Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Glucose and fat metabolism
Detoxification and excretion (bilirubin, ammonia, drugs/hormones/ pollutants)
Protein synthesis (albumin, clotting factors)
Defense against infection (R-E system)

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2
Q

What are the different types of liver injury?

A

Acute - can lead to recovery or liver failure.
Results in damage to and loss of cells. Cell death may occur by necrosis (associated with neutrophils), or apoptosis.
Chronic - can lead to recovery, cirrhosis, liver failure, varices, hepatoma.
Leads to fibrosis. Most severely cirrhosis – wide fibrous septa join the portal tracts and central veins, leaving nodules of liver cells to attempt regeneration if the causative insult has been removed.

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3
Q

What can cause acute liver injury?

A
Viral (A,B, E, EBV)
Drug
Alcohol
Vascular
Obstruction
Congestion
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4
Q

What can cause chronic liver injury?

A

Alcohol
Viral (B,C)
Autoimmune
Metabolic (iron, copper)

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5
Q

How does acute liver injury present?

A

Malaise, nausea, anorexia, jaundice

Rarer: confusion, bleeding, liver pain, hypoglycaemia

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6
Q

How does chronic liver injury present?

A

Ascites, peripheral oedema, haematemesis (varices), malaise, anorexia, wasting easy bruising, itching, hepatomegaly, abnormal LFTs
Rarer: jaundice, confusion

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7
Q

What are serum ‘liver function tests’ and what do they tell us?

A
  • Serum bilirubin, albumin, prothrombin time (give some index of liver function)
  • Serum liver enzymes:
    cholestatic: alkaline phosphatase, gamma-GT
    hepatocellular: transaminases (AST, ALT)
    (give no index of liver function)
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8
Q

What are the different types of jaundice?

A

Jaundice is rasied serum bilirubin

  • Unconjugated - pre-hepatic due to Gilberts syndrome or Haemolysis
  • Conjugated (Cholestatic) - hepatic or post hepatic due to liver disease (hepatic) or bile stone obstruction (post hepatic)
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9
Q

How does unconjugated and cholestatic jaundice present?

A

Unconjugated: normal urine and stools, no itching, normal liver tests
Cholestatic: dark urine, pale stools, may have itching, abnormal liver tests

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10
Q

Which might be some of the causes of liver disease?

A

Hepatitis - Viral, Drug, Immune, Alcohol
Ischaemia
Neoplasm
Congestion

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11
Q

What might be some of the causes of liver obstruction?

A

Gallstone from the bile duct or gallbladder
Area of malignancy, ischemia, inflammation
Blocked stent

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12
Q

What are the investigation done in jaundice?

A

Liver enzymes: Very high AST/ALT suggests liver disease, some exceptions
Biliary obstruction: 90% have dilated intrahepatic bile ducts on ultrasound
Need further imaging: CT, Magnetic resonance cholangioram (MRCP), Endoscopic retrograde cholangiogram (ERCP)

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13
Q

What questions would you ask to identify the cause of jaundice?

A

Dark urine, pale stools, itching?
Biliary pain, rigors, abdomen swelling, weight loss?
Past history of biliary disease/intervention, malignancy heart failure, blood transfusion, autoimmune disease
Drug history: anything new?
Social history: potential hepatitis contact - travel, irregular sex, certain foods
Family history rarely helpful

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14
Q

What is characteristic of gallstones?

A

Most form in gallbladder
Very common: 1/3 women over 60
70% Cholesterol, 30% pigment+/- calcium
Risk factors: Female, fat, fertile, fifty
(liver disease, ileal disease, TPN, clofibrate…)
Most are asymptomatic

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15
Q

How do you manage gallstones?

A
Laporoscopic cholecystectomy (day case)
Bile acid dissolution therapy (<1/3 success)
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16
Q

How do you manage bile stones?

A

ERCP with sphincterotomy and removal (basket or balloon), crushing (mechanical, laser) or stent placement
Surgery (large stones)

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17
Q

How common is drug-induced liver injury?

A
Onset  usually 1-12 weeks of starting
30% of Acute Hepatitis
>65% of Acute Liver Failure 
      - 50% Paracetamol
      - 15% idiosynchratic
Commonest reason for drug withdrawal from formulary
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18
Q

What are the types of drug-induced liver injury?

A

Hepatocellular
Cholestatic
Mixed

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19
Q

What are the usual causes of drug-induced liver injury?

A

Antibiotics (Augmentin, Flucloxacillin, Erythromycin, Septrin, TB drugs)
CNS Drugs (Chlorpromazine, Carbamazepine Valproate, Paroxetine)
Immunosupressants
Analgesics/musculoskeletal (Diclofenac)
Gastrointestinal Drugs (PPIs)
Dietary Supplements
Polypharmacy

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20
Q

How can paracetamol cause liver damage?

A

Liver damage results not from paracetamol itself, but from one of its metabolites, N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). NAPQI decreases the liver’s glutathione and directly damages cells in the liver by oxidative stress.

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21
Q

How to manage paracetamol induced hepatic failure?

A
N acetyl Cysteine (NAC) causes glutathione conjugation to give stable metabolites.
Supportive treatment to correct:
coagulation defects
fluid electrolyte and acid base balance
renal failure
hypoglycaemia
encephalopathy
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22
Q

When is paracetamol induced hepatic failure classed as severe?

A

Late presentation (NAC less effective >24 hr)
Acidosis (pH <7.3)
High prothrommbin time
High serum creatinine

Consider emergency liver transplant, otherwise 80% mortality

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23
Q

What are spider naevi?

A

Type of swollen blood vessels found slightly beneath the skin surface, often containing a central red spot and reddish extensions which radiate outwards like a spider’s web.
Allowed up to 5 spider naevi before there is concern
Compress, and then fill from the centre after pressure is released

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24
Q

What are the potential causes of ascites?

A

Chronic liver disease (mostly) +/- Portal vein thrombosis, Hepatoma, TB
Neoplasia (ovary, uterus, pancreas…)
Pancreatitis
Cardiac causes (heart failure)

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25
Q

How is ascites managed?

A
Fluid and salt restriction
Diuretics    Spironolactone
                   \+/- Furosemide
Large-volume paracentesis + albumin
Trans-jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
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26
Q

What is Alcoholic Liver Disease?

A

Main cause of liver death in UK
However, only 10-20% of heavy alcohol drinkers drinkers get serious ALD
Often not alcohol dependent (‘alcoholics’)
25% will stop drinking and 25% will reduce
Poor outcome – 10 year survival 25%

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27
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A

An increase in the blood pressure within a system of veins called the portal venous system. Veins coming from the stomach, intestine, spleen, and pancreas merge into the portal vein, which then branches into smaller vessels and travels through the liver.
Increased hepatic resistance
Increased splanchnic blood flow

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28
Q

What causes portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis, fibrosis, portal vein thrombosis

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29
Q

What can portal hypertension cause?

A

Varices (oesophageal, gastric)

Splenomegaly

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30
Q

Should liver transplants be given to patients with alcoholic liver disease?

A

100 of total of 700 transplants/year in UK -limited by supply of livers
Negative public attitudes
But: post transplant survival similar to that for other liver diseases
Drinking relapse –variable; recurrent ALD uncommon

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31
Q

What are the potential consequences of chronic liver disease?

A
Constipation
Drugs 	- 	sedatives, analgesics
              	-	NSAIDs, diuretics, ACE blockers
Gastrointestinal bleed
Infection (ascites, blood, skin, chest)
HYPO: natraemia, kalaemia, glycaemia
Alcohol withdrawal (not typically)
Other problems (cardiac, intracranial)
Malnutrition
Coagulopathy
Endocrine changes
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32
Q

Why are liver patients vulnerable to infection?

A

Impaired reticulo-endothelial function
Reduced opsonic activity
Leucocyte function
Permeable gut wall

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33
Q

What is Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Commonest serious infection in cirrhosis
Vague symptoms
Based on neutrophils in ascitic fluid
Gram stain often neg; use blood culture bottles
After 1 episode patients should have antibiotic prophylaxis and consider liver transplantation

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34
Q

What are the potential causes of renal failure in liver disease?

A
Drugs: Diuretics, NSAIDS, ACE Inhibitors, Aminoglycosides
Infection
GI bleeding
Myoglobinuria
Renal tract obstruction
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35
Q

What is Hepatic encephalopathy?

A

A decline in brain function that occurs as a result of severe liver disease.
Consequences: infection, GI bleed, constipation, hypokalaemia, drug (sedatives, analgesics)

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36
Q

What bedside talking tests would you do for encephalopathy?

A
Serial 7’s
WORLD backwards
Animal counting in 1 minute
Draw 5 point star
Number connection test
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37
Q

What are the 2 different types of cirrhosis?

A

If these nodules remain small the result is a micronodular cirrhosis. If they are able to regenerate, they may become large, giving a macronodular cirrhosis. The constant replication of hepatocytes in this condition make them liable to replication errors, which may result in neoplasia developing. Hepatocellular carcinoma is a risk in patients with long-standing cirrhosis.

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38
Q

What drugs would you prescribe in liver disease?

A

Analgesia: sensitive to opiates, NSAIDs cause renal failure, paracetamol safest
Sedation: use short-acting benzodiazepines
Diuretics: excess weight loss, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia,renal failure
Antihypertensives: avoid ACE inhibitors
Aminoglycosides: avoid

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39
Q

How would you treat the consequences of liver disease?

A

Malnutrition: naso-gastric feeding
Variceal bleeding: endoscopic banding, propranolol, terlipressin
Encephalopathy: lactulose
Ascites / oedema: salt / fluid restriction, diuretics, paracentesis
Infections: antibiotics

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40
Q

What are the causes of chronic liver disease?

A

Alcohol
Non Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)
Viral hepatitis (B, C)
Immune: autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sclerosing cholangitis
Metabolic: haemochromatosis, Wilson’s, antitrypsin deficiency…
Vascular: Budd-Chiari (rare condition that occludes the hepatic veins)

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41
Q

How would you investigate chronic liver disease?

A

Viral serology - hepatitis B surface antigen, hepatitis C antibody
Immunology - autoantibodies AMA, ANA, ASMA,coeliac antibodies, immunoglobulins
Biochemistry - iron studies, copper studies, 1-antitrypsin level, lipids, glucose
Radiological investigations - pelvic ultrasound / CT / MRI

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42
Q

What is autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis is liver inflammation that occurs when your body’s immune system turns against liver cells.
Can lead to cirrhosis and eventually liver failure.
70-75% women
ANA, ASMA- positive in about 70%
Aggressive disease, 30% have cirrhosis at presentation
90%: dramatic response to prednisolone and azathioprine

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43
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cholangitis/Cirrhosis?

A

A chronic disease in which the bile ducts in your liver are slowly destroyed.
90% women
Pathogenesis unknown
+ve AMA in 95% of patients
Many patients have progressive disease
Mayo Clinic prognostic score: uses bilirubin albumin and prothrombin time

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44
Q

What are the common symptoms of Primary Biliary Cholangitis/Cirrhosis?

A
Asymptomatic lab abnormalities
Itching and/or fatigue
Dry eyes
Joint pains
Variceal bleeding
Liver failure: ascites, jaundice
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45
Q

How would you treat a cholestatic itch?

A

UDCA, antihistamines - little help
Cholestyramine helps in 50% of cases
Rifampicin effective; occasionally damages liver
Opiate antagonists
Also: ultraviolet light, plasmapheresis, liver transplantation

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46
Q

What effects does Ursodeoxycholic acid have in Primary Biliary Cholangitis/Cirrhosis?

