Neurology 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the brain process?

A

Movement, seeing, hearing, feeling (touch, pain, temperature), tasting and smelling the world

Emotions - giving meaning to the world

Learning, behaviour, memory, executive function

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2
Q

How have the features of the brain be preserved in evolution?

A

Our brain is very different to that of our distant vertebrate ancestors but mainly in terms of the size and proportions of various parts.
The basic structure, anatomy and connectivity is incredibly well preserved.

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3
Q

What are the different mechanisms of defense that the brain uses?

A

Escape from pain - uses spinal cord e.g. withdrawal reflex to keep tissues safe, doesn’t require any complex processing
Avoidance from threat - uses sensorimotor
midbrain (outside conscious control)
Avoidance from learned threat - uses cortex and limbic system e.g. understanding that a gun is dangerous

More complex, sophisticated threat detection and avoidance behaviour requires additional or more complex processing capacity.

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4
Q

What is the CNS?

A

Made of the brain and the spinal cord

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5
Q

What is the PNS?

A

Outside the skull and spine.
Somatic Nervous System: part that interacts with the external environment.
Automatic Nervous System: part that regulates the body’s internal environment.
Sends sensory signals to the CNS (afferent)
CNS sends motor signals to the peripheries (efferent)

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6
Q

What are the unipolar sensory neurons?

A

Afferent neurons bringing sensory information via the dorsal roots to the CNS. They have their cell bodies grouped in the dorsal root ganglions. Each neuron has a peripheral process ending in the skin, a muscle or a joint (sensory receptor) and a central process ending in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

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7
Q

What are the mutlipolar motor neurons?

A

Efferent neurons sending motor information via the ventral roots to the muscles. They have their cell bodies in the ventral horn.

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8
Q

How can the brain be divided up?

A

FOREBRAIN
Telencephalon (cerebral cortex, basal ganglia and limbic system)
Diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus)

MIDBRAIN
Mesencephalon (tegmentum, tectum)

HINDBRAIN
Metencephalon (pons, cerebellum)
Myelencephalon (medulla)

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9
Q

What is the function of the medulla?

A

Contains tracts carrying signals between the rest of the brain and the body.
Contain caudal part of the reticular
formation (“little net”):
- Low level sensorimotor control e.g. balance
-Involved in variety of vital functions:
Sleep/Wakefulness
Motor Plant: movement, maintenance of muscle tone
Various cardiac, circulatory, respiratory, excretory
reflexes

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10
Q

What is the function of the pons?

A

Relay from cortex and midbrain to the cerebellum
Contains millions of neuronal fibers
Contains pontine reticular formation (pattern generators) e.g. for walking

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11
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Smaller than the brain but contains as many neurons as all the rest of the CNS.
“Motor errors” between intended movement and actual movement – adjusts synaptic weights to eliminate error.
Correction can take place during the movement : motor learning.
Thought exclusive for motor coordination – recently implicated in cognitive and affective/emotional function.

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12
Q

What is the function of the tectum?

A

Visual/spatial and auditory frequency maps
Made up of the:
- Superior colliculus: Sensitive to sensory change – orienting/defensive movements
- Inferior Colliculus: Similar, but for auditory
events

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13
Q

What is the function of the tegmentum?

A

The Periaqueductal gray - role in defensive behaviour, analgesia, reproduction
Red nucleus - Target of cortex and cerebellum, projects
to spinal cord. Role in pre-cortical motor control (especially arms and legs).
Substantia nigra – made up of Substantia nigra pars compacta (Dopamine cells) which deals with basal ganglia input and Substantia nigra pars reticulata which deals with basal ganglia output.

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14
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Specific nuclei : relay signals to cortex/limbic system for all sensations (but smell…).
Non-specific nuclei : Role in regulating state of sleep and wakefulness and levels of arousal
Important relays from basal ganglia and cerebellum back to cortex

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15
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Regulates the pituitary gland which regulates hormonal secretion: interface between brain and hormones
Role in hormonal control of motivated behavior including hunger, thirst, temperature, pain, pleasure and sex

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16
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Subcortical structure
Group of structures
Loop organisation - central arbiter of function
These structures thought to be involved in motor function since involved in movement disorders
However: work from this department suggested fundamental role in action selection and reinforcement learning

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17
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Subcortical structures
Group of structures
These structures involved in emotion, motivation and emotional association with memory
The limbic system influences the formation of memory by integrating emotional states with stored memories of physical sensations

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18
Q

What are the structures found in the limbic system?

A
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Fornix
Cingulate gyrus
Septum
Mamillary body
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19
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

Involved in associating sensory stimuli with emotional impact

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20
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

Involved in memory (long term)

Involved in spatial memory

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21
Q

What is the function of the fornix?

A

C-shaped bundle of fibers

Carries signals from the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies and septal nucleus

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22
Q

What is the function of the cingulate gyrus?

A

Linking behavioural outcomes to motivation and autonomic control – atrophied in schizophrenia

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23
Q

What is the function of the septum?

A

Involved in defense and aggression

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24
Q

What is the function of the mamillary body?

A

Breast shaped Important for the formation of recollective memory – amnesia

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25
Q

What are the major features of the frontal lobe?

A

Contain the precentral gyrus from which motor instructions (particularly for fine motor control) that are sent to muscles controlling hands and feet.

  • Primary motor cortex: contains many of the cells giving origin to the descending motor pathways - it is involved in the initiation of voluntary movements.
  • Premotor and supplementary motor areas: higher level motor plans and initiation of voluntary movements.
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26
Q

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

A

Executive” planning – generating models of the consequences of actions
Judgmental roles
Emotional modulation
Working memory: short-term information (rather than long-term factual data)
Control of behavior that depends upon context or setting
Prefrontal cortex: generating sophisticated behavioural options that are mindful of consequences

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27
Q

What are the major features of the parietal lobe?

A

Contains the postcentral gyrus which receives sensation from the rest of the body
- Primary somatosensory cortex
Maintains representations of the body’s and of the head’s position in space.
Permits complicated spatio-temporal predictions – e.g. catching something when you are moving

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28
Q

What are the major features of the temporal lobe?

A

Plays important roles in integrating sensory information from various parts of the body
Interface between cortex and limbic system – association of affect/emotion with things
Contains the primary auditiory cortex
Inferotemporal cortex: recognition faces and objects

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29
Q

What are the major streams of the occipital lobe?

A

Contains visual cortices
Dorsal stream - Vision for movement (Where is it in relation to us)
Ventral stream - Vision for identification (What does it mean to us)

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30
Q

What are the major milestones of development of the brain?

A

10w – cerebral expansion and commissures.
3m – basic structures established.
5m – CNS myelination begins. Continues to adolescence.
7m – lobed cerebrum.
9m – gyri and sulci.

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31
Q

What are the consequences of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Alcohol crosses placenta.
Fetus doesn’t clear alcohol well so fetal levels of alcohol are higher.
- Facial abnormalities
- Microcephaly - loss of cells, loss of fibres e.g. callosal agenesis, disturbed migration
- Irritability
- Motor and intellectual impairment

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32
Q

What are the effects of drugs of abuse on neuronal development of the fetus?

