal factors for cancer?

A

85% of cancer risk is environmental.

  • Many decades between exposure and outcome (latent interval)
  • Complexity of environment
  • Ethical constraints means it’s difficult to test specific factors
47
Q

What are the epidemiological differences in cancer incidence in different countries?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma is common in areas of increased hepatitis B/C, liver cirrhosis and mycotoxins (a toxic secondary metabolite produced by fungi).

Oesophageal carcinoma is common in Japan, China, Turkey and Iran. May be due to dietary factors (hot coffee in Turkey and Iran) or cultural norms.

48
Q

What are some examples of occupational risks for cancer?

A
  • Strong association with smoking and lung cancer
  • Increased risk of bladder cancer with exposure to aniline dye and rubber industries (amines)
  • Increased risk of scrotal cancer in chimney sweeps
  • Increased risk of thorotrast angiosarcoma in radiographers (used to use thorium in radiography)
  • Increased incidence of thyroid cancer as radioactive Iodine released after the Chernobyl reactor explosion
49
Q

What is used to gather experimental evidence about cancer?

A

Incidence of tumours in laboratory animals
Cell/tissue cultures
Mutagenicity testing in bacterial cultures

BUT we are very different and have a different metabolism so it’s not very accurate.

50
Q

What are the different classes of carcinogens?

A
Chemical
Viral
Ionising and non-ionising radiation
Hormones, parasites and mycotoxins
Miscellaneous
51
Q

What are chemical carcinogens?

A

No structural features which unite them
Some act directly, whereas others require metabolic conversion from pro-carcinogens to ultimate carcinogens.
Enzyme required may be ubiquitous or confined to certain organs.
Polycystic aromatic hydrocarbons - lung and skin cancer
Aromatic amines - bladder cancer
Nitosamines - gut cancer
Alkylating agents - leukemia

52
Q

What are radiation-based carcinogens?

A

Exposure to UVa and UVb increases the risk of BCC, SCC and melanoma. Increased risk of zeroderma pigmentosum which means you get skin cancer more easily.
Other examples include: skin cancer in radiographers, lung cancer in uranium miners, thyroid cancer in Ukrainian children.

53
Q

What are biological carcinogens?

A
  • Hormones: increased oestrogen levels gives increased risk of mammary/endothelial cancer. Anabolic steroids give increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
  • Mycotoxins: Alfatoxin B1 gives increased risk of hepatocellular cancer.
  • Parasites: clonorchis sinensis gives cholangiocarcinoma and shistosoma gives bladder cancer.
54
Q

What are some examples of miscellaneous carcinogens?

A

Unknown mechanisms of action.

Examples include asbestos, arsenic and metals.

55
Q

What are some examples of host factors which increase your risk of cancer?

A

Race - lighter skin give higher chance of skin cancer
Diet - reduced fibre and high-intake of alcohol
Age - increased incidence
Gender e.g. breast cancer
Culture - reverse smoking and betal chewing leads to oral cancer
Inherited predisposition
Premalignant conditions e.g. colonic polyps, cervical dysplasia, ulcerative colitis
Transplacental exposure e..g diethylstiboestrol taken for morning sickness, increased risk of vaginal cancer in offspring

56
Q

What is a premalignant condition?

A

Identifiable local abnormality associated with increased risk of malignancy at that site.

57
Q

What’s the difference between a tumour and a neoplasm?

A

Tumour refers to any abnormal swelling.
Neoplasm is a lesion resulting from the autonomous or relatively autonomous abnormal growth of cells which persists after the initiating stimulus has been removed.

Often incorrectly used synonymously.

58
Q

Why is neoplasia a spectrum of disease?

A

Can be benign or malignant or somewhere in between.

Those in the middle are known as ‘borderline tumours’ and are mostly found in the ovaries.

59
Q

What makes up the neoplasm?

A

Neoplastic cells which are usually monoclonal and have a growth pattern and synthetic activity related to that of its parent cell e.g. collagen, mucin, keratin, hormones.