A

Improvement in liver enzymes and bilirubin
Subtle reduction in inflammation; but not fibrosis
Reduced portal pressure and rate of variceal development
Modestly reduced rate of death or liver transplantation
No improvement in itching (may worsen it)

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47
Q

What is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

Leads to strictures (areas of narrowing) ± gallstones
Over 50% have inflammatory bowel disease
Presents as itching, pain ± rigors, jaundice
Raised Alk phos and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
10% develop cholangiocarcinoma (bile duct cancer)
Ursodeoxycholic Acid: unclear benefits
Good results from Liver Transplantation

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48
Q

What is Haemochromatosis?

A

Genetic disorder
90% have mutations in HFE gene: C282Y, H63D
Autosomal recessive
Uncontrolled intestinal iron absorption with deposition in liver, heart and pancreas
Diagnosis suggested by raised ferritin and transferrin saturation, confirmed by HFE genotyping and liver biopsy
When cirrhosis present, increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
Iron removal may lead to regression of fibrosis

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49
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Haemochromatosis?

A
Chronic fatigue
Diabetes mellitus
Melanoderma
Skin dryness
Joint pain
Osteoporosis
White, flat nails
Hepatomegaly
Cirrhosis
Heptaocellular carcinoma
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50
Q

What is a1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Results in inability to export a1-antitrypsin from liver
Can lead to liver disease (protein retention in liver), emphysema (protein deficiency in blood)
Phenotypic expression is variable: neonatal jaundice, chronic liver disease in adults
No medical treatment

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51
Q

What is Hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Primary liver tumour
Most occur in patients with cirrhosis
Risk: highest for hepatitis B,C, haemochromatosis
lower: cirrhosis from alcoholic, autoimmune disease
Males >Females
May present with decompensation of liver disease, wt loss ascites, or abdominal pain
Treatment: Transplantation, resection or local ablative therapies, Sorafenib recently shown to prolong life

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52
Q

What is Non-alcoholic fatty liver (NAFL) disease?

A

Risk factors: Obesity, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia
Usually no symptoms; liver ache in 10%
Commonest cause of mildly elevated LFTs
Fat, sometimes with inflammation, fibrosis (NASH)
Need biopsy to distinguish NAFL from Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
Still no effective drug treatments
Weight loss works- the more the better

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53
Q

What causes Hepatic vein occlusion?

A

Thrombosis (Budd-Chiari syndrome)
Membrane obstruction
Veno-occlusive disease (irradiation, antineoplastic drugs)

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54
Q

How might Hepatic vein occlusion present?

A

Abnormal liver tests
Ascites
Acute liver failure

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55
Q

How is Hepatic vein occlusion treated?

A

Anticoagulation

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

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56
Q

What are the symptoms of acute hepatitis?

A

None or non-specific, e.g. malaise, lethargy, myalgia (muscle aching)
Gastrointestinal upset, abdominal pain (right upper quadrant)
Jaundice + pale stools / dark urine

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57
Q

What are the signs of acute hepatitis?

A

Tender hepatomegaly ± jaundice
± signs of fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure)
e.g. bleeding, ascites, encephalopathy
Raised transaminases (ALT/AST&raquo_space; GGT/ALP) ± raised bilirubin

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58
Q

What are the infective causes of acute hepatitis?

A
Viral:
Hepatitis A, B ± D, C &amp; E
Human herpes viruses e.g. HSV, VZV, CMV, EBV
Other viruses
Non-viral:
Spirochaetes, e.g. leptospirosis, syphilis
Mycobacteria, e.g. M. tuberculosis
Bacteria, e.g. bartonella
Parasites, e.g. toxoplasma
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59
Q

What are the non-infective causes of acute hepatitis?

A
Drugs
Alcohol
Other toxins / poisoning
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Pregnancy
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hereditary metabolic causes
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60
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of chronic hepatitis?

A

Can be asymptomatic or have non-specific symptoms only
May have signs of chronic liver disease:
clubbing, palmar erythema, Dupuytren’s contracture, spider naevi, etc.
Transaminases (ALT/AST) can be normal

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61
Q

What are the different types of chronic hepatitis?

A

Compensated: liver function maintained
Decompensated: coagulopathy; jaundice (↑bilirubin); low albumin; ascites (± bacterial peritonitis); encephalopathy
Other complications: hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC); portal hypertension (varices, bleeding)

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62
Q

What are the infective causes of chronic hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis B ± D, C (& E)

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63
Q

What are the non-infective causes of chronic hepatitis?

A
Drugs
Alcohol
Other toxins / poisoning
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Hereditary metabolic causes
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64
Q

What are the clinical aspects of Hepatitis A?

A

Short incubation period: 15 to 50 days (mean 28 days)
Usually symptomatic in adults:
Pre-icteric phase: constitutional symptoms + abdominal pain
Icteric phase (few days to 1 week after pre-icteric phase) - jaundice
Self-limiting: no chronic disease
100% immunity after infection

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65
Q

How is Hepatitis A managed?

A

Supportive:
Monitor liver function (INR, albumin, bilirubin, etc.)
in the case of acute liver failure, liaise with hepatology / liver transplant centre
Management of close contacts
Primary prevention: vaccination

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66
Q

How does Hepatitis A spread?

A

Faeco-oral transmission:
Person-to-person contact
Ingesting contaminated food or water

Risk factors: 
Travel
Household contact
Sexual contact
Injecting drug use
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67
Q

How does Hepatitis E spread?

A
Zoonotic reservoir (pigs)
Undercooked meat products

Contaminated food & water

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68
Q

What are the clinical aspects of Hepatitis E?

A

> 95% cases asymptomatic
Usually self-limiting acute hepatitis
Occasional acute-on-chronic liver failure (high mortality)
Extra-hepatic manifestations, e.g. neurological
Risk of chronic infection in immunosuppressed patients
e.g. transplant recipients, HIV patients
Rapid progression to cirrhosis

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69
Q

How is Hepatitis E managed?

A

Acute infection: Supportive
Monitor for fulminant hepatitis / acute-on-chronic liver failure:
Liaise with hepatology / liver transplant centre
Consider ribavirin

Chronic infection :
Reverse immunosuppression (if possible)
If persists, treat with ribavirin

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70
Q

How to prevent the spread of Hepatitis E?

A

Avoid eating undercooked meats

Vaccines in development

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71
Q

How does Hepatitis B spread?

A
Highly infectious blood-borne virus
Blood
Bodily fluids
Transmission: 
Mother-to-child
Sexual contacts
Household contacts
Iatrogenic
Injecting drug use
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72
Q

How is Hepatitis B managed?

A

Supportive management
Monitor liver function (INR, albumin, bilirubin, etc.)
Rarely fulminant hepatitic failure: 0.1 to 0.5%
Oral nucleos(t)ide analogue (tenofovir, entecavir)
Liaise with hepatology / liver transplant centre
Management of close contacts - vaccinate!

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73
Q

What are the possible consequences of Hepatitis B?

A

Acute hepatitis B infection can spontaneously resolve (although may re-activate in immunosuppression)
Can lead to Chronic hepatitis B which can cause hepatocellular carcinoma or cirrhosis.

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74
Q

What are the treatment options for Hepatitis B?

A

Pegylated interferon-α 2a: immunomodulatory, weekly subcutaneous injection, 48 week long course, offers best chance of treatment-free control

Oral nucleos(t)ide analogues: Inhibit viral replication,
One tablet once a day, High barrier to resistance, Minimal side effects, may be required lifelong
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75
Q

How can Hepatitis B be prevented?

A

Antenatal screening (HBsAg testing) of pregnant mothers
HBV vaccination administered to baby at birth and at 1, 2, 3, 4* and 12 months
Screening ± immunisation of sexual and household contacts
Universal childhood immunisation
Universal screening of blood products
Sterile equipment and universal precautions in healthcare
Immunisation of healthcare workers + other risk groups (e.g. MSMs, PWIDs)

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76
Q

What is hepatitis D?

A

Defective RNA virus: requires HBsAg to replicate
Transmitted via blood and body fluids
Can be acquired simultaneously with HBV
Alternatively acquired after HBV
- acute on chronic hepatitis
- accelerated progression to liver fibrosis
Test: Hepatitis D antibody: if positive, test HDV RNA
Treat: pegylated inteferon-α 48 to 96 weeks

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77
Q

What are Directly-acting antivirals?

A

Fixed dose combination of DAAs from 2 or 3 drug classes:
NS5A (-asvir), NS5B (-buvir) and NS3/4A protease (-previr) inhibitors
Sometimes co-administered with ribavirin (RBV)
High cure rates: >95% in non-cirrhotic patients

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78
Q

How can Hepatitis C be prevented?

A

No vaccine
Previous infection does not confer immunity, can be re-infected
Screening blood products
Universal precautions handling bodily fluids
Lifestyle modification, e.g. needle exchanges, etc.
Treatment and cure of “transmitters”, e.g. active PWIDs

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79
Q

What is the function of the gut bacteria?

A
  • Bacterial enzymes deconjugate certain compounds within the enterohepatic circulation aiding reabsorption back across the intestinal wall (bilirubin, bile acids, cholesterol, drugs)
  • Digestion of fibre
  • Metabolism of certain vitamins (Vitamin K)
  • Synthesis of Vitamin B12, folic acid & thiamine
  • Interfere and compete with exogenous pathogens preventing infection
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80
Q

What is the gut microflora?

A

The intestinal microflora is a complex ecosystem
>400 species of bacteria
Predominantly anaerobes
Sparse microflora in the upper GI tract & luxuriant microflora in the lower GI tract.

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81
Q

How does the normal flora act as a protective measure against infection?

A

Stable normal flora produces antimicrobial substances (bacteriocins and short chain fatty acids) which discourage infection by:
Inhibiting overgrowth of endogenous pathogens
Preventing colonisation by exogenous pathogens.

Antibiotics can disrupt this balance increasing susceptibility to infections such as C.Difficile.
If normal barriers are breached - Peritonitis

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82
Q

What increases the risk of intraluminal infection?

A

Gastric acid kills most swallowed pathogens

The microbiome is protective against “alien invaders”, but is vulnerable to systemic antibiotics

Less gastric acid & use of broad spectrum antibiotics leads to increased risk of intraluminal infection

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83
Q

What are the main causes of diarrhoea?

A

Infective - Campylobacter, salmoella, HIV, bacterial or amoebic dysentry, cholera, systemic infections (sepsis, malaria..)
Inflammatory - Crohn’s disease, Ulcerative colitis
Loss of absorptive area - coeliac disease, bowel resection
Pancreatic disease - pancreatitis, cancer
Drugs - anitbiotics, magnesium, digoxin
Colon cancer
Systemic disease - Thyrotoxicosis, uraemia, carcinoid
Others - IBS, Gastrectomy

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84
Q

When trying to identify the cause of diarrhoea, what should you consider?

A
Onset/duration
Characteristics of stool (blood, mucus, watery, fat content)
Food/drink
Travel/vaccinations
Immunocompromised
Occupation 
Hobbies (e.g fresh water swimming)
Animal exposure
Medications
Unwell contacts
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85
Q

What causes viral diarrhoea?

A

50-70% of cases of diarrhoea in the UK are caused by viruses

Rotavirus (Children)
Norovirus (All age groups, major epidemics)
Rotavirus vaccine aged 8 & 12 weeks has led to a 70% reduction in cases!

Other causes: Campylobacter, shigella, salmonella, c.perfringens, staph aureus, e.coli, c. diff, parasites

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86
Q

What affect does the virus have on the gut in viral diarrhoea?