A

Opiates – neonatal withdrawal
Cocaine – neonatal hypoxia, abortion, withdrawal, decreased cognition
Ecstasy - long term effects on hippocampus

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33
Q

When do the senses of the fetus/baby develop?

A

Taste and smell - well developed at birth.

Hearing - responsive at birth.
Excellent discriminators of language sounds.
Locate sounds from 3 days.

Vision
Eyes open and sensitive from 7 months.
Vision least well developed at birth.

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34
Q

What are the major post-natal reflexes?

A

Moro (startle) reflex - the infant is held in the supine position with the head supported, the head is then suddenly allowed to drop. The infant will abduct and extend the arms, open the hands, and then adduct the arms and flex the elbows.
Stepping - hold up feet on a surface
Palmar grasp - supports own weight, goes by 3 - 4 months
Swimming - goes by 4-6 months
Babinski reflex - Neonates fan toes when sole stroked

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35
Q

When can babies achieve co-ordinated motor responses?

A

Significant development post-birth e.g. reaching begins at 5th month
Attain objects at 8-9m
By 2 years, show adult motor patterns

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36
Q

What do the neural crest cells give rise to?

A

Cartilage and bone in the skull or face.
Also give rise to schwann cells, adrenal medulla, meninges, sensory dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord and V, VII, IX and X.

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37
Q

What are the abnormalities of the spinal cord?

A

The neural tube usually closes at the end of embryonic week 4.
Failure to close cephalic region - anencephaly
Failure to close spinal regions - spina bifida
Collectively called neural tube defects.

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38
Q

What increases the risk of neural tube defects?

A

Environmental factors - folic acid and maternal diabetes
Genetic factors - 1 sibling 1%, 2 siblings 2%, parent 4%
Irish individuals have a greater risk of neural tube defect due to various genetic polymorphisms which activate folic acid.

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39
Q

What are the types of spina bifida?

A

Spina bifida occulta - opened posterior vertebral body
Meningocele - protrusion of the meninges (dura mater)
Myelomeningocele - protrusion and opened spinal cord

Lower motor neuron lesion - floppy (spina bifida patients are often incontenent)
Upper motor neuron lesion - stiffness

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40
Q

What is microcephaly and macrocephaly?

A

Microcephaly - reduced head circumference, brain size is too small, not enough neurons have been made, normally associated with some sort of intellectual disability
Macrocephaly - increased head circumference
Compared using a normal distribution

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41
Q

What is Periventricular nodular heterotopia?

A

Abnormal migrations of neurons

Gene that tells the neurons to migrate is abnormal. Often associated with learning problems and epilepsy.

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42
Q

How is CSF circulated?

A

CSF circulates through the subarachnoid spaces and through the vesicles
CSF cushions the brain and helps circulate metabolites
About 120mls
Produced as filtrate of blood at choroid plexuses in ventricles
Absorbed via arachnoid granulations in superior sagittal sinus.

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43
Q

What is obstructive hydrocephalus?

A

Lateral ventricles found in the cerebral hemispheres
Foramen of Monro connects lateral ventricles to the third ventricle
Aqueduct of Sylvius connects third ventricle to the fourth ventricle
These areas can get blocked by infection
Obstructive hydrocephalus - impaired consciousness and a headache

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44
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Accumulation of CSF with increased intracranial pressure
Can cause macrocephaly in children
Obstructive (non-communicating) e.g. tumour, haemorrhage
Non-obstructive (communicating) e.g. increased CSF production
Try to treat the underlying cause or put in a shunt

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45
Q

What are the key processes that occur in the eye?

A

Transmission of light: tear film, cornea, aqueous, lens, vitreous, inner retina
Refraction of light: cornea and lens
Detection of light: photoreceptors and ganglion cells
The afferent pathway: optic nerve, chiasm, optic tracts, thalamus, optic radiations, visual cortex
The efferent pathway: brain stem nuclei, cranial nerves, ocular muscles

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46
Q

How are the orbits positioned in the head?

A

Conical or four-sided pyramidal cavities
Open into the midline of the face
Point back into the head

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47
Q

What are the bones surrounding the orbit?

A

Orbital margin - Frontal, Zygomatic, Maxilla

Walls - Lacrimal, Ethmoid, Sphenoid: body, lesser and greater wings

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48
Q

What are the holes present in the orbit?

A

Optic canal
Superior orbital fissure
Inferior orbital fissure
Nasolacrimal fossa

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49
Q

What is a blowout fracture?

A

A traumatic deformity of the orbital floor or medial wall, typically resulting from impact of a blunt object larger than the orbital aperture, or eye socket.

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50
Q

What is facial palsy and what causes it?

A

A loss of facial movement due to nerve damage. Facial muscles may appear to droop or become weak. It can happen on one or both sides of the face. Common causes of facial paralysis include:

  • infection or inflammation of the facial nerve
  • head trauma
  • head or neck tumor
  • stroke
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51
Q

What are the different layers of the tear film?

A

Surface layer contains the Meibomian glands
Middle layer is aqueous and contains lacrimal glands, lysozyme, lactoferrin, antibodies
Deep layer contains mucin: goblet cells

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52
Q

What is Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

A chronic inflammatory autoimmune disorder which may be primary or secondarily associated with connective tissue disease. Lymphatic infiltration and fibrosis of exocrine glands, especially lacrimal and salivary glands.
Dry mouth and dry eyes

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53
Q

What are the layers of the cornea?

A

Epithelium - Non-keratinising squamous
Stroma - Regular lamellae
Endothelium - Pumps fluid out of stroma

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54
Q

What is the sclera?

A

Very strong
Insertion of eye muscles
Holes for optic nerve and neurovascular bundle

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55
Q

What is keratoconus?

A

A disorder of the eye which results in progressive thinning of the cornea. This may result in blurry vision, double vision, nearsightedness, astigmatism, and light sensitivity. Usually both eyes are affected. In more severe cases a scarring or a circle may be seen within the cornea.

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56
Q

What makes up the uveal tract?

A

Iris - Pupil and Sphincter and dilator muscles to control pupil reflexes
The ciliary body - made up of ciliary epithelium: aqueous and ciliary muscle: accommodation and pars plana
The choroid - Highly vascular and highly pigmented

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57
Q

What is coloboma?

A

A hole in one of the structures of the eye, such as the iris, retina, choroid, or optic disc.

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58
Q

What the layers of the retina?

A
INNER RETINA:
Internal limiting membrane
Nerve fibre layer
Ganglion cell layer
Inner plexiform layer
Inner nuclear layer
Outer plexiform layer
Outer nuclear layer
Outer limiting membrane
OUTER RETINA:
Photoreceptors
Retinal pigment epithelium
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59
Q

What makes up the peripheral and central retina?

A
CENTRAL RETINA
Macula (lutea)
Fovea (centralis)
Cone photoreceptors
- Fine visual resolution
- Colour vision
- Photopic vision
PERIPHERAL RETINA
Rod photoreceptors
- Peripheral visual field
- Motion detection
- Scotopic vision
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60
Q

What is Central retina artery occlusion?