Stroma, the supporting connective tissue developed by the neoplasm to provide a framework, mechanical support, nutrition.

60
Q

What is tumour angiogenesis?

A

Tumour angiogenesis describes the formation of new blood vessels in a tumour. This process makes use of the existing surrounding blood vessels and occurs as a result of signals sent by tumour cells and cells in the tumour microenvironment.
Promoters: vascular endothelial growth factor and basic fibroblast growth factor
Inhibitors: angiostatin, endostatin, vasculostatin.

61
Q

How can neoplasms be classified?

A

Neoplasms need to be classified in order to determine appropriate treatment and to provide prognostic information.
Can be classified into:
- Behavourial (benign, borderline, malignant)
- Histogenetic (cell of origin)

62
Q

What are the features of benign neoplasms?

A

Localised, non-invasive, slow growth rate, low mitotic activity, close resemblance to normal tissue, circumscribed or encapsulated (restricted), normal nuclear morphometry, very rare to see necrosis or ulceration, growth on mucosal surfaces is often exophytic (up and outwards).
DANGEROUS because they put pressure on adjacent structures, obstruct flow and production of hormones, may transform to a malignant neoplasm, bring anxiety.

63
Q

What are the features of malignant neoplasms?

A

Invasive, metastases, rapid growth rate, variable resemblance to normal tissue, poorly defined or irregular border, hyperchromatic nuclei, pleomorphic nuclei, increased mitotic activity, common incidence of necrosis and ulceration, poorly circumscribed, growth on mucosal surfaces is often endophytic (down and inwards).
DANGEROUS because they encroach upon and destroy surrounding tissue, metastases, cause blood loss from ulcers, obstruct flow and hormone production, paraneoplastic effects (caused by spreading), anxiety and pain.

64
Q

How can neoplasms be classified histogenetically?

A

Specific cell of origin of tumour.
All neoplasms have the suffix -oma.
Prefix depends on behavioural classification and cell type.
Papilloma: benign tumour of non-glandular, non-secretory epithelium
Adenoma: benign tumour of glandular or secretory epithelium
Carcinoma: malignant tumour of epithelial cells
Adenocarcinoma: Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium

Benign connective tissue neoplasms may have the prefix Lip (adipocytes), Chrodr (cartilage), Osteo (bone), Angi (vascular), Rhabdomy (striated muscle), Leiomy (smooth muscle), Neur (nerves).
Sarcoma instead of Oma means malignant.

Anaplastic = cell type unknown

65
Q

What are the exceptions to the rules of histogenetically classifying neoplasms?

A

Not all omas are neoplasms e.g. granuloma
Not all malignant tumours are carcinomas/sarcomas e.g. melanoma, mesothelioma and lymphoma are malignant
Some tumours are named eponymously after the person who first described them.
Teratoma: tumour made up of several different types of tissue. (hair, teeth, bone)
Blastomas: solid tumours made up of embryonic tissue that has failed to differentiate.
Mixed tumours: derived from multiple tissue types.
APUDomas: tumour composed of cells with APUD cytochemical properties.
Carcinosarcomas: malignant tumours that consist of a mixture of carcinoma (epithelial) and sarcoma (mesenchymal).

66
Q

How does a cancer become invasive?

A

Cancer cell begins as an abnormal cell changed due to a genetic mutation. It rapidly divides and invades local tissue displacing the resident cells (carcinoma in situ). It can break through the basement membrane and become invasive. Once through the BM, it can invade through the ECM and enter a vessel. If it evades the host’s immune system (lymphocytes) it can stick to a vessel wall and enter a new tissue. If this new location is local (micro-invasive carcinoma) it can be removed but if it is far from the original site it cannot (invasive carcinoma).

67
Q

In order to invade the basement membrane and the extracellular matrix, what does a cancer cell need?