A

Damage mucosal architecture:
Shortening & damage to villi
Hyperplasia of crypts
Inflammatory exudate

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87
Q

What are the different types of bacterial diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxin-mediated (Vibrio cholera, Enterotoxigenic E.coli):
Bacteria typically colonise the upper bowel
Produce enterotoxins, increases intracellular AMP, mucosal cells secrete fluid, watery voluminous diarrhoea & dehydration
Mucosal architecture remains intact

Invasive:(Shigella and campylobacter)
Typically affect the colon (shigella/campylobacter) or lower ilium (salmonella).
Penetrate the intestinal mucosa causing bloody mucoid stools.
Colitis marked by tenesmus (need to go but empty bowels)

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88
Q

What are the characteristics of cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae, gram negative bacteria
Contaminated food and water (faecal-oral spread)
Cholera toxin causes profuse watery ‘rice water’ diarrhoea, vomiting and rapid dehydration.
15-20L faecal output daily

Tx: Doxycycline and fluids!

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89
Q

What is E coli?

A

Escherichia coli
1% of local GI microbiota in humans

Most serotypes harmless, some are pathogenic

Classified based on O, H & K antigens in the outer membrane, flagella & capsule (e.g. O157:H7)

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90
Q

What does E coli cause in a patient?

A

ETEC: EnteroToxigenic - LT and ST enterotoxin, Non invasive watery diarrhoea
EHEC: EnteroHaemorrhagic - Shiga-like toxin
Can cause Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS)
EIEC: EnteroInvasive - Dysentry like illness
Similar to Shigella
EPEC: EnteroPathogenic
EAEC: EnteroAggregative
DAEC: Diffusely Adherent
LAST THREE: Watery diarrhoea due to adhesion to luminal wall, Non invasive

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91
Q

What is travellers diarrhoea?

A

Most common travel related illness
Bacteria (most common), viruses, protozoa
High risk destinations: Asia, Middle east, Africa, Mexico, Central and South America (>20% travellers affected)

3 or more unformed stools in 24hrs
+/-
Fever/nausea/ vomiting/cramps/bloody stools

(During or within 10 days of return from foreign travel)

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92
Q

What causes travellers diarrhoea?

A
Enterotoxigenic e.coli (30-70%)
Campylobacter (5-20%)
Shigella (5-20%)
Non-typhoidal Salmonella (5%)
V.parahaemolyticus (shellfish)
Viral (10-20%)
Protozoal (5-10% more chronic) 
Cholera
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93
Q

How would you investigate travellers diarrhoea?

A

Bloods
Inflammatory markers
Blood cultures

Stool tests
Microscopy
Culture
Ova, cysts, parasites
Toxin detection
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94
Q

How do you effectively manage diarrhoea?

A

Barrier nursing: side room, gloves and apron
Fluids
Electrolyte monitoring and replacement
Eg oral rehydration sachets, IV replacement
(↓potassium, ↕sodium, ↓magnesium, ↓phosphate)
Antiemetics

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95
Q

What are some of the red flags in diarrhoea?

A
Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance 
Renal failure
Immunocompromise
Severe abdominal pain
THINK OF CANCER
Over 50
Chronic diarrhoea
Weight loss
Blood in stool
FH cancer
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96
Q

What is Helicobacter pylori?

A

A gram negative bacteria found in stomach of over half the worlds population. Transmission is faecal oral, gastro/oral and oral/oral.
It lives within the mucus layer releasing virulence factors such as ureas which converts urea -> CO2 and ammonia which neutralizes stomach acid. Virulence factors released also damage the epithelial cells causing gastritis and ulceration.
Acquisition usually asymptomatic (but can cause nausea, vomiting and fever)
Ongoing symptoms – dyspepsia, epigastric pain, loss of appetite

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97
Q

What is acute cholangitis?

A

Bacteria infection of the biliary tract due to obstruction
Obstruction of common bile duct - stasis of bile - invasion of bacteria from duodenum eg e.coli - bacteraemia
Can be obstructed by stone, cancer, stricture, parasite (ascaris). Also infection can be introduced through intervention eg ERCP
Clinical diagnosis based on Charcot’s triad: jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, fever

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98
Q

What are the causes of a liver abscess?

A

Bacterial : Faecal flora eg E.coli, Klebsiella spp etc
Amoebic: Entamoeba histolytica
RUQ pain, fever, “PUO - pyrexia of unknown origin”
Seen on ultrasound or CT
Antibiotics and drainage

Hydatid: Echinococcus granulosus (dog tapeworm)
Insidious RUQ pain, eosinophilia
Rupture - anaphylactic shock!
Albendazole and PAIR (puncture-aspiration-injection-reaspiration)

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99
Q

What are the causes of peritonitis?

A

Medical – SBP (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis), PID (pelvic inflammatory disease), dialysis related, TB
Surgical – perforation of GIT eg trauma, appendicitis, cancer
Intestinal flora are prime cause of infection in the perioneal cavity when intestinal wall breached
Sterile – endometriosis, pancreatitis, FMF (familial Mediterranean fever), porphyria, hereditary angioedema

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100
Q

What is Enteric fever?

A

Systemic, potentially life threatening febrile illness common in areas of poor sanitation (faeco-oral spread).

High incidence in South Asia

Generalised/RLQ pain, high fever, bradycardia,
headache, myalgia, rose spots, constipation or
green diarrhoea.

Diagnosis: Blood culture/bone marrow aspiration

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101
Q

What are the complications of enteric fever?

A

GI bleed
Perforation / peritonitis
Myocarditis
Abscesses

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102
Q

What are the two major consequences of salmonella?

A

TYPHOIDAL: Causes Typhoid Fever & Paratyphoid Fever. Salmonella Typhi & Salmonella Paratyphi A, B & C
NON-TYPHOIDAL: Causes Gastroenteritis and food poisoning. All other salmonella serotypes.

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103
Q

How would you treat enteric fever?

A

Emergency surgery
Antibiotics! (IV Ceftriaxone)
Mortality reduced from 20% to less than 1% with antibiotics!
Typhoid Vaccine!

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104
Q

How can the bowel become obstructed?

A

In the lumen
In the wall of the bowel - contracting down on itself
Outside the wall of the gut - squashing it

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105
Q

What could cause intraluminar bowel obstruction?

A
Tumour
– carcinoma
– lymphoma
Diaphragm disease
Meconium ileus
Gallstone ileus
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106
Q

How can the location of a bowel tumour effect the likelihood of obstruction?

A

Some can stay in the wall, others invade into the lumen.
Tumours on the right side of the colon = faeces is more liquidy, less likely to obstruct
Tumours on the left side of the colon = faeces is more solid, more likely to obstruct

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107
Q

How can diaphragm disease increase the risk of bowel obstruction?

A

An uncommon gastrointestinal abnormality typical of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced injury.
The disease is characterized by circumferential lesions of short length (<5 mm), located most commonly in the small intestine, causing multiple stenosis of the lumen.

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108
Q

What is Gallstone Ileus?

A

Gallstone in the small bowel causing obstruction

Gallbladder is inflamed and erodes through, allowing gallstones to pass into the bowel (not through the bile duct)

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109
Q

What could cause intramural bowel obstruction?

A
Inflammatory
– Crohn’s disease
– Diverticulitis
Tumours
Neural
– Hirschsprung’s disease
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110
Q

How can Crohn’s disease cause obstruction?

A

Can affect anywhere from the mouth to the anus
Distinct granulomas
Fibrosis and squeezing down of the bowel which causes the obstruction

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111
Q

How can Diverticular disease cause obstruction?

A

Causes lots of inflammation and fibrosis
Barium enema can be used to visualise
Diverticula can go into the fat and cause obstruction
With a low fibre diet, increased pressure, weaknesses in the mucosa mean that they push through. Faeces can get stuck there. They can get inflamed and rupture.
If it ruptures you can get faecal peritonitis.

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112
Q

What could cause extraluminar bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesions
Volvulus
Tumour
– peritoneal deposits

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113
Q

How can Hirschsprung’s disease increase the risk of bowel obstruction?

A

Developmental disorder is a neurocristopathy (abnormal migration, differentiation, division or survival of neural crest cells) and is characterised by the absence of the enteric ganglia along a variable length of the intestine.
Causes obstruction as the stool cannot move through the bowel as it normally would.

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114
Q

How can adhesions increase the risk of bowel obstruction?

A

Bowel adhesions are irregular bands of scar tissue that form between two structures that are normally not bound together. The bands of tissue can develop when the body is healing from any disturbance of the tissue that occurs secondary to surgery, infection, trauma, or radiation.
Can cause adhesive small bowel obstruction.
Can be surgically cut.

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115
Q

How can volvulus increase the risk of bowel obstruction?

A

Volvulus occurs when a loop of intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, causing a bowel obstruction. Due to the high risk of recurrence, a bowel resection within two days is generally recommended. If the bowel is severely twisted or the blood supply is cut off, emergent surgery is required.

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116
Q

How can a peritoneal tumour increase the risk of bowel obstruction?

A

Optimal conditions for tumour growth and spread across the peritoneum.
Can cause extrinsic intestinal compression, endoluminal obstruction, intramural infiltration, or extensive mesenteric infiltration.

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117
Q

What are the symptoms of intestinal obstruction?

A
Anorexia
Nausea
Vomiting
Distension
Abdominal Pain
Altered Bowel Habits
 - Constipation
 - Obstipation
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118
Q

What is the pathophysiology of mechanical obstruction in the small bowel?

A

Proximal dilatation: Increased secretions and swallowed air (small bowel) or bacterial fermentation (large bowel).
More dilatation leads to decreased absorption and therefore mucosal wall oedema.

Increased pressure means that intramural vessels compressed leading to ischaemia

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119
Q

What is the pathophysiology of mechanical obstruction in the large bowel?

A

The colon proximal to obstruction dilates
Increased colonic pressure leads to decreased mesenteric blood flow
Mucosal oedema - transudation of fluid and electrolytes - lumen.
The arterial blood supply compromised which can lead to mucosal ulceration and full thickness necrosis
Bacterial translocation – sepsis
If ileocaecal valve competent – The caecum - usual site of perforation
If ileocaecal valve incompetent –faeculent vomiting

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120
Q

What are the clinical signs of mechanical obstruction in the small bowel?

A

Increased secretions and distension
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting / distension with pain
Fluid and electrolyte imbalance- hypovolemia
Bacterial overgrowth faeculent vomiting

Untreated obstruction leads

  • Ischaemia
  • Necrosis
  • Perforation
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121
Q

What is a colonic volvulus?

A

Axial rotation – at mesenteric attachments:
A 360° twist -a closed loop obstruction is produced.
Fluid and electrolyte shifts into the closed loop
Increase in pressure and tension - impaired colonic blood flow
Ischaemia, necrosis, and perforation of the loop of bowel

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122
Q

What aspects of abdominal pain should you consider?

A
Site
Onset
Character
Radiation
Association
Time Course
Exacerbation / Relieving factors
Severity
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123
Q

What aspects of vomiting should you consider?

A
NATURE
Forceful
Regurgitation
CONTENT
Bilious
Faeculent
Coffee Ground / Altered Blood
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124
Q

How does large bowel obstruction present?

A
Less common -25% Intestinal obstruction
- Functional obstruction (due to abnormal intestinal physiology)
- Mechanical can be partial or complete
Acute presentation (5 days of symptoms) - abdominal pain and obstipation,
Chronic - a progressive change in bowel habits.
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125
Q

What is the epidemiology of small bowel obstruction?

A

60 to 75% of Intestinal Obstruction

0.1 to 5% - No previous surgery
60% - previous surgery
Inflammatory bowel disease – Crohns -25%
0.5% in first 2 year of life

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126
Q

What are the potential causes of large bowel obstruction?

A
Age and Race dependent
- US/Europe – 90% colorectal malignancy
- Age 70y ; Men and women equal
30% colorectal malignancy 
5% Volvulus
3% strictures
2% rare causes – foreign bodies, hernia, abscess

African countries – 50% Volvulus

Children: Anatomical development, Imperforate anus, Hirshsprung disease

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127
Q

What are the potential causes of small bowel obstruction?