A

A disease of the eye where the flow of blood through the central retinal artery is blocked (occluded). There are several different causes of this occlusion; the most common is carotid artery atherosclerosis.

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61
Q

What are the major features of the lens?

A
Continues to grow
Contained within elastic capsule
Natural shape is almost spherical
Shape controlled by ciliary muscle in the ciliary body via zonules
Allows for accommodation
Fades with age
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62
Q

What is cataract surgery?

A

A procedure to remove the lens of your eye and, in most cases, replace it with an artificial lens. Normally, the lens of your eye is clear. A cataract causes the lens to become cloudy, which eventually affects your vision

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63
Q

What are the anterior and posterior segments of the globe?

A

Anterior segment contains the anterior chamber (AC), cornea, angle, iris, pupil/lens and aqueous humour which circulates from ciliary body, via pupil, into AC and leaves via the trabecular meshwork in the ‘angle’
Small posterior chamber behind iris

Posterior segment contains vitreous humour
Supportive but largely redundant from birth

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64
Q

What is angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Acute angle-closure glaucoma occurs when the flow of aqueous humour out of the eye is blocked and pressure inside the eye becomes too high very quickly. It is an emergency because if it is not treated quickly, it can lead to permanent loss of vision

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65
Q

What are the humours of the eye?

A

Aqueous (humour):
Produced by ciliary epithelium in ciliary body
Maintains intraocular pressure between 12 and 20 mmHg above atmospheric pressure
Circulates around lens
Low protein ‘plasma’
High vitamin C (antioxidant)
Nourishment for avascular structures

Vitreous (humour):
Collagen matrix
Hyaluronic acid and water

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66
Q

What happens in retinal tear & detachment?

A

As the vitreous separates or peels off the retina, it may tug on the retina with enough force to create a retinal tear. Left untreated, the liquid vitreous can pass through the tear into the space behind the retina, causing the retina to become detached.

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67
Q

What are the extraocular muscles and their nerve supply?

A
Rectus muscles:
Horizontal (lateral and medial)
Vertical (superior and inferior)
Oblique muscles:
Superior and inferior
Arise from orbital apex 
Insert anteriorly into sclera
Nerve supply
CNIII: medial rectus, inferior rectus, superior rectus, inferior oblique
CNIV: superior oblique
CNVI: lateral rectus
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68
Q

What are the actions of the extraocular muscles?

A

Horizontal recti: abduction and adduction
Vertical recti: mostly elevation and depression
other actions depending on globe position in orbit
Obliques:
Mostly intorsion and extorsion
other actions depending on globe position in orbit

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69
Q

What is 3rd nerve palsy?

A

Third cranial nerve disorders can impair ocular motility, pupillary function, or both. Symptoms and signs include diplopia, ptosis, and paresis of eye adduction and of upward and downward gaze. If the pupil is affected, it is dilated, and light reflexes are impaired.

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70
Q

What is needed for normal light transmission in the eye and the potential problems?

A
Wavelength  - UV absorbed
Eyelids separated - ptosis
Normal tear film - dry eye
Transparent cornea - scarring, swelling
Clear aqueous - inflammation, blood
Normal pupil - too large, too small, incorrect position, occluded
Clear lens - cataract
Clear vitreous - blood, inflammation
Normal inner retina - swelling, blood
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71
Q

What is refractive error?

A

Refractive error, also known as refraction error, is a problem with focusing light accurately onto the retina due to the shape of the eye. The most common types of refractive error are near-sightedness, far-sightedness, astigmatism, and presbyopia.

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72
Q

How does light detection (transduction) occur in the visual system?

A

Photoreceptor outer segments
Discs contain rhodopsins which respond to different wavelengths
Change in structure of retinal opens Na/K channels
Hyperpolarisation of membrane closes Ca channels
Reduces glutamate release- bipolar cells respond

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73
Q

What is dyschromatopsia?

A

A rare acquired inability to discriminate colors by hue. Dyschromatopsia is most often associated with damage to the inferior part of the occipital lobes, in the fusiform gyrus.

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74
Q

Where does vision from each eye end up?

A

Images temporal to midline fall on nasal retina
Images nasal to midline fall on temporal retina
Optic nerves transmit from each eye but maintain orientation
Splits at chiasm:
Nasal fibres (temporal field) cross
Tracts now have information from opposite field but from each eye

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75
Q

How does light affect pupillary constiction?

A
Pupillary reflexes to light
Light sensitive ganglion cells
Optic nerve, chiasm, tract
Synapse in midbrain (3rd n)
3rd n to ciliary ganglion (orbit)
Fibres to sphincter muscle
Light stimulus in one eye therefor causes both pupils to constrict (direct and consensual response)
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76
Q

What is a visual field defect?

A

A visual field defect is a loss of part of the usual field of vision, so it does not include severe visual impairment of either one eye or both. The lesion may be anywhere along the optic pathway; retina to occipital cortex.

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77
Q

What is Horner syndrome?

A

Horner syndrome is characterized by drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis) on the affected side, a constricted pupil in the affected eye (miosis) resulting in unequal pupil size (anisocoria), and absent sweating (anhidrosis) on the affected side of the face.

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78
Q

What are the cell types of the CNS?

A

Neurons
Differentiated glia: Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, Astrocytes
Others - glial stem cells, oligodendrocyte precursors, ependymal cells, etc.

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79
Q

What is a neuron?

A

Specialized for intercellular electrical signalling via synapses
Dendrites receive inputs (dendritic spines), transmit to cell body (soma)
Action potentials propagate along axon from axon hillock
Mainly, but not exclusively, formed during brain development

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80
Q

What is the Neuropil?

A

Any area in the nervous system composed of mostly unmyelinated axons, dendrites and glial cell processes that forms a synaptically dense region containing a relatively low number of cell bodies.

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81
Q

What are the 2 types of synapses?

A

Chemical - majority
Electrical – less abundant, enable synchronized electrical activity in brainstem neurons (breathing) and hypothalamus (hormone secretion)

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82
Q

What is synaptic plasticity?

A

Synaptic plasticity is the ability of synapses to strengthen or weaken over time, in response to increases or decreases in their activity.
Basis of learning & memory
Highly relevant to disease – e.g. neuro-developmental disorders & Alzheimer’s

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83
Q

How do neurons express heterogeneity?

A

Size
Morphology
Electrical properties
Neurotransmitters

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84
Q

What are oligodendrocytes?

A

Myelinating cells of the CNS
Unique to vertebrates
Myelin insulates axon segments, enables rapid nerve conduction
Myelin sheath segments interrupted by nodes of Ranvier – saltatory conduction
Provide metabolic support for axons

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85
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A

Formed by wrapping of axons by oligodendrocyte processes (membranes)
Highly compacted – 70% lipid, 30% protein
Myelin specific proteins, e.g. MBP, PLP, etc. involved in compaction, excellent “markers”

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86
Q

What are the microglia?

A

Resident immune cells of the CNS
“Resting” state, highly ramified, motile processes survey environment (2-3 µm/min)
Upon activation (e.g. by ATP), retract processes, become “amoeboid” & motile
Proliferate at sites of injury - phagocytic

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87
Q

What are the functions of the microglia?