A

Proteases - matrix metalloproteinases like collagenases, cathepsin D, urokinase-type plasminogen activator.
Motility.

68
Q

What is intravasation?

A

Invasion of cancer cells through the basement membrane into a blood or lymphatic vessel.
Requires collagenases and cell motility.

69
Q

What are the common routes of metastasis?

A

Sarcomas or any common cancers commonly metastasise to the lungs.
Colon, stomach, pancreas, carcinoid tumours of intestine commonly metastasise to liver.
Prostate, breast, thyroid, lung and kidney cancers commonly metastasise to bone.

70
Q

Name some common chemotherapy treatments and how they work?

A
  • Vinblastine bind to the cells’ microtubules stopping them from contracting and therefore dividing.
  • Eptoposide binds to Topoisomerase II, generating single and double stranded breaks that harm the integrity of the genome leading to apoptosis.
  • Ifosamide binds directly to DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis by crosslinking.
  • Cisplatin binds directly to DNA and inhibits DNA synthesis by crosslinking.
71
Q

What are the pros and cons of chemotherapy treatments?

A

Very good for fast dividing tumours such as germ cell tumours of testis, acute leukaemias, lymphomas, embryonal paediatric tumours, choriocarcinomas.
Not so good with slower dividing tumours.
Also non-selective for tumour cells, usually hits normal dividing cells too leading to myelosuppression, hair loss and diarrhoea.

72
Q

What is targeted chemotherapy?

A

Identifies difference between cancer cells and normal cells by microchip gene arrays, proteomics or tissue microarrays.
Exploits that difference to target drugs to the cancer cells, making them more effective with fewer side effects.

73
Q

How might overactivity of Growth factor A receptor lead to an increased proliferation of cells?

A

Growth factor A is present on plasma membrane. GF A binds to the receptor and cause intracellular signalling proteins to be activated, leading to transcriptional upregulation.
Over-expression means that there are too many growth factor A receptors present which will all bind growth factor A.
Constitutive activation of growth factor A receptor means there is a mutation which causes the receptor to always switched on, even without the ligand.

74
Q

What is Cetuximab?

A

Cetuximab is a monoclonal antibody against epidermal growth factor.
EGF is present on the plasma membrane and requires tyrosine kinase activity. EGF binds extracellularly and intracellular signalling proteins are activated.
Cetuximab binds competitively to ECD of EGF receptor and prevents its downstream action (production of VEGF, interleukin-8, bFGF).
Made as a chimeric IgG humanised monoclonal antibody.

75
Q

What is Herceptin (Trastuzumab)?

A

Monoclonal antibody against human EGFR2.
Two Her-2 receptor proteins must dimerise to cause tyrosine kinase activity, this activate intracellular signalling proteins to causes transcriptional upregulation.
Herceptin causes some Her-2 proteins to be taken into the cells and endocytosed, fewer Her-2 proteins in the plasma membrane, less dimerization and less activation.
Made as a chimeric mouse-human monoclonal antibody
Often used as an adjuvant chemotherapy.

76
Q

What is Gleevec?

A

Small molecule inhibitor of c-kit tyrosine kinase.
Mutated c-kit leads to activation of intracellular signalling proteins (Ras, p13 etc) leading to more transcriptional upregulation, more proliferation.
But small molecule inhibitor blocks c-kit on the intracytoplasmic domain to reduce proliferation of cells.

77
Q

How common is Her-2 amplification?

A

Present in 20-30% breast cancers.
Associated with large size, high grade, aneuploidy (abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell), negative oestrogen receptor status and independent adverse prognostic factor.
Identified through fluorescent in-situ hybridisation

78
Q

What’s the tumour staging in breast cancer?

A

T1: Tumour is 2 cm or less across
T2: Tumour is between 2-5cm across
T3: Tumour is bigger than 5cm across
T4: Tumour has a (spread into chest wall), b (spread into skin), c (chest wall and skin) or d (inflammatory carcinoma).