A

abscess, Foreign Bodies

128
Q

What is the epidemiology of colorectal cancer?

A

Peaks in incidence around 50/60 years of age
Predominantly in Europe/North America
Increasing in incidence in the UK
Decreased mortality rates - better detection at an earlier age
Those with polyps have an increased risk of colorectal cancer
More common in rectum/anus (38%)

129
Q

What is Familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Develop thousands of polyps in teenage years
APC gene produces a protein, it’s normal function is to regulate the levels of beta catenin, along with GSK.
When it is mutated, you can get a misfolded protein or no protein at all. Beta catenin is then free to bind to the DNA, which can cause the development of epithelial proliferation and then an adenoma.
Severity depends on the type of mutation in APC.
1% of colorectal cancers.

130
Q

What is Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer?

A

Damage to the DNA is repaired with 2 DNA repair protein genes
Born with a mutation in 1 and may lose the second in life.
Cells accumulate DNA damage.

131
Q

Why is important to identify Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer?

A

Risk of further cancers (ureters, endometrium) in index patient and relatives
Possible implication for therapy - tolerance of 5-FU, do not recognise DNA damage, apoptosis not activated

132
Q

What is the resection code in cancer surgery?

A

R0 - tumour completely excised locally
R1 - microscopic involvement of margin by
tumour
R2 - macroscopic involvement of margin by
tumour

133
Q

How does the stage of the colorectal cancer effect the management plan?

A

Normal epithelium - prevention
Adenoma - endoscopic resection
Colorectal adenocarcinoma - surgical resection
Colorectal adenocarcinoma - metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma (chemotherapy, palliative care)

134
Q

What is Duke staging for colorectal cancer?

A

Stage A: limited to mucosa
Stage B1: extending into muscularis propria but not penetrating through it; nodes not involved
Stage B2: penetrating through muscularis propria; nodes not involved
Stage C1: extending into muscularis propria but not penetrating through it; nodes involved
Stage C2: penetrating through muscularis propria; nodes involved
Stage D: distant metastatic spread

135
Q

What is diarrhoea?

A

3 or more loose stools in 24 hours

136
Q

What are the causes of diarrhoea?

A
NON INFECTIVE
Neoplasm
Inflammatory
Irritable bowel - caused by stress
Anatomical - born with a short gut/surgery, lack of water absorption in large bowel
Hormonal - hyperthyroidism
Radiation - radiotherapy 
Chemical

INFECTIVE
Non-bloody - cholera, norovirus
Bloody (Dysentery) - salmonella

137
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

RESERVOIR: Pathogen exists in the environment, potentially within a reservoir, portal of exit
AGENT: mode of transmission, portal of entry
HOST: Enter susceptible host, spread to a new host

138
Q

What are the different routes of transmission for an infection?

A

Direct - direct route (STIs, scabies) faeco-oral route (viral)
Indirect - vector-borne (malaria), vehicle-borne (hepatitis B)
Airborne - respiratory (TB, legionella)

139
Q

What is Norovirus?

A

Norovirus is very common in care homes, hospitals, schools, cruise ships, families.
Major cause of winter vomiting
Vomiting, diarrhoea, nausea, cramps, headache, fever, chills, myalgia
Last 1-3 days
Immunity is short lived
Can be dangerous in the elderly or immunocompromised

140
Q

What is Clostridium difficile?

A

Widely distributed in soil and digestive tract
Spores resistant to heat, drying and chemicals
Associated with antibiotic use - especially broad-spectrum
In hospitalized patients cause - antibiotic-associated diarrhoea, colitis, pseudomembranous colitis
Morality high - patients tend to be elderly and ill

Asymptomatic carriage occurs in 2-3% healthy adults, ⅔ of babies, 36% of hospital patients
Spread by faeco-oral or through spores in the environment.

141
Q

How would you manage a C difficile spread of infection?

A

Control antibiotic use especially ampicillin, amoxicillin and cephalosporins
Standard infection control procedures
Surveillance and case finding
Any patient with diarrhoea: isolate, enteric precautions, test stool samples, environmental cleaning, treat cases with metronidazole or vancomycin

142
Q

How would you investigate potential C difficile?

A

Test stool samples for the toxin
Can also culture it (in order to identify which strain it is)
Tissue samples (histology) obtained at sigmoidoscopy
Don’t need to screen or treat asymptomatic carriers

143
Q

What is the WHO-UNICEF Prevention package for infective diarrhoea?

A
  1. Rotavirus and measles vaccinations
  2. Promote early & exclusive breastfeeding + Vitamin A supplementation
  3. Promote hand washing with soap
  4. Improved water supply quantity & quality, including treatment & safe storage of household water
  5. Community-wide sanitation promotion.
144
Q

What are the control measures put in place to prevent diarrhoea?

A
  • Hand-washing with soap
  • Ensure availability of safe drinking water
  • Safe disposal of human waste
  • Breastfeeding of infants & young children
  • Safe handling and processing of food
  • Control of flies/vectors
  • Case management including exclusion
  • Vaccination
145
Q

Who is at risk of diarrhoea?

A

Persons of doubtful personal hygiene or with unsatisfactory hygiene facilities at home, work or school
Children who attend pre school or nursery
People whose work involves preparing or serving unwrapped/uncooked food
HCW/Social care staff working with vulnerable people

146
Q

What is a notifiable disease?

A

Diseases, infections and conditions specifically listed as notifiable under the Public Health
Legal obligation for any doctor that suspects a case to inform the Proper Officer of the Local Authority
PHE also accepts notifications from nurses and other health professionals. Don’t have to wait for laboratory confirmation!
HIV, bird flu, or vCJD are not notifiable

147
Q

Give some examples of notifiable diseases?

A
Anthrax
Cholera
Plague
Rabies
Severe acute respiratory syndrome
Smallpox
Viral haemorrhagic fever
Yellow fever
//
Acute encephalitis
Botulism - wound
Brucellosis - contact with animals
Enteric fever (Typhoid &amp; Paratyphoid fever)
Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome - caused by E coli
Legionnaires Disease
Ophthalmia neonatorum
Leprosy
Leptospirosis - from rat’s urine
Malaria
Relapsing fever
Typhus fever
148
Q

Give some examples of vaccine-preventable diseases?

A
Acute poliomyelitis
Diphtheria
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Tetanus
Whooping cough
Acute Meningitis/Meningococcal septicaemia
149
Q

Give some examples of diseases that need specific control measures?

A

Acute infectious hepatitis
Foodborne (Food poisoning, Botulism, Enteric fevers, Infectious bloody diarrhoea)
Scarlet fever - warm rough ‘sandpaper’ rash, ‘strawberry’ tongue, caused by group A streptococcus (gram neg)
Tuberculosis

150
Q

Why is surveillance important in disease prevention?

A

Detection of any changes in a disease: Outbreak detection, Early warning, Forecasting
Track changes in disease: Extent and severity of disease, Risk factors
Allows development of interventions targeted at vulnerable groups

151
Q

How do we protect the community from the spread of disease?

A

Investigate: contact tracing, partner notification, look back exercises, etc…
Identify and protect vulnerable persons: e.g. chemoprophylaxis, immunisation, isolation
Exclude high risk persons or from high risk settings
Educate, inform, raise awareness, health promotion
Coordinate multi-agency responses

152
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Passive immunity provided by injection of human immunoglobulin containing antibodies to the target infection
Temporarily increases person’s antibody level to that specific infection.
Protection gained within a few days but lasts only a few weeks.
Most commonly cross-placental transfer of antibodies from mother to child (e.g. measles, pertussis)
Or, via transfusion of blood or blood products including immunoglobulin (e.g. Hep B)
Protection is temporary – usually only a few weeks or months.
Specific immunoglobulins available for tetanus, hepatitis B, rabies and varicella zoster.

153
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Vaccination stimulates immune response and memory to a specific antigen/infection
Vaccines made from
– inactivated (killed) (e.g. pertussis, inactivated polio)
– attenuated live organisms (e.g. yellow fever, MMR, polio, BCG)
– secreted products (e.g. tetanus, diphtheria toxoids)
– the constituents of cell walls/subunits (e.g. Hep B) or
– recombinant components (experimental)

154
Q

What are Polysaccharide vaccines?

A

Polysaccharide antigens not as immunogenic as protein antigens.
Protection is not long-lasting
Response in infants and young children often poor.
Conjugation helps improve immunogenicity (e.g. Hib, Men C)

155
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines?

A
Live attenuated organism must replicate in the vaccinated individual to produce an immune response.
Takes time (days or weeks).
Usually does not cause disease but some may cause a mild form of the disease.
156
Q

What are the types of vaccine failure?

A

No vaccine offers 100% protection
Small proportion of individuals get infected despite vaccination.
Primary vaccine failure – person doesn’t develop immunity from vaccine.
Secondary vaccine failure – initially responds but protection wanes over time.

157
Q

What is a Meningococcal infection?

A

Meningococcal infection can present as meningitis or septicaemia.
Caused by Neisseria meningitidis
Infection is not easily spread
Transmitted from person to person by inhaling respiratory secretions from the mouth and throat or by direct contact (kissing)
Close prolonged contact is usually required
They do not live long outside the body

158
Q

What is the epidemiology of Meningococcal infections?

A

Majority of infections occur in children <5 years of age
Peak incidence in under 1s.
Smaller secondary peak in young adults (age 15-19 years)
Most cases sporadic
<5% of cases occur in clusters.
Outbreaks more common among teenagers and young adults (e.g. in schools and universities).
Marked seasonal variation with peak in winter.
The winter season coincides with that of influenza.

159
Q

What is Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Distinct serogroups, according to their polysaccharide outer capsule.
The most common pathogenic serogroups are groups B, C, A, Y and W135.
Most disease in the UK is caused by serogroups B (59%) and C (36%).
Significantly fewer cases caused by serogroup C since routine vaccination introduced

160
Q

What are the possible consequences of Neisseria meningitidis?

A
Brain abscess
Brain damage
Seizure disorders
Hearing impairment
Focal neurological disorders
Organ failure
Gangrene
Auto-amputation
Death
161
Q

How do you manage Meningococcal infections?

A

Antibiotic therapy: Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone

Supportive treatment

162
Q

What is contact tracing for Meningococcal infections?

A

Contact for meningitis is taken to be any person having close contact with a case in the past 7 days
Close contact includes kissing, sleeping with, spending the night together or spending in excess of eight hours in the same room

Once contacts identified they can be offered advice
(warn about symptoms and signs, glass test, contact telephone number) or antibiotic chemoprophylaxis - Ciprofloxacin (older children & adults) or
Rifampicin (not pregnant women) to reduce spread.

If the serotype of meningococcus is vaccine
preventable, vaccination may be offered.

163
Q

What immunisation is available for for Meningococcal infections?

A

Men C immunisations since 1999.
Men B vaccine rolled out 2015
Quadrivalent (A, C, W135, Y) for Year 9s (preuniversity)

164
Q

What are the roles of the GI tract?

A

Secretion - Digestion and Defence
Motility - Mixing and Movement
Defence - Pathogen invasion, Toxins, Vomit/nausea
Control system
Absorption of Nutrients/water
Nutrient distribution through the blood stream

165
Q

What are the different types of gut muscle?

A

Longitudinal muscle - modifies length

Circular muscle - modifies lumen diameter

166
Q

What are the Interstitial Cells of Cajal?