A

Immune surveillance
Phagocytosis – clearing up debris/microbes
Synaptic plasticity – pruning during development, refining of the circuitry

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88
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

“Star-like cells”
Most numerous glial cells in the CNS
Highly heterogeneous – not all star-shaped
Common “marker” glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)

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89
Q

What are the 2 major morphologies of astrocytes?

A

Fibrous – white matter, contact blood vessels, pia & nodes of Ranvier
Protoplasmic – grey matter, contact blood vessels & pia

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90
Q

What are the functions of astrocytes?

A

Developmental – will give rise to radial glia
Structural - define brain micro-architecture
Envelope synapses – “tripartite synapse”
Homeostatic – buffer K+, glutamate, etc.
Metabolic support - Glutamate-Glutamine shuttle, lactate shuttle, etc.
Disease – gliosis/astrocytosis
Neurovascular coupling

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91
Q

What are some of the specialised glia?

A
Radial glia –important for braindevelopment
Müller cells (in retina)
Bergmann glia (in cerebellum)
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92
Q

How does motor neuron disease affects the cells of the CNS?

A

MND symptoms are due to loss of motor neurons.
MND spinal cord shows pathological changes in motor neurons, microglia and astrocytes.
Pathological CNS lesions in MS involve neurons, oligodendrocytes and T lymphocytes (demyelinating disease).
Acute symptoms of MS reflect dysfunction of neurons.

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93
Q

What are nuclei? Tracts? Commissures? White and grey matter?

A

Abundance of neuronal cell bodies in nuclei
Axons gathered into tracts
Tracts that cross midline = commissures
Grey matter abundant in neural cell bodies & processes – neuropil contains few cell bodies
White matter contains abundance of myelinated tracts & commissures

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94
Q

What are ganglia? Nerves? Schwann cells?

A

Cell bodies & supporting cells located in ganglia – e.g. dorsal root ganglia (DRGs)
Axons bundled into nerves
Many PNS axons are enveloped by Schwann cells (myelinating cellsof the PNS – neural crest derived)

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95
Q

What are the features of the blood-brain barrier?

A

Endothelial tight junctions
Astrocyte end feet
Pericytes
Continuous basement membrane, lacks fenestrations
Need specific transporters for glucose, water, essential ions etc.

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96
Q

What is the Area postrema?

A

Paired structure in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem, is a circumventricular organ having permeable capillaries and sensory neurons that enable its dual role to detect circulating chemical messengers in the blood and transduce them into neural signals and networks.

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97
Q

What are the Ependymal cells?

A

Epithelial-like, line ventricles & central canal of spinal cord
CSF production, flow & absorption
Ciliated – facilitates flow of CSF
Allow solute exchange between nervous tissue & CSF

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98
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

Frond-like projections in ventricles
Formed from modified ependymal cells, villi form around network of capillaries → large surface area
Main site CSF production by plasma filtration (driven by solute secretion)
Gap junctions between cells form blood-CSF barrier

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99
Q

What are the main features of a neuron?

A

Basic cellular unit of the nervous system
Huge range - specialised for different functions
All have same basic components: dendrites, cell body/soma, axon, presynaptic terminals.
Axon transmits the action potential from the cell body, to axon via axon hillock to the synapse.

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100
Q

What are the different types of neurons?

A

Unipolar - one structure extending from the soma
Bipolar - one axon and one dendrite extending from the soma
Multipolar - one axon and many dendrites; Pseudounipolar - single structure that extends from the soma, which later branches into two distinct structures.

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101
Q

What’s the difference between axonal and synaptic transmission?

A

Axonal transmission: Transmission of information from location A to location B
Synaptic transmission: Integration/processing of information

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102
Q

What are the main symptoms of multiple sclerosis?

A

Eye movements – uncontrolled, seeing double
Speech – slurred
Paralysis – partial/complete, any part of body
Tremor
Co-ordination – lost
Weakness – tired
Sensory – numbness, prickling, pain

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103
Q

Who gets multiple sclerosis?

A

Young adults 20-40
Slightly more women than men
Temperate zones
Areas with high standards of sanitation

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104
Q

What is the diagnosis/prognosis for multiple sclerosis?

A

Initial symptoms – slight with remission
Episodes become more numerous, frequent and severe and become chronic
Difficult to diagnose because:
Early symptoms slight – person doesn’t go to doctor
Other diseases have similar symptoms
No definitive current lab-test – diagnosis based on repeated presentation of symptoms combined with an MRI

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105
Q

What is the nerve impulse?

A

The signal used by neurones to transmit information between different spatial locations

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106
Q

What is the neuronal membrane permeable to?

A

Some substances which are electrically charged (+ve or –ve) and cross readily – potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl-)
Some cross with difficulty – sodium (Na+)
Some not at all – large organic proteins (-ve charge)

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107
Q

What are the forces that determine the distribution of charged ions?

A

Diffusion – the force driving molecules to move to areas of lower concentration
Electrostatic pressure - ions (like magnets) move according to charge, like ions repel and unlike attract

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108
Q

Why is the membrane potential at rest -70mV?

A

More K on the inside than the outside – diffusion wants to push them out, electrostatic pressure wants to pull them in (balanced).
More Cl on the outside than the inside - diffusion wants to pull them in, electrostatic pressure wants to keep them out (balanced).
Na are drawn towards the inside due to diffusion and the electrostatic forces but they can’t get in because the membrane isn’t very permeable to them.
Membrane and pump resists Na+ inward movement - some sodium leaks back in but is expelled by the pump.
Anions are restricted to the inside of the cell.

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109
Q

What does the sodium potassium pump do?

A

Active process to transport Na+ ions out of neuron & K+ in
Three Na+ for every two K+
Require energy supplied by ATP

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110
Q

What is the action potential?

A

Neuron fires – a sudden pulse where the negative resting potential is temporarily reversed (becomes briefly positive)
Transmits information i.e. the message [digitally/all or none/0 or 1]
1) Depolarization & threshold
2) Reversal of membrane potential
3) Repolarisation to resting potential
4) Refractory period

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111
Q

How is an action potential triggered?

A

The membrane potential remains in this resting ‘stable’ state until something disturbs the balance.
Membrane permeability changes.
Neurotransmitters initiate such changes at the dendrites of neurons.
Neurotransmitters activate receptors on dendrites/soma
Receptors open ion channels
Ions cross plasma membrane, changing the membrane potential
The potential changes spread through the cell
If the potential changes felt at the axon hillock are positive (+mV), and large enough, an action potential is triggered

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112
Q

What is the EPSP and IPSP?

A

Excitatory neurotransmitters depolarise the cell membrane, increases probability of an action potential being elicited. This causes an Excitatory Post Synaptic Potential (EPSP).
Inhibitory neurotransmitters hyperpolarise the cell membrane, decreases probability of an action potential being elicited. This causes an Inhibitory Post Synaptic Potential (IPSP).

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113
Q

What is temporal and spatial summation?

A

Spatial summation occurs when multiple presynaptic neurones together release enough neurotransmitter to exceed the threshold of the postsynaptic neuron.

Temporal summation occurs when one presynaptic neurone releases neurotransmitter many times over a period of time. The total amount of neurotransmitter released may exceed the threshold value of the postsynaptic neurone. The higher the frequency of the action potential the more quickly the threshold may be exceeded.

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114
Q

What happens during depolarisation and repolarisation?

A

EPSPs begin to depolarise cell membrane
When the threshold (-60mV) is reached Na+ channels open and polarity reverses to +30 inside
Membrane potential reverses with the inside going positive at which point voltage-gated Na+ channels close and K+ channels open which restores resting membrane potential

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115
Q

How is the action potential self-perpetuating?

A

The voltage changes are caused by the opening or closing of ion channels.
In the cell membrane there are channels which are opened by detecting opposite polarity in an adjacent bit of membrane, i.e. voltage gated thus voltage changes control the ion channels which control the voltage changes meaning that the action potential is self-perpetuating.

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116
Q

How does saltatory conduction increase speed of transmission?

A
Without myelination, signal loss due to lack of insulation and transmission is slow due to the time needed to activate each channel.
Saltatory Conduction (jumping between nodes of Ranvier) means that decremental conduction occurs between nodes (but ‘re-boosted’ each time).
Myelin insulates sections of the axon leading to faster and more accurate transmission.
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117
Q

Why does the breakdown of myelin affect the transmission of messages?

A

Degeneration of myelin and development of scar tissue disrupts and eventually blocks neurotransmission along myelinated axons.

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118
Q

What are the 5 fundamental processes of synaptic transmission?

A

Manufacture – intracellular biochemical processes
Storage – vesicles
Release – by action potential
Interact with post-synaptic receptors – diffusion across the synapse
Inactivation – break down or re-uptake

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119
Q

What occurs during synaptic transmission?

A

Calcium ion channels open when action potential reaches pre-synaptic terminal
Ca++ ions cause vesicles to move to release sites – fuse with the cell membrane – and discharge their contents
Transmitter substance diffuses across synaptic cleft
Attach to receptor sites on post-synaptic membrane
The neurotransmitter would remain active in the synapse if it wasn’t for various mechanisms such as enzyme degradation e.g. acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine.

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120
Q

What are some of the common neurotransmitters?

A
- Fast neurotransmitters – short lasting effects
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Glutamate (GLU)
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
- Neuromodulators – can be targeted with drugs
Dopamine (DA)
Noradrenalin (NA) (norepenephrine)
Serotonin (5HT) (5-hydroxytryptamine)
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121
Q

What membrane changes occur post-synaptically?

A

Transmitter-gated ion channels on post synaptic membrane are sensitive to specific neurotransmitter substances.
Results in depolarization or hyperpolarization depending on channel type:
- Depolarization - excitatory - EPSP (excitatory post-synaptic potential)
- Hyperpolarization - inhibitory - IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential)

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122
Q

How do local anesthetics work?

A
Procaine and lignocaine
Na+ channels blockers-particularly well
Can be absorbed through mucous membranes - ’EMLA cream’
Blocks progress of action potential
Used in medicine and dentistry
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123
Q

What is Acetylcholine (ACh) and what is it affected by?

A
Transmitter at the neuromuscular junction, also used widely in brain and spinal cord.
Affected by:
Cigarettes (nicotine - agonist)
Poison arrows (curare - antagonist)
Spider toxins (black widow - release)
Nerve gas (WW-I – blocks break-down)
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124
Q

What is Noradrenaline and what is it affected by?

A

Transmitter in peripheral (heart) and central nervous systems – diverging architecture in brain
Affected by:
Antidepressant drugs (Imipramine – blocks re-uptake)
Antidepressant drugs (MAO inhibitors – block break-down)
Stimulants (Amphetamine – increases release and blocks re-uptake)

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125
Q

What is Dopamine and what is it affected by?

A

Important transmitter in basal ganglia – diverging architecture
Affected by:
Antipsychotic drugs (Chlorpromazine – receptor blocker)
Stimulants (Amphetamine/cocaine – increase release and block re-uptake)
Anti-Parkinson drugs (L-DOPA increases manufacture)

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126
Q

What is Serotonin and what is it affected by?

A

Diverging projections in the brain – innervating many structures
Affected by:
Antidepressant drugs (Prozac – serotonin re-uptake inhibitor – SSRI)
Hallucinogens (LSD –5HT receptor agonist)
Ecstasy

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127
Q

What is GABA and what is it affected by?

A

Main inhibitory transmitter
Affected by:
Anti-anxiety drugs (benzodiazepines - valium – inhibitory effect at GABA receptors
Anticonvulsant drugs (benzodiazepines)
Anaesthetics (Barbiturates – potentiate the effect of GABA)

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128
Q

What are the problems with designing drugs for the brain?

A

A region of the brain engaged in a particular function uses several neurotransmission systems e.g. basal ganglia.
AND
Regions of the brain engaged in different functions use the same neurotransmission systems.

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129
Q

What are some of the potential side-effects when targeting neurotransmitters?

A

GABA agonists - anti-anxiety, anti-convulsant, anaesthetic
L-DOPA - Anti-parkinson, causes psychosis at high doses
Dopamine blockers - Anti-psychotic, causes Parkinson-symptoms at high doses

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130
Q

What are the main neuroimaging techniques?

A
Plain X rays
CT scans
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Cerebral Angiography
Myelography
Nuclear medicine – looking at functional status e.g. cerebral blood flow, receptor binding
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131
Q

What are the features of CT scanning?

A

X-ray source which constantly rotates around a series of detectors. Patient goes through the scanner.
Dose of radiation: 1 CT head = 100 chest X rays
Limited anatomical detail
Requires iodinated contrast media – potential for allergic reaction
Better than MRI for demonstrating bone and calcification (e.g. craniopharyngioma)
Quicker scan times than MRI

Can use a CT to create a 3D reconstruction, can model the bones and the intracranial circulation

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132
Q

What are the features of MRI scanning?

A

If you are scanning the head, it needs to be in the middle of the magnet. Can be very claustrophobic.
No ionising radiation.
Multiple planes possible
Excellent anatomical detail
Contrast injection may be required
Strong magnetic field – in some patients, MRI is contraindicated (metallic implants)
Noisy and claustrophobic
Longer scan times than CT
MRI can be used to look at the fibre bundles of the brain – visualised by looking at the way water diffuses.

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133
Q

What are the different types of intracranial hemorrhage?

A

Epidural hematoma - bleeding occurs between the dura mater and the skull
Subdural hematoma - bleeding occurs between the inner layer of the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid hemorrhage - bleeding within the subarachnoid space
Intracerebral hemorrhage - bleeding within the brain tissue itself

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134
Q

What are cerebral contusions?

A

Cerebral contusions are bruises of the brain, usually caused by a direct, strong blow to the head. Cerebral lacerations are tears in brain tissue, caused by a foreign object or pushed-in bone fragment from a skull fracture.

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135
Q

What is diffuse axonal injury?

A

Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) is considered one of the most common and detrimental forms of traumatic brain injury (TBI).
The resistant inertia that occurs to the brain at the time of injury, preceding and following its sudden acceleration against the solid skull, causes shearing of the axonal tracts of the white matter.

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136
Q

What is sensation?