A
Mesenchymal cells located within the muscle layers of the alimentary tract that mediate communication between the autonomic nervous system and smooth muscle.
Cyclic changes in membrane potential
 - Slow wave currents
Na+-mediated (NOT action potentials)
Location-specific frequency
Stomach – 3/min
Terminal ileum 9/min
  • High frequency Spike potentials (1-10/sec; 10-20msec duration)
    Ca2+-mediated (slow channels)
    Dynamic resting membrane potential
167
Q

How is the GI tract neurally controlled?

A

Enteric nervous system - complicated organisation, two plexi
Submucosal (Meissner’s) plexus
Superficial location
Regulates gut secretion/local blood flow

Myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus
Located deep in the gut muscle layer
Between circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers
Governs gut motility

168
Q

What does the myenteric plexus do?

A
Linear neurone chain: Acetylcholine
Excitation causes increased:
- Gut tone
- Contraction rate / intensity 
- Excitatory wave conduction speed
Some inhibitory function
- Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide (VIP)
- Reduced sphincter tome
- Pylorus/ileocaecal valve
169
Q

What does the submucosal plexus do?

A
Monitors inner wall of each gut segment
Mediates local
- Secretion
- Absorption
- Muscularis mucosae contraction
170
Q

How is the GI tract controlled parasympathetically?

A

Cranio-sacral system: 2-4th sacral divisions and Vagus
Net stimulatory effect: Depolarisation by Acetylcholine (ACh)
Efferent motor fibres↑ smooth muscle activity
Afferent sensory fibres inform CNS

171
Q

How is the GI tract controlled sympathetically?

A
Thoracolumbar system: Segments T5-L2.
Net inhibitory effect: Hyperpolarisation by Noradrenaline
Synapse prevertebral ganglia
- Inhibits gut smooth muscle activity and enteric nerve function
Excites
- Muscularis mucosae
- Blood flow
- Profound vasoconstriction
172
Q

What are the neural reflexes involved in the GI tract?

A

Reflexes within gut wall enteric nervous system - Secretion, peristalsis

Reflexes involving sympathetic prevertebral ganglia
Gastrocolic reflex: from stomach to evacuate colon
Enterogastric reflex: from colon/SI to inhibit gastric secretion/motility
Colonileal reflex: from colon to inhibit ileal emptying

Reflexes from gut to spinal cord/brain stem back to gut
Vagovagal reflex initiating gastric secretion
Pain reflexes - general inhibition of gut
Defaecation reflexes

173
Q

What happens during chewing?

A

Chewing aids digestion of food further down GI tract by increasing SA for digestive enzymes to work. Digestion is highly dependant on total surface area. Chewing is largely a reflex. Presence of bolus of food in mouth causes lower jaw to drop , stretch reflex causes jaw to rebound….cycle repeats

174
Q

What happens during swallowing?

A

Swallowing reflex regulated by cranial nerves V, IX, X and XII
3 PHASES
Buccal (voluntary):: initiates swallowing. The voluntary action of the tongue forcing the bolus of food towards the pharynx at the back of the throat.
Pharyngea (less than 1-2 sec): The pharynx is the passageway for food, fluid and air. Lots of mechanoreceptors are present. Presence of food intiates a wave of peristaltic contraction (the larynx rises so that the epiglottis covers the nasopharynx and trachea).
Oesophageal: involuntary phase promotes passage of food from pharynx into stomach.

175
Q

What motility occurs in the oesophagus?

A

Peristalsis – travelling wave of contractions
Contraction behind & relaxation ahead so that the mass propelled along.
Primary peristalsis is the continuation of waves that began in the pharynx.
Secondary peristalsis is initiated partly by reflexes transmitted through vagal afferent from oesophagus to medulla and back to oesophagus via vagal efferent fibres.

176
Q

What movement occurs in each of the phases of swallowing?

A

Buccal Phase:
Food bolus compressed against hard palate
Retraction of tongue elevates soft Palate (isolating nasopharynx)
Forces bolus into pharynx

Pharyngeal phase:
Bolus touches palatal arches and posterior pharyngeal wall.
Elevation of larynx and folding of epiglottis close glottis
Bolus directed into oesophagus by pharyngeal muscles – so that it won’t go back up

Oesophageal phase
Upper oesophageal sphincter opens -bolus pushed through.
Primary peristaltic wave occurs, bolus carried down oesophagus
This movement triggers opening of lower oesophageal sphincter; bolus enters stomach

177
Q

What are the functions of the stomach?

A

Stores ingested foods - Storage capacity ≈ 1.5 litres
Breaks down food - Contractions mix with gastric juices (acid/enzymes) to make chyme
Strong peristaltic contractions - Controlled delivery rate of chyme into duodenum
Optimum digestion and absorption

178
Q

What is the anatomy of the stomach?

A

Fundus - upper expandable portion of the stomach which functions as a reservoir for ingested food.
Body - main site for acid secretion
Antrum - most heavily muscularised portion of stomach….grinds food into smaller particles.
Pylorus - sphincter aids the grinding process and acts as a sieve.

The inner surface of the stomach has a series of folds known as rugae, these increase the surface area of the gastric mucosa. The surface is composed of mucus secreting and columnar epithelial cells interrupted by gastric pits, the site of gastric secretion.

179
Q

What are the specialist cells of the stomach?

A

Upper part are mucus secreting cells
Parietal cells secrete acid (oxyntic cells)
Peptic cells – secrete enzymes
G cells that produce gastrin and histamine and have a paracrine action to control acid secretion in parietal cells.

180
Q

How is the stomach contents mixed?

A

As food pours in, initial relaxation of the fundus to take it in.
Contraction rings from the top to the bottom to squeeze the food down.
At the same time there is contraction in the pylorus region, pushing the food against the constriction, allowing for it to be mixed.
Retropulsion – making sure that the digestion juices have been fully mixed with the incoming food, breaking it down.

181
Q

What are the Enterogastric reflexes?

A

Collective term describing hormonal and neural mechanisms mediating gastric emptying
Food enters duodenum
Initiates multiple reflexes from duodenal wall that pass back to stomach
Slow/stop stomach emptying

182
Q

What regulates gastric emptying?

A

STOMACH SIGNALS
- Gastric distension by food
- Presence of gastrin
Stretching of the stomach wall elicits vagal and local myenteric reflex
Signals from stomach increase pylorus pumping force and inhibit the pyloric sphincter

DUODENAL SIGNALS
Depress pyloric pump
Increase pyloric sphincter tone
Excess chyme depress the pyloric pump

183
Q

What determines the rate of gastric emptying?

A

Rate of gastric emptying dependent on various factors including the physical form of food
Solid food empties more slowly than liquids
Permits longer time for complete gastric digestion
Full stomach empties more rapidly
Half-life for liquids to leave stomach ~20mins vs. 2hours for solids

184
Q

What factors initiate emptying reflexes?

A

Distension of the duodenum
Irritation of mucosa
Acidity of chyme
Presence of chyme constituents - fats appear to be especially important

185
Q

How does local hormonal control effect reflexes?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK) (I-cells of duodenum and Jejunum) in response to fat (competitive inhibitor of gastrin)
Secretin (S-cells of duodenal mucosa)
Decreased pH stimulates release into blood, inhibits stomach gastrin secretion

186
Q

What motility occurs in the small intestine?

A

Mixing contractions (segmental)
Distension of SI elicits concentric contractions at intervals along the intestine
Propulsive contractions (peristaltic)
- activity increases after a meal
- relatively weak
- net movement of chyme at about 1cm/min
Chyme ~3-5 hours from pylorus to ileocaecal valve.

187
Q

What is segmental movement in the gut?

A

Segmented contractions in response to distension of the gut
Regularly spaced – chopping up the bolus of chyme, segmented and mixed (as well as moved by a peristaltic contraction)
Governed by the myenteric plexus
“slow wave propagation”
Directional (Mouth to anus)
Initiated by intestinal distension
Mixes/churns chyme

188
Q

What is peristalic movement in the gut?

A
Governed by the myenteric plexus
Directional (Mouth to anus)
Local reflexes
- Gastroenteric (stomach distension)
- Gastroileal (gastrin-mediated by stomach distention)

Circular muscle contract behind the bolus
“receptive relaxation” of muscle in front of bolus - facilitates bolus movement
Longitudinal muscles contract – shorten adjacent segments
Continues along gut

189
Q

How does the chyme move from the small intestine into the large intestine?

A

Large intestine processes chyme into faeces.
Proximal part absorbs any remaining water and electrolytes
Distal part stores solid waste
Unidrectional - Pressure closes ileoceacal valve and prevents backflow from caecum
Ileocaecal sphincter slight constriction slows ileal emptying
Post-meal gastroileal reflex opens ICV to promote emptying into caecum
Caecal irritants/distention inhibit ileal peristalsis
and promote ileal sphincter spasm

190
Q

What motility occurs in the large intestine?

A
SEGMENTAL
Constriction of circular &amp; longitudinal muscle
Unstimulated part bulges - Haustrations
PERISTATIC
Less common
MASS
Large scale contraction of colon
May last 30sec, subside then repeat.

Rectal distension following mass movement can trigger a reflex involving:

i) contraction of the sigmoid colon & rectum – forcing faeces out
ii) relaxation of the anal sphincter

191
Q

What occurs in the defecation reflex?

A

Rectal distension following mass movement can trigger a reflex involving:

i) contraction of the sigmoid colon & rectum – forcing faeces out
ii) relaxation of the anal sphincter

Voluntary control developed by ends of infancy to permit postponement of defecation.

192
Q

What are the two sphincters involved in the defecation reflex?

A
Internal anal sphincter:
Smooth muscle (Several cm length)
External anal sphincter:
Striated muscle
Surrounds IAS
Extends distal to IAS
Controlled by pudendal nerve and somatic nerve; voluntary control
193
Q

What is the intrinsic defaecation reflex?

A
Weak, local enteric nerves in rectal wall
Augmented by parasympathetic reflex
Distension of rectum by faeces
Myenteric plexus initiates:
peristaltic wave in DC, SC and rectum; faeces pushed to anus
Inhibition of IAS tone (relaxes IAS)
EAS consciously relaxed
Defaecation occurs
194
Q

How is defaecation controlled para-sympathetically?

A

Sacral spinal cord segments
Rectal stimulation initiates signal to spinal cord
Parasympathetic fibres return reflex from spinal cord to descending colon, sigmoid, rectum and anus
Intensifies myenteric peristalsis into strong defaecation process
Can empty bowel from splenic flexure
Can be consciously controlled

195
Q

What happens during vomiting?

A

Activation of vomiting centre by sensory afferents
Initiates anti-peristalsis in ileum
Profound relaxation of proximal stomach
Retrograde Giant Contraction (vagal control) – contraction from deep within the ileum
Reversal speed 2-3cm/sec
Clears contents into duodenum/stomach in ~5 mins.
Duodenal distention triggers vomiting act
- Strong contraction of duodenum/stomach/abdominal wall
- Relaxation/opening of oesophageal sphincters

196
Q

What is the cause and treatment of vomiting?

A
Motion sickness
Drugs – opioids
Activate chemoreceptor trigger zone
In turn activate vomiting centre
Treatment – anti-emetics
e.g. Ondansetron (5HT receptor antagonist)
197
Q

What are the different aspects of digestion?

A

Mechanical - Chewing, gastric mixing
Chemical - Enzymatic and Emulsification
Both processes require mucosal secretions

198
Q

Why is saliva important in digestion?

A

Digestion of food starts in the mouth where food is mechanically broken down by chewing and amylase and lipase (breakdown of starch).

Production of saliva - reflex salivation by 3 glands (Parotid, submandibular sublingual)
Under basal conditions about 0.5ml/min.
Saliva contains large quantities of potassium and bicarbonate ions. Sodium and chloride low. Lowest NaCl when juice is flowing slowly and increases when flow rate increases.