A

A mental process resulting from the immediate external stimulation from a sense organ
Sight, sound, taste, touch, hearing

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137
Q

What is perception?

A

The ability to become aware of something or understand something following sensory stimulation
Tactile, olfactory, gustatory, visual, auditory

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138
Q

What is the perceptual set?

A
We all have a very unique perceptual set - the psychological factors that determine how you perceive your environment.
What we believe influences what we see.
Context
Culture
Expectations
Mood and motivation
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139
Q

How does the limbic system work with the visual and auditory cortex?

A

In the visual cortex in the occipital lobe, the nerve impulses are converted into a visual picture.
In the primary auditory cortex, the nerve impulses initiated by the vibrations are converted into an understandable auditory input.
The limbic system helps us to interrupt the visual and auditory input - do we like or dislike it?

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140
Q

What are the Gestalt principles?

A

Proximity, common fate, continuity, similarity, closure, common region, symmetry

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141
Q

What is an illusion?

A

The instance of a wrong or misinterpreted perception of a sensory experience
Can happen in any sensory modality

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142
Q

What is a hallucination?

A

Experiences involving the apparent perception of something not present
1 in 20 people will at some point in their lifetime will experience a hallucination.
Unique hallucinations because each person has a different perceptual set.
Not all down to mental illness
Causes:
Delirium
Drugs
Acute stress
Psychiatric conditions

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143
Q

How to treat hallucinations?

A

Bio-psycho-social model

Medication
Psychology - helping people to understand and reduce the distress they are experiencing
Social circumstances

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144
Q

What are the major fissures/sulci of the brain?

A

The cerebral hemispheres are paired structures separated from each other by the longitudinal fissure along the midline.
Examination of the lateral surface of the brain will reveal the lateral sulcus (the Sylvian fissure). This groove separates the temporal lobe from the parietal lobe.
The central sulcus (the Rolandic Sulcus), may be found by looking for two parallel gyri extending from the superior margin of the cerebrum down to the lateral fissure. The sulcus separates these parallel gyri and also demarcates the boundary between the frontal and parietal lobes.
The parieto-occipital sulcus separates the occipital lobe from the rest of the brain.

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145
Q

How does systole/diastole affect the CSF?

A

Contains CSF - a pulsatile fluid
In systole CSF is forced into the spinal cord
In diastole CSF is pushed back into the ventricular system

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146
Q

What is the corona radiata?

A

A white matter sheet that continues ventrally as the internal capsule and dorsally as the centrum semiovale. This sheet of both ascending and descending axons carries most of the neural traffic from and to the cerebral cortex.

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147
Q

What are the cisterns of the subarachnoid?

A

Compartments within the subarachnoid space where the pia mater and arachnoid membrane are not in close approximation and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) forms pools

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148
Q

What is the cisterna magna?

A

Located between the cerebellum and the dorsal surface of the medulla oblongata at and above the level of the foramen magnum. CSF produced in the ventricular system drains into the cisterna magna from the fourth ventricle via the median aperture (of Magendie) and the lateral apertures (of Luschka)

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149
Q

What is the insular cortex?

A

A portion of the cerebral cortex folded deep within the lateral sulcus (the fissure separating the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobes).
Folded within itself.

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150
Q

What is Psychological stress?

A

Mental or emotional strain or tension resulting from adverse or demanding circumstances.

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151
Q

What is Physiological stress?

A

Sensory, emotional and subjective experience associated with potential damage of body tissue and bodily threat.

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152
Q

Can psychological and physiological stress be separated?

A

Difficult to separate in practice as the mind/body dichotomy is false: ‘experiences’ and ‘perceptions’ may not be conscious – we may not be completely aware of the emotional stress response.

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153
Q

What is eustress?

A

Positive stress which is beneficial and motivating; typically the experience of striving for a goal which is within reach. Eustress is motivating. “I can do that”

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154
Q

What is distress?

A

Negative stress which is damaging and harmful. Typically occurs when a challenge (or threat) is not resolved by coping or adaptation. “I don’t think I can manage that”

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155
Q

What determines whether something is eustress or distress?

A

Type of stressor less important than how it is experienced, ie negative (threat) or positive (challenge), and how bearable.

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156
Q

What is the trajectory for good and bad stress?

A

Good stress increases motivation and leads to increasing attention and interest.
Reaches at peak at optimal arousal and interest.
When a threat is acute and sudden or if it’s going on for a long time (unresolved), it becomes bad stress and we are less able and less effective - impaired performance because of anxiety.
Different kinds of stresses will have different trajectories.
Different people will move along at different rate – how quickly people become overwhelmed.

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157
Q

What are the features of distress/psychological stress?

A

“Any uncomfortable emotional experience accompanied by predictable biochemical, physiological and behavioral changes.”
“Psychological and physical responses that occurs whenever we must adapt to changing conditions, whether those conditions be real or perceived, positive or negative.
Psychological stress occurs when an individual perceives that environmental demands tax or exceed his or her adaptive capacity”

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158
Q

What is acute stress?

A

Short-lived response to a novel situation experienced by the body as a danger (usually without conscious processing). Healthy & adaptive.
e.g. noise, short-term danger, brief illness, brief physiological challenge

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159
Q

What is chronic stress?

A

Arises from repeated or continued exposure to threatening or dangerous situations, especially those that cannot be controlled.

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160
Q

Give some examples of chronic stressors?

A

Physical illness, disability & pain
Physical or sexual abuse
Poverty including poor housing, hunger, cold or damp, debt
Unemployment
Bullying or discrimination – social exclusion
Caregiving

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161
Q

What are the stages of the stress response?

A

Alarm - Threat or stressor identified or realised; body’s response is state of alarm
Adaptation – stress goes on for a while and body engages defensive countermeasures
Exhaustion - body runs out of defences, resources depleted (can lead to illness as a result)

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162
Q

What are the 5 elements of the human stress response?

A
Biochemical 
Physiological
Behavioural 
Cognitive
Emotional
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163
Q

What mediated the human stress response?

A

Stress responses are primarily mediated via the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic-adrenal-medullary (SAM) system) & the hypothalamo-pituitary (HPA) axis.

These responses lead to changes that influence future responses to stress, also reflecting brain plasticity – connections alter over time. We can develop responses specific to us. Influenced very early in life (parental care).

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164
Q

How is stress mediated by the sympathomedullary pathway?

A

Hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla
Adrenal medulla (controlled by the ANS) releases adrenaline and noradrenaline into the bloodstream
Body prepares for fight or flight
Adrenaline and noradrenaline reinforces the pattern of sympathetic activation e.g. increased heart rate and blood pressure
Energy to the muscles

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165
Q

How is stress mediated by the pituitary-adrenal system?

A

Higher brain centres activate hypothalamus
Hypothalamus releases corticotrophin (CSF)
Pituitary gland releases adrenocorticotrophic (ACTH)
Adrenal cortex releases corticosteroids
Corticosteroids cause changes - liver releases energy and the immune system is suppressed.

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166
Q

What hormones are involved in stress?

A

Glucocorticoids (cortisol) – main stress hormone
Catecholamines (adrenaline & noradrenaline)
The so-called ‘fight-or-flight’ chemicals

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167
Q

What happens to the immune system in stress?