Flow of saliva helps wash away pathogenic bacteria as well as food particles, also contains factors that destroy bacteria – defence system.

199
Q

What are the stages of gastric secretion?

A

Cephalic - stimulated by chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors in buccal and nasal cavities
Gastric - stimulated by food in stomach and distension it causes
Intestinal - only a small portion of secretion

200
Q

What is the cephalic stage of gastric secretion?

A

Sight, smell, thought, taste
Accounts for 1/5 secretion
Stimulated by chemo- and mechano-receptors in buccal and nasal cavities
Vagal activity stimulated by afferent inputs cause release of Ach and gastrin releasing peptide (GRP) from neurons of stomach which act on parietal and gastrin cells – prepares the gut for food.
Short local reflex: Efferent signal from stomach via abdominal branches of vagus
Releases Ach and gastrin releasing peptide

201
Q

What is the gastric stage of gastric secretion?

A

Accounts for 2/3 secretion
Principally due to distension & chemical content of food
Food entering stomach stimulates vagal reflex
Gastrin released

202
Q

What is the intestinal stage of gastric secretion?

A
Presence of food in upper SI
Acid triggers release of secretin and CCK
Inhibits gastrin activity
Controls rate of gastric emptying
Allows SI to perform optimally
203
Q

How is gastric secretion inhibited?

A

Presence of food in SI initiates a reverse enterogastric reflex
Utilises coordination of myenteric, sympathetic and vagal nerves
Reflex initiated by: Bowel distention, Acid in upper SI, Digested protein, Mucosal irritation

204
Q

What are the types of gastric gland?

A

Gastric mucosa lined by columnar epithelial cells interrupted by gastric glands

Oxyntic (Gastric) glands – acid secreting
Pyloric glands – gastrin secreting
Both secrete protective mucus

205
Q

When is mucous secreted?

A

Mucous is alkaline and about 1mm thick.
Secreted from the superficial epithelial mucus cells and the cells around the neck of the gastric glands. Mucus secretion is stimulated by acetylcholine, mechanical stimulation, and some chemicals such as ethanol.

206
Q

What is Pepsinogen?

A

Pepsinogen is an inactive precursor to pepsin, which is converted to pepsin when pH<5 or by the action of pepsin itself. Pepsinogen is released by chief cells from the gastric glands by the action of acetylcholine.

207
Q

What is Gastrin?

A

Gastrin is secreted by G-cells in the antral glands of the stomach in response to distension of the stomach wall. It stimulates the submucosal plexus, releasing Gastrin Releasing Peptide (GRP)), and partially digested food e.g. amino acids. It is released into the blood where it tavels to the parietal cells to stimulate acid secretion, and to ECL cells to stimulate histamine secretion.
The net result of gastrin secretion is increased acid production through two mechanisms
1. Direct stimulation of the parietal cells
2. Trophic action on parietal cells increasing their number.

208
Q

What does saliva contain?

A
Water
Inorganic salts 
K+, HCO3- (higher than plasma)
Na+, Cl- (lower than plasma)
Lowest NaCl when juice is flowing slowly
Increases when flow rate increases
209
Q

What do the Oxyntic glands do?

A

Upper part contains mucous secreting cells
Lower part contains parietal cells that secrete acid (HCl), peptic cells (chief cells) which secrete pepsinogen, intrinsic factor and causes absorption of vitamin B12 in ileum. Also contains Enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells that secrete histamine in response to gastrin.

210
Q

What do the Pyloric glands do?

A

Present in the antrum of stomach
Upper aspect contains mucus secreting cells which protect pyloric mucosa
Lower aspect contains G-cells which secrete gastrin
Paracrine regulation of Parietal cell acid secretion and ECL-cell histamine secretion

211
Q

What does histamine do?

A

Secreted from enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells of gastric glands
Release stimulated by gastrin and acetylcholine act on ECL cell
Acts directly on parietal cells via histamine H2 receptors
Acts synergistically with gastrin and acetylcholine to stimulate acid synthesis

212
Q

Why is high acid activity important in digestion?

A

Breakdown of meat
Activation of inactive pepsinogen
Optimal conditions for the activity of pepsin
Combines with Fe & Ca to form soluble salts - acid aids the absorption of these minerals
Defence mechanism

213
Q

What happens when there is too much acid in the digestive tract?

A

Ulcers - Too much acid due to stress, reflux or infection (H.pylori)
Achlorhydria/Hypochlorhydria - Destruction of parietal cells. Failure of stomach to secrete acid
Pernicious anaemia - no intrinsic factor, no ileal VitB12 absorption

214
Q

Where do the secretions into the SI come from?

A

Pancreas

Gall bladder - Enters duodenum at bile & pancreatic duct

215
Q

What occurs at the brush border?

A

Sucrase, maltase & lactase are the digestive enzymes present on brush border
Hydrolyse various disaccharides
Not secreted

216
Q

What are the two major roles of the pancreas?

A

Exocrine (enzymes, HCO3-)

Endocrine (Insulin/Glucagon)

217
Q

How is the pancreas involved in digestion?

A

Pancreas is parallel to and beneath the stomach
In addition to secreting insulin via the alpha/beta cells, it also secretes digestive enzymes from the pancreatic acini and also bicarbonate.
The combined product flows through the pancreatic duct, joins the hepatic duct & empties into the duodenum at the spincter of Oddi. Secretion occurs most abundantly in response to the presence of chyme.

218
Q

What is the action of the pancreatic juice?

A

Bicarbonate serves to neutralise the chyme – to ph7/8 which is optimal
Contains enzymes for digesting all 3 major food types:
Protein, carbohydrate & fats

219
Q

What are the stimuli for pancreatic secretion?

A

Acetylcholine - Released from the PS (vagus nerve)
Gastrin - From stomach
CCK - From duodenum & upper jejunum
Secretin - From duodenum & jejunum.

ACh, Gastrin & CCK all stimulate pancreatic acinar cells
Secretin causes endocrine release induced by acid in duodenum
Responsive pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate
Neutralisation of chyme

220
Q

How is pancreatic secretion inhibited?

A

Presence of food in SI initiates a reverse enterogastric reflex
Requires coordination of:
- myenteric nervous system
- symp. and vagus nerves
- intestinal factors (VIP, GIP, secretin, somatostatin)

Reflex initiated by: Bowel distention, Acid in upper SI, Digested protein, Mucosal irritation

221
Q

What are the pancreatic digestive enzymes?

A

Proteolytic enzymes (not active until →SI) – really potent proteases: Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Carboxypeptidase
Carbohydrate: Pancreatic amylase breaks down starch
Fat digestion:
Pancreatic lipase
- Triglycerides: Free fatty acids, monoglycerides & some glycerol
- Cholesterole esterase: Hydrolysis of cholesterol esters
- Phospholipase: Hydrolysis of fatty acid from phospholipids

222
Q

What are the Brunners glands?

A
Present in the proximal duodenum
Secrete copious alkaline mucus
Protective function
Stimulated by mucosal irritation, vagal stimulation, vagal hormones (secretin)
Inhibited by sympathetic stimulation
223
Q

What are the Crypts of Lieberkuhn?

A
Located throughout SI - crypts of each villus
Secretes almost pure ECF ~1800ml/day
Provides vehicle for absorption
Secretion mediated by Na+,Cl-, HCO3- 
Causes osmotic drag
224
Q

What causes the bile to be secreted into the gallbladder?

A

Liver secretes 600-1200ml/day bile into gall bladder
Bile in liver canniculi empty into the bile ducts
Closed sphincter of Oddi - dilute bile secreted into gall bladder

CCK most potent stimulus for bile secretion
Gall bladder contracts and sphincter of Oddi relaxes
Bile released into duodenum

225
Q

What is bile?

A

Complex mixture of:
Bile acids
Cholesterol
Concentrated by gall bladder as water/ions reabsorbed

FUNCTION
Essential for lipid digestion
Emulsifies fat droplets
Facilitates action of pancreatic lipase
Micelles allow fatty acid absorption
Major route for cholesterol and bilirubin excretion
226
Q

What is Bilirubin?

A

Metabolite of Hb.
Some excreted in the faeces.
Other reabsorbed for excretion in the kidney
Jaundice results when there is excessive bilirubin in the blood, this occurs if the biliary flow is obstructed by gall stones.

227
Q

What are some common causes of diarrhoea?

A

Too much intestinal secretion
Enteritis – inflammation caused by bacterial/viral or mucosa irritated
Cholera
Psychogenic - Over active parasympathetic system, increased secretion/motility
Ulcerative colitis - Chronic bowel inflammation, continuous mass movements

228
Q

What is absorbed at the gut?

A

Absorptive surface area - ~ 250M2
Counter-current blood supply

Carbohydrates
Protein
Lipids
Water &amp; Na+
Vitamins &amp; minerals
229
Q

How does location in the gut affect the levels of absorption?

A

Duodenum - Extensive mucus glands (Brunner’s)

Jejunum - Maximal absorption in proximal villi
Plica extensive and prominent
Chyme now pH ~7-8

Ileum - Less absorption, villi smaller, less numerous

230
Q

What nutrient absorption occurs in the gut?

A

Body must absorb 25-30g Na+/day
Na+/K+ ATPase creates significant Na+ gradient
Absorption of Na+ drives that of other nutrients
- Na+:nutrient symporters
- Na+/H+ exchanger
- +ve charge drags Cl- and water

Water-soluble nutrients absorbed into villus blood supply and join hepatic portal circulation
HCO3- buffers bacterial acid in the large intestine

Fats and lipids are dissolved in bile micelle
Micelles fuses with apical membrane
Fatty acids diffuse directly into cell and smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Transported in lacteal to lymphatic system

231
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A
Processes ~1,500 ml chyme into ~200 ml faeces
Absorbs H20, electrolytes,
Facilitates bacterial fermentation
Stores solid waste
Proximal colon: absorption
Distal colon: storage
232
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Metabolic regulation: Glucose/fats/proteins, Detoxification, Storage of fat-soluble vitamins (A,D,E, K), Fe
Haematological Regulation: Receives ~25% cardiac output, largest blood reservoir, synthesis of coagulation factors
Bile synthesis and secretion

233
Q

What is the microscopic structure of the liver?

A

Basic functional unit – liver lobule has portal area at each corner (branches of portal vein, hepatic artery, bile ductules)

Hepatocytes arranged in one-cell thick plates with numerous short micro-villi.
They cluster around central vein and the sinusoids (lined with Kupffer cells) are empty here.
Heptatocytes continuously produce bile which is collected in canaliculi which merge on a bile ductule - hepatic duct and common bile duct.

234
Q

What happens at the initial bile secretion?

A

Bile acid and cholesterol-rich
Secreted directly OR stored via cystic duct in gall bladder.
HCO3- -rich solution added during transit through bile ductules (secretin-mediated)
Acid neutralisation

235
Q

How is the bile re-used?

A

~94% of bile salts recycled via enterohepatic circulation
Reabsorbed via small intestine and portal circulation
Diffusion in proximal SI
Active transport in distal ileum
First pass returns majority of bile salts to hepatocytes for re-secretion in bile canaliculi

236
Q

What is jaundice?

A
Excess bilirubin in extracellular fluid
Yellowish tinge to skin/eyes
Normal range ~0.5 mg/dl plasma
Jaundice up to 40 mg/dl
Yellow skin tinge at ~1.5 mg/dl
237
Q

What are the two types of jaundice?

A

Haemolytic jaundice
Increased red blood cell destruction

Obstructive Jaundice
Bile duct obstruction
Hepatocyte damage

238
Q

How is haem involved in liver metabolism?