A

Inflammation and immune response are important but complex.
Acute stress: immune suppression
Chronic stress: partial immune suppression + low-grade chronic inflammatory response

Potential effects on gene expression

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168
Q

What are the physiological stress responses?

A

Breathing more rapid to increase oxygen
Blood flow increases by up to 400% & directed to heart and muscles
Increased heart rate & blood pressure
Muscles tense
Glucose released, insulin levels fall: boost energy to muscles
Red blood cells discharged from the spleen
Mouth becomes dry (saliva and mucus dry up)
Sweating
White blood cell redistributed where injury may occur i.e. bone marrow, skin, lymph nodes; less available elsewhere

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169
Q

What are some of the physiological stress responses that occur later?

A
Headache
Chest pain
Stomach ache
Musculoskeletal pain
Low energy
Loss of libido
More prone to colds & infections (immunosuppression)
Cold hands & feet
Clenched jaw & grinding teeth
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170
Q

What are some of the behavioural responses to stress?

A
Easily startled & hypervigilant
Change in appetite – both directions
Weight gain (obesity) or weight loss 
Procrastinating and avoiding responsibilities
Increased use of alcohol, drugs & smoking
Nail biting, fidgeting and pacing
Sleep disturbances especially insomnia
Withdrawal
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171
Q

What are some of the cognitive responses to stress?

A
Constant worrying
Racing thoughts
Forgetfulness and disorganisation
Inability to focus
Poor judgement
Being pessimistic or seeing only the negative side ‘what if’
Learning
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172
Q

What are some of the emotional responses to stress?

A
Depression & sadness
Tearfulness
Mood swings 
Irritability
Restlessness
Aggression
Low self-esteem and worthlessness
Boredom & apathy
Feeling overwhelmed
Rumination, anticipation & avoidance – triggering memories of previous experiences
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173
Q

How does stress affect us?

A

Different parts of the brain mediate responses to different types of stressor (but amygdala and hippocampus are key).
Context, appraisal, vulnerability and learning (past experience) may modify perception of threat and hence the stress response. For example, people who experience adversity in early life are more sensitive to stress later on.
Stress mechanisms alter affect (mood, anxiety levels). This is likely to mediate the effects of stress on other bodily systems.

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174
Q

What is allostasis?

A

Allostasis refers to how multiple & complex systems adapt collectively (e.g. via ANS and HPA axis) in changing environments through dynamic change.
Allostatic states are inherently fragile and decompensation can happen quickly (positive feedback loops).

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175
Q

What is allostatic load?

A

Allostatic load refers to cumulative exposure to stressors (and cost to the body of allostasis), which if unrelieved leads to systems ‘wearing out’.

The body’s continued attempts to restore balance take a long-term toll on physiological systems, including plastic changes to the brain itself.

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176
Q

How does anticipation of stress and recovery from stress vary between different people?

A

For some people, because of their repeated exposure, they have a particular fine-tuning to stress, so the physiological response will be quicker, more extreme, and longer lasting. The point at which you return to baseline may also be different for people (taking longer to recover).

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177
Q

What’s the link between stress and illness?

A

Stress thought to be related to a host of illnesses, esp of cardiovascular and GI systems, ie those with strong ANS connections.

Stress undoubtedly exacerbates physical illnesses and slows recovery.

Strong evidence of association between depression and mortality following an MI.

But the evidence of causal association between stress and physical illness is still limited.

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178
Q

Give some examples of illnesses that may be linked to stress?

A

Cancer: stress linked to survival rather than incidence
Cardiovascular disease: high blood pressure, abnormal heart rhythms, MI and stroke
Obesity & eating disorders
Infertility, recurrent miscarriage & menstrual problems
Sexual dysfunction
Rheumatoid arthritis
Skin & hair problems eg acne, psoriasis, eczema
Gastrointestinal problems: inflammatory bowel disease, irritable bowel syndrome.
Medically unexplained symptoms (MUS)

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179
Q

How does PSTD present?

A
Vivid flashbacks & nightmares
Intrusive thoughts and images
Sweating
Nausea
Trembling
Hypervigilance & increased startle response
Agoraphobia
Insomnia
Irritability
Impaired concentration
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180
Q

What helps manage stress?

A
Shiatsu, T'ai Chi, Yoga
Mindfulness
Meditation
Exercise
Sleep hygiene
Friends and family
Healthy diet
Exposure to natural environments
Aromatherapy
Self help support
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
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181
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype.

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182
Q

What is fitness?

A

How successful a organism at reproducing

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183
Q

What is sexual selection?

A

Competition for mates

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184
Q

What is Darwin’s theory of evolution?

A

More offspring are produced than can possibly survive.
Traits vary among individuals with respect to morphology, physiology and behaviour (phenotypic variation).
Different traits confer different rates of survival and reproduction (differential fitness in a given environment).
Traits can be passed from generation to generation (heritability of fitness).

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185
Q

What is evolutionary psychiatry?

A

EP considers the human social brain evolution. It proposes that some human psychiatric mechanisms, defences and traits, are consequences of adaptations to reproductive problems frequently encountered in Pleistocene environments (known as the Environment of Evolutionary Adaptation (EEA)).
Proposes theories to account for the widespread existence of substance misuse, borderline states and schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, the dementias and affective disorders as well as other defences, childhood and neurodevelopmental disorders

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186
Q

What are Tinbergen’s questions?

A
  1. Mechanism – how does this behaviour occur in an individual?
  2. Development – how does this behaviour arise in an individual?
  3. Evolution – how does this behaviour arise in the species?
  4. Adaptive value – why is this behaviour adaptive for the species?
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187
Q

What are the two types of causation?

A

Proximate causation – how? By what mechanism?
Answers would lie in biochemistry, anatomy, neuroscience, physiology

Ultimate causation – Why was trait selected for?

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188
Q

How does evolution help explain our disease vulnerability?

A

Mismatch: exposure to evolutionarily mismatched or novel environment e.g culture, alcohol, drugs and diet
Life History factors: e.g. reproduction, ageing, menopause, senescence
Excessive defence mechanisms
Co-evolutionary considerations: losing the arms race against pathogens e.g. HIV, parasites, antibiotic resistance
Constraints: imposed by evolutionary history e.g. eyes, backache and brain size

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189
Q

How does evolution help explain our defence mechanisms against disease?

A
Evolution has selected adaptations (defence mechanisms) that help protect against injuries and infections
Pain, sickness, illness behaviour
Anxiety, depression, OCD
Fever, lethargy, fatigue
Nausea
Itching
Sneezing, vomiting, coughing
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190
Q

What is Dunbar’s number?

A

Cognitive limit to the number of people with whom one can maintain stable social relationships

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191
Q

What is the Outgroup Intolerance Hypothesis in schizophrenia?

A

The social brain evolved to deal with the demands of living in hunter-gatherer environments surrounded by kin with a clear delineation between ingroup and outgroup members.
New social systems emerged blurring the demarcation between ingroup and outgroups eg towns and cities.
Led to a mismatch between the design of the social brain and the novel social environment.
Stress caused by this mismatch is what leads to schizophrenia in genetically vulnerable individuals.

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192
Q

What is the Compassion Focused Therapy?

A

Therapy rooted in evolutionary and neuroscience approach to psychological processes.
Our brains are designed to function in certain ways, motives, emotions are products of evolution.
3 types of emotion regulation system:
- Threat and protection
- Drive and excitement
- Contentment, soothing and social safeness
Compassion focused therapy aimed at facilitating development of soothing and social safeness system

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193
Q

What are the components of the outer ear?

A

PINNA - cartilaginous structure
Formed from pharyngeal arches 1 and 2 (6 Hillocks of His)
Forms between 10th and 18th week in utero
Directs soundwaves towards ear canal
High pitch > Low pitch
AUDITORY CANAL - ⅓ cartilage and ⅔ bone
Transmits sound from the pinna to the ear drum
TYMPANIC MEMBRANE
A connective tissue structure, covered with skin on the outside and a mucous membrane on the inside.
Pars flaccida - from endoderm and ectoderm
Pars tensa - fibrous layer runs through (from mesoderm)

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194
Q

What are the components of the middle ear?

A

The bones of the middle ear are the auditory ossicles – the malleus, incus and stapes. Sound vibrations cause a movement in the tympanic membrane creating oscillation in the auditory ossicles, transmitting sound.
MALLEUS: attaches to the tympanic membrane, via the handle of malleus and then articulates with the incus.
INCUS: consists of a body and two limbs, articulates with the malleus and stapes.
STAPES: It joins the incus to the oval window of the inner ear.

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195
Q

What is the role of the middle ear?

A

Acoustic impedance match between air and fluid-filled inner ear
Transfer from air to fluid (99.9% loss of energy)
Little movement at the tympanic membrane should translate into a big movement to the stapes footplate due to the ratio area and angle
Amplification of the airborne sound vibration - 200 fold increase boost in pressure from tympanic membrane to inner ear

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196
Q

What are the components of the inner ear?

A

VESTIBULE: separated from the middle ear by the oval window, and communicates anteriorly with the cochlea and posterioly with the semi-circular canals. Contains saccule and urtricle.
COCHLEA: houses the cochlea duct which twists upon itself around a central portion of bone called the modiolus, producing a cone shape.
SCALA VESTIBULI: Located superiorly to the cochlear duct, continuous with the vestibule
SCALA TYMPANI: Located inferiorly to the cochlear duct. Terminates at the round window.
SEMICIRCULAR CANALS: contain the semi-circular ducts, which are responsible for balance (along with the utricle and saccule).
SACCULE: larger of the two, receiving the three semi-circular ducts.
UTRICLE: globular in shape and receives the cochlear duct.

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197
Q

What is the role of the inner ear?

A

To convert mechanical signals from the middle ear into electrical signals, which can transfer information to the auditory pathway in the brain.
To maintain balance by detecting position and motion.

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198
Q

What are the cochlear fluids?

A

Endolymph - fills scala media, high K
Perilymph - fills scala tympani and scala vestibuli, like ECF and CSF, Na rich
Gradients maintained by Na-K ATPase, NKCC1, CIC-K chlorine channels
Channel abnormalities can lead to deafness

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199
Q

What does the helicotrema do?

A

A semilunar opening at the apex of the cochlea through which the fluid in the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani communicate so that sound vibrations can pass to the round window.

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200
Q

How does displacement of the basilar membrane cause a action potential to occur?

A

Displacement of the basilar membrane causes movement of specialised mechanical transducing cells.
- Inner hair cells - mechanical transduction (stimulation of the auditory nerve)
- Outer hair cells - fine tuning (differentiate specific sounds)
As the hair cells are displaced (via stereocilia), the membrane is depolarised due to mechanically gated K channels. Depolarization results in opening of voltage gated Ca channels.
Release of neurotransmitters - glutamate (and others)
Repolarisation through K efflux (into K poor perilymph)

201
Q

What is the basilar membrane?

A

It runs the entire length of the cochlear.
It is narrow at the base, wide at the apex.
Stiff at the base, floppy at the apex.
High frequencies are detected at the base, low frequencies are detected at the apex.

202
Q

How is sound information encoded?

A

Sound analysed to encode in formation for neural transmission.
Frequency (pitch) - encoded in nerves by location along the basilar membrane

203
Q

Why is the brainstem important in hearing?

A

Brainstem is really important for sound localisation - when does sound hit the left ear, when does sound hit the right ear and what is the temporal difference between them, giving indication of the location of the sound.

204
Q

What do medial olive neurons do?

A

Medial olive neurons are coincident detectors - they respond only when excitatory signals arrive simultaneously. Anatomical differences in connectivity allow each MSO neuron to be sensitive to sound source from particular location.

Sound reach left ear first - action potential begins travelling to medial olive
Sound reaches right ear a little later - action potential begins travelling to medial olive

205
Q

What are the two types of hearing loss?

A

Conductive - damage or a blockage in the outer and/or middle ear. This can result in sound not being conducted adequately through the ear canal to the eardrum, or from the eardrum via the ossicles of the middle ear to the inner ear.
Sensorineural - damage or malfunction of the hair cells in the cochlear. Sensorineural hearing loss is the most common type of permanent hearing loss.

206
Q

How can conductive hearing loss be treated?

A

Treatment depends on the cause
AIMS:
- Improve conduction
- Improve amplification
Can bypass the conductive mechanisms - vibrate the skull, vibrations go straight to the cochlear.
Can use a bone-conduction hearing aid, or a surgically implanted, osseointegrated device or a conventional hearing aid.

207
Q

How can sensorineural hearing loss be treated?

A

Typically treated with hearing aids or cochlear implants, which work with a person’s remaining sense of hearing to amplify sounds
An auditory brainstem implant can stimulate the cochlear nucleus directly.

208
Q

How do different retinal ganglion cells contribute to chromatic sensitivity and spatial summation?

A

Parvocellular RGCs: Low-contrast, High linear spatial resolution
Koniocellular RGCs: Blue-yellow colour opponency
Magnocellular RGCs: High-contrast, Low-resolution, Motion detection, Colour blind

209
Q

What is retinal encoding?

A

The retina is a thin layer of neural tissue that lines the eye. After the retinal image is encoded by the photoreceptors, neurons within the retina transform the photoreceptor signals into a new representation that is carried by the optic nerve to a variety of locations in the brain.

210
Q

Why do we need the optic chiasm?

A

Functionally (and teleologically) two eyes are better than one for the exploration of the environment and for panoramic defence.
A mechanism for the purpose of fusing the images of the two eyes and preventing double vision.

211
Q

How is the visual scene processed anatomically?

A

Different attributes of the visual scene are processed simultaneously, in parallel, but in anatomically separate parts of the visual cortex.

Everything is back to front and upside down from the eye, this information is corrected in the brain.

  • Dorsal stream (where pathway)
  • Ventral stream (what pathway)
212
Q

How does the brain understand depth perception?

A

Brain uses cues to perceive relative size and position of objects:

  • Familiar size: Judge distance if know the size of an object
  • Occlusion: If an object is partially occluding another we presume it is in front
  • Linear