A

Fe removed and recycled
Haem converted to bilivirdin
Bilivirdin reduced to unconjugated (free) bilirubin
Unconjugated bilirubin released from macrophages
Absorb by hepatic cells
~80% conjugated to glucuronide (conjugated bilirubin)
Excreted from liver - bile
Intestinal bacteria convert conjugated bilirubin to urobilinogen
Hepatic/renal excretion
Oxidised in faeces to stercobili

239
Q

What is Gastritis?

A

Gastritis is a general term for a group of conditions with one thing in common: inflammation of the lining of the stomach. The inflammation of gastritis is most often the result of infection.

240
Q

What causes gastroduodenal ulceration?

A

In acutely ill patients, there is a reduction in blood flow to the stomach (mucosal ischaemia). In this case, the glandular gastric cells are unable to produce mucin so are not well protected from the acidic conditions of the stomach. This causes the cells to die and produces a micro-ulcer. This hole in the cells makes the cells that are at the side vulnerable to the acid too - risk of gastroduodenal ulceration.

241
Q

What are some potential causes of increased acid in the stomach, increasing the risk of ulceration?

A

Acid is corrosive and if there is increased acid in the stomach, it may be able to break down the mucin layer, and the cells will die.
Stress can cause increased acid.
Helicobacter can cause increased acid production.
Aspirin can sit on the mucosa, release salicylic acid which inhibits COX2 (prostaglandin synthetase) and can cause ulceration.

242
Q

How can bile cause damage to the stomach?

A

Bile comes into the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi but it is not good for the stomach. Bile reflux means that bile enters the stomach and can kill the cells. This may be because the patient has had a partial gastrectomy.

243
Q

How can helicobacter cause damage to the stomach?

A

Helicobacter live in the mucin layer in the stomach (very niche environment). Ingested, a lot of them are killed by the acid, but some survive. They produce chemicals that attract acute inflammatory cells which move in and produce chemicals which cause gastric ulceration.
If they are present for a long time, the stomach can undergo intestinal metaplasia, becoming intestinal tissue. Gives a small risk of gastric cancer.
Can be treated with antibiotics.

244
Q

What are the complications of gastric ulcers?

A

There will be pain as soon as there is an ulcer present. There may be some bleeding from some vessels.
But if the ulcer moves down deeper, it can hit an artery and cause a haemorrhage - vomiting up litres of blood.
If it goes all the way through, you can get peritonitis or pancreatitis.

245
Q

How can malabsorption present itself?

A

Can manifest itself as weight loss, pale floating faeces (because fat is not being absorbed), anaemia.

246
Q

How is the small bowel arrange to maximise surface area?

A

Small bowel is arranged in villi to maximise surface area for reabsorption. The crypts are full of proliferative cells to replace the epithelium cells higher up. The brush border around the villi also increases surface area.

247
Q

What can cause malabsorption?

A

Insufficient intake of the right nutrients
Defective intraluminal digestion
Insufficient absorptive area
Lack of digestive enzymes
Defective epithelial transport due to abetalipoproteinemia or primary bile acid malabsorption
Lymphatic obstruction due to lymphoma or TB

248
Q

What can cause defective intraluminal digestion?

A

The enzymes needed for digestion (e.g. amylase) are mostly produced by the pancreas. So if there is insufficient pancreas or blocked pancreatitis it can cause defective intraluminal digestion. This can occur in pancreatitis (pancreas destroyed by inflammation) and cystic fibrosis (secretions block off the ducts - pancreas atrophies).
Can also be caused by defective bile secretion (lack of fat solubilisation) due to biliary obstruction or ileal resection (ileum circulates bile salts).
Can also be caused by bacterial overgrowth.

249
Q

How does gluten-sensitive enteropathy cause insufficient absorptive area?

A

Gluten-sensitive enteropathy - affects 1% of the population causes villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes.
Allergic reaction to gluten.
Gliadin protein from gluten gets absorbed and processed by transglutaminase. It is presented to an antigen-presenting cell. CD patients make an allergic reaction to this gliadin and produce toxic T cells and the cells are killed, damaging the epithelium. Body cannot replace them quickly enough - villous atrophy.

250
Q

When would you perform a small intestine resection or bypass?

A

Procedure for morbid obesity
Crohn’s disease
Infarcted small bowel

Reduces surface area for absorption

251
Q

How can lack of digestive enzymes cause malabsorption?

A
Disaccharidase deficiency (lactose intolerance) - don’t absorb it, lactose goes undigested and bacteria live off it in the colon - abdominal distention and wind
80/90% in China are lactose intolerance
Bacterial overgrowth - brush border damage
252
Q

What are the different types of inflammatory disease in the bowel?

A

Chronic idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease - Crohn’s disease or Ulcerative Colitis
Other inflammatory conditions - Diverticulitis, Ischaemic colitis, Infective colitis (bacterial or protozoal).

253
Q

What is characteristic of Crohn’s disease?

A

Patchy inflammation anyway from the mouth to the anus.
Through the full thickness of the bowel wall (transmural) out into the fat.
Granulomas present - patches of macrophages surrounded by lymphocytes.

254
Q

What are the complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

Almost all in the bowel
Malabsorption - disease extent or surgical resection
Obstruction - acute swelling or chronic fibrosis
Perforation - acute abdomen
Fistula formation
Anal - skin tags, fistula, fissure
Neoplasia - colorectal cancer
Systemic - amyloidosis (rare) - deposition of B-pleated proteins

255
Q

What is characteristic of Ulcerative colitis?

A

Similar symptoms to Crohn’s disease
Distinct in pathology
Inflammation is all mucosal - starts in the rectum and is continuous
No presence in the ileum
Aetiology isn’t known, could be bacterial

256
Q

What are the complications of ulcerative colitis?

A

Liver - fatty change, chronic pericholangitis, sclerosing pericholangitis
Colon - blood loss, toxic dilatation, colorectal cancer
Skin - erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
Joints - ankylosing spondylitis (joints in the spine become fused), arthritis
Eyes - iritis, uveitis, episcleritis

257
Q

What is Coeliac disease?

A

Chronic autoimmune enteropathy triggered by ingested gluten in genetically susceptible individual

258
Q

Who is usually diagnosed with coeliac disease?

A

Used to be considered as a pediatric disease
Children were very malnourished, failure to thrive, distended abdomen
Prevalence in Europe now is 1 in 100
Comments age for presentation is between 4-6th decade.
More females than males
For every paediatric case diagnosed there are 9 adult cases.
People with undiagnosed adult coeliac disease generally have a normal BMI and may even be overweight.
In a GI clinic, 3% prevalence.

259
Q

What might be the cause of the increasing prevalence of coeliac disease?

A
A real increase
Increased awareness of the spectrum of diversity in the presentation of coeliac disease
Change in endoscopic techniques
Antibody screening
Reduced mortality rate
260
Q

What are the environmental factors that contribute to coeliac disease?

A

Viral infections?
Dysbiosis?
Gluten
- gliadins (alcohol-soluble component of gluten)
- glutenins (alcohol-insoluble component of gluten)

261
Q

What are the individual factors that contribute to coeliac disease?

A

Genetic predisposition
Association with HLA DQ2/DQ8 molecules
Tissue transglutaminase

262
Q

What is gluten?

A

Gluten is a complex of proteins that are found in wheat, barley, rye, spelt and kamut.
Viscoelastic and adhesive properties that give the dough it’s typical elasticity.
Essential for giving the bread the ability to rise properly during baking.
Low cost, widely demanded by the food industry - gluten can be found in packaged food made from gluten-free components.

263
Q

What is the association with coeliac disease patients and the HLA patients?

A

90-95% of coeliac patients express HLA-DQ2 molecules
5% of coeliac patients express HLA-DQ8 molecules
Nearly 40% of caucausians express both DQ2 and DQ8.
Negative predictive value is 100%

264
Q

How does coeliac disease present?

A

Classical - diarrhoea, steatorrhoea, weight loss, failure to thrive
Non-classical - irritable bowel type symptoms, iron deficiency anaemia, osteoporosis, chronic fatigue, dermatitis herpetiformis, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, hyposplenism, amenorrhoea, infertility, associated autoimmune disorders
Silent - first degree relatives, screening of general population, ‘neglected’ coeliac disease

265
Q

What is the pathophysiology of coealiac disease?

A

Central abnormality is that they are not able to fully digest gluten.
Gluten peptides can pass across the enterocytes to the lamina propria. They initiate innate and adaptive immunity.
Tissue transglutaminase is able to cause deamidation on the peptides.

266
Q

What is Dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Chronic autoimmune blistering skin condition
Herpetiform clusters of intensely itchy urticated papules and small blisters distributed on the extensor aspects of the elbows and knees and over the buttocks and on the scalp.
DH is a cutaneous manifestation of coeliac disease.
Look for IgA deposits in the dermal papillae

267
Q

How would you diagnose coeliac disease?

A
- Serology:
IgA tissue transglutaminase
IgA anti-edomysial anitbody (EMA)
Immunoglobulins - if IgA deficiency, test for class IgG antibodies
- Upper GI endoscopy and duodenal biopsises
- Histology:
Villous atrophy
Crypt hyperplasia
268
Q

How to ensure accurate testing for coeliac disease?

A

Testing is accurate only if performed while on a gluten-containing diet.
When following a gluten containing diet they should eat some gluten in more than one meal every day for at least 6 weeks before testing.

269
Q

How would you manage coeliac disease?

A
Gluten free diet - strict and lifelong
Dietitian review
Coeliac UK information
Prescription entitlement
DEXA scan-osteoporosis risk
Inform 10% risk in 1st degree relatives
270
Q

What are the complications of coeliac disease?

A
Refractory coeliac disease type 1
Refractory coeliac disease type 2
Ulcerative jejunitis
Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma (EATL)
Abdominal B-cell lymphomas
Small bowel adenocarcinoma
271
Q

What is present in a healthy gastro-oesophageal junction?

A

Gastro-oesophageal junction should be a clear junction between squamous epithelium of the oesophagus (needs to be resistant to abrasion) and glandular epithelium of the stomach. Mucin border to buffer acid.

272
Q

What is Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Columnar lined lower oesophagus (CELLO) aka Barrett’s oesophagus: a precancerous condition where the normal cells lining the oesophagus have been replaced with glandular epithelium through metaplasia.

273
Q

How does Barrett’s oesophagus happen?

A

If there is a reflux of acid into the oesophagus, the squamous epithelial cells don’t have a protective layer of mucin so it kills them off very quickly.
May cause pain, indigestion and ulceration.
It could regrow, but if there is repeated reflux, metaplasia can occur - glandular epithelium in the oesophagus (now protective against other acid reflux).

274
Q

What are risk factors for tumours of the upper GI tract?

A

Oesophageal squamous cancer - heavy smoking and alcohol (prognosis is bad)
Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus - obesity

275
Q

What are the complications of oesophageal cancer?

A

Can protrude into the lumen and cause problems swallowing (dysphagia).
Too much invasive outwards (outside mucosa) can be problematic for surrounding structures - trachea, brochii, aorta, vena cava etc.
Can spread into the lymphatic or vascular system.
Proportion that can be treated with curative therapy is very low.

276
Q

What causes gastric cancer?

A

Decreasing incidence, may be due to reclassification to ‘oesophageal cancers’.
Common in eastern Asian and eastern european.
A lot of smoked and pickled food may have an impact.
Helicobacter pylori can also have an impact.
Pernicious anaemia could also have an impact.

277
Q

What’s the difference between early and late gastric cancer?

A

Early gastric cancer - only invades the submucosa (even if it’s spread to lymph nodes) - 90% 5 year survival rate
Late gastric cancer - invades the muscular wall of the stomach - 60% 5 year survival rate (cannot be resected)

278
Q

What is the peritoneum?

A

The peritoneal cavity is the largest cavity in the body,
Two parts – the visceral peritoneum surrounding the viscera and the parietal peritoneum lining the other surfaces of the cavity.
In health, only a few millilitres of peritoneal fluid are found in the peritoneal cavity. The fluid is pale and contains lymphocytes and other leukocytes; it lubricates the viscera allowing easy movement and peristalsis.
The parietal portion is richly supplied with nerves and, when irritated, causes severe pain that is accurately localized to the affected area. The visceral peritoneum, in contrast, is poorly supplied with nerves (these being situated around blood vessels) and its irritation causes pain that is usually poorly localised to the midline.

279
Q

What is the function of the peritoneum?

A

In health :
Visceral lubrication
Fluid and particulate absorption across the membrane
In disease
Pain perception
Inflammatory and immune responses
Fibrinolytic activity – responsible for adhesions

280
Q

What is Peritonitis?

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum

281
Q

How is peritonitis classified?

A

Onset - Acute or chronic
Source of origin - Primary or Secondary
Location - generalised or localised
Cause:
Bacterial, gastrointestinal and non-gastrointestinal
Chemical, e.g. bile, barium
Traumatic, e.g. operative handling
Ischaemia, e.g. strangulated bowel, vascular occlusion
Miscellaneous, e.g. familial Mediterranean fever

Peritonitis without qualification will be bacterial acute peritonitis.

282
Q

What might lead to peritonitis?

A

Gastrointestinal perforation, e.g. perforated ulcer, appendix, diverticulum
Transmural translocation (no perforation), e.g. pancreatitis, ischaemic bowel, primary bacterial peritonitis
Exogenous contamination, e.g. drains, open surgery, trauma, peritoneal dialysis
Female genital tract infection, e.g. pelvic inflammatory disease
Haematogenous spread (rare), e.g. septicaemia

283
Q

What are the clinical features of localised peritonitis?

A
S&amp;S of the underlying condition
Pain
Nausea and vomiting
Fever 
Tachycardia
Localised guarding
Rebound tenderness
Shoulder tip pain ( subphrenic)
Tender rectal and / or vaginal examination (pelvic peritonitis).
284
Q

What are the clinical features of early generalised peritonitis?

A

Abdominal pain (worse by moving or breathing)
Tenderness
Generalised guarding
Infrequent bowel sounds cease ( paralytic ileus)
Fever
Tachycardia

285
Q

What are the clinical features of late generalised peritonitis?

A
Generalised rigidity
Destension
Absent bowel sounds
Circulatory failure 
Thready irregular pulse 
(Hippocratic face) – dry tongue, dry membranes
Loss of consciousness
286
Q

What investigations would you perform for suspected peritonitis?

A

Urine dipstix for urinary tract infection.
ECG if diagnostic doubt (as to cause of abdominal pain) or cardiac history.
Bloods
- U&Es
- Full blood count (WCC)
- Serum amylase (acute pancreatitis/ others like perf DU)
- Group and save.

287
Q

How would you manage peritonitis?

A

Correction of fluid loss and circulating volume
Urinary catheterisation with potential gastrointestinal decompression
Antibiotic therapy
Analgesia

Specific treatment of the cause:
Repair of perforated viscus – peptic ulcer
Excision of perforated organ 
With or without drainage 
With or  without restoring continuity
288
Q

What are the specialized types of peritonitis?

A

Bile peritonitis – due to perforation of the gallbladder
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Primary pneumococcal peritonitis
Tuberculous peritonitis
Familial Mediterranean fever (periodic peritonitis)

289
Q

What is Ascites?

A

An accumulation of excess serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity.
Synonyms – Abdominal Dropsy, Peritoneal dropsy, hydrops abdomini

290
Q

How is Ascites classified?

A

Stage 1 detectable only after careful examination/Ultrasound scan (Mild)
Stage 2 easily detectable but of relatively small volume.
Stage 3 obvious, not tense ascites. (moderate)
Stage 4 tense ascites. (Large)

291
Q

What are the two types of Ascites?

A

Transudates (protein <25g/L)

Exudates (protein >25g/L)

292
Q

What are the potential causes of transduate ascites?

A

Low plasma protein concentrations: Malnutrition Nephrotic syndrome Protein-losing enteropathy
High central venous pressure: Congestive cardiac failure
Portal hypertension: Portal vein thrombosis /Cirrhosis

293
Q

What are the potential causes of exudate ascites?

A

Peritoneal malignancy
Tuberculous peritonitis
Budd–Chiari syndrome (hepatic vein occlusion or thrombosis)
Pancreatic ascites
Others: Chylous ascites , Meigs’ syndrome

294
Q

What are the major causes of ascites?

A
75% Cirrhosis
10% Malignancy
9% Others
Heart failure
Pancreatitis
TB
295
Q

How does ascites clinically present?

A

Abdominal distension - Clothes getting tighter
Nausea, Loss of appetite
Constipation
Cachexia - wasting ? weight loss
Pain / Discomfort (Present – malignant, Absent – non malignant)
Associated symptoms of underlying cause

296
Q

What are the clinical signs of ascites?

A
Abdominal distension (up to 1.5 to 2 l)
Puddle sign (150ml)
Shifting dullness (500ml)
Flanks fullness 1500+ ml
Fluid thrill
Jaundice &amp; Other Stigmata of liver disease (if cause is liver)
297
Q

How would you investigate ascites?

A

Underlying cause (LFTs, Cardiac function)
Imaging:
- X-Ray ( 500ml)
- Ultra sound scan ( at least 20ml)
- CT abdomen (< v small amt )
Ascitic aspiration (under imaging guidance)
Fluid for microscopy, cytology, culture, including mycobacteria, and analysis of protein content and amylase.

298
Q

How would you manage ascites?

A

Treatment of the specific cause
Sodium restriction
Diuretics
Paracentesis (up to 4-6 L / day with colloid replacement)
Indwelling drain (home paracentesis , smaller volumes)
Peritoneovenous shunting (for rapidly accumulating ascites)

299
Q

What is the lifecycle of bile?

A

Make bile to absorb fat - breaks it down, enabling you to absorb fat-soluble vitamins (A, E, D, K)
Stored in gallbladder and released through the Sphincter of Oddi
During digestion bile acids are reabsorbed unconjugated
In the terminal ileum bile salts are reabsorbed by specialised mucosa into portal circulation to be re-conjugated and secreted back into bile

300
Q

What is bile made of and where is it made?

A

Bile = bile acids + phospholipids + cholesterol
Bile acids - cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid formed by cholesterol liver metabolism
Secondary bile acids - bacterial metabolites of bile acid formed in the colon

301
Q

What are the signs of cholelithiasis?

A
Jaundice
Itching
Pain in the RUQ: intermittent (colic)
Acute or chronic
Painless
Dark brown urine
Pale/white stool (without bilirubin)
Weight loss
Lethargy - low appetite
302
Q

What blood test results would you expect for cholelithiasis?

A

Blood tests
Obstructive - bilirubin >35 (clinical at >80), Alkaline phosphatase, ALT
Isolated - slightly raised bilirubin (35-60)

303
Q

What are the options for imaging in gallbladder problems?

A

Ultrasound - dilated common bile duct
Strengths: can see gallbladder well, good for stones
Poor: in overweight, difficult in distal CBD, difficult to exclude pancreas lesion in head

Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
Low radiation
Complex number of imagine
Takes times for reporting and scan
Claustrophobia
CT
Good/sensitive for cancer
Poor at stones unless >8mm and a non contract scan done first
High radiation
Picks up everything

Endoscopic ultrasound
Pass a gastroscope into the duodenum with an ultrasound machine on the end of it
Very sensitive
Requires sedation

304
Q

What causes cholelithiasis?

A

Increased cholesterol
Cholesterol crystals precipitate and form stones
80% gallstones: cholesterol
<20% gallstones: calcium bilirubinate
Biliary sludge (mucus supersaturation) can also cause obstruction

305
Q

What are the risk factors for cholelithiasis?

A
Rapid weight loss - bariatric surgery
Age
OCP/pregnancy
PBC
Octreotide, fibrate, ceftriaxone
NIDDM
Crohn’s
Pigment stones
306
Q

What kind of pain can be felt in patients with cholelithiasis?

A
Epigastric pain to RUQ
RUQ to shoulder/scapula
Pain 15-25%
Colic - 30mins to 5 hours
Post prandial
Noctural
OR can be completely asymptomatic (70%)
307
Q

What are the treatment options for cholelithiasis?

A
  • Laparoscopic cholecystectomy: 3 or 4 small cuts are made in the abdomen. A laparoscope is inserted allowing the surgeon to view the operation on a video monitor. The gallbladder is then removed using surgical instruments.
  • Open cholecystectomy: If the patient is in their third trimester of pregnancy, extremely overweight, or have an unusual gallbladder/bile duct structure it is best that the patient has an open cholecystectomy.
  • Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography - An endoscope is passed through the patient’s mouth into where the bile duct opens into the small intestine. During the ERCP, the bile duct is widened with a small incision or an electrically heated wire. The bile stones are then removed or left to pass into the intestine and out of the body. Sometimes a stent is placed in the bile duct to help the stones pass.
  • Bile salt therapy: Urodeoxycholic acid - dissolve over 2 years <50%. Rarely effective, they need to be taken for a long time to work (about 2 years) and the gallstones can reoccur once treatment is stopped.
308
Q

What are the signs of Acute cholecystitis?

A
Gallstones obstruction
Biliary pain progressive
Sepsis signs
History of previous attacks
MURPHY’S sign = AC no = BC
Gall bladder palpable
Jaundice in 25%
309
Q

What tests would you perform in Acute cholecystitis?

A

WBC, CRP
Maybe Bil and Alk Phos
USS - thick walled tender GB with stones
CBD dilatation on MRI

310
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for Acute cholecystitis?

A
Pancreatitis - Amylase
Appendicitis
Peptic Ulcer disease - ultrasound
Liver abscess
Pneumonia - chest X ray
MI - ECG and troponin
Perforated bowel - chest X ray
311
Q

What is Choledocholithiasis?

A
Common bile duct stone
From gall bladder 1-25% of patient with GS have a CBD stone
Can form without GB - dilated CBD
Increase with age
‘Painful jaundice’
312
Q

What is Primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A
Chronic diffuse inflammation
Strictures are multiple and small
Men > Women
Age 20-50
Risks: UC in 80%, increased risk of colon cancer

Presents with fatigue, pruritus, anorexia, indigestion, jaundice, blood (increased Alk phos), P-ANCA 80%
MRI good for differentials
Risks of cholangiocarcinoma, gallstones

313
Q

What is Biliary dyskinesia?

A

A disorder of some component of biliary part of the digestive system in which bile physically can not move normally in the proper direction through the tubular biliary tract. It most commonly involves abnormal biliary tract peristalsis muscular coordination within the gallbladder in response to dietary stimulation of that organ to squirt the liquid bile through the common bile duct into the duodenum.

314
Q

What is SIRS?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is an exaggerated defense response of the body to a noxious stressor (infection, trauma, surgery, acute inflammation, ischemia or reperfusion, or malignancy to name a few) to localize and then eliminate the endogenous or exogenous source of the insult.
SIRS with a suspected source of infection is termed sepsis.

315
Q

How to diagnose pancreatic cancer?

A
Jaundice - head lesion
Painless or vague abdominal pain
New onset diabetes
CT diagnostic test
Ca19-9 marker - treatment response rather than diagnosis, raised with obstruction
316
Q

How would you manage pancreatic cancer?

A
Staging CT/PET CT
Treat jaundice
Surgery
Biopsy - endoscopic ultrasound
Palliative chemotherapy

Prognosis
Operable - 2 years
Inoperable - 5-12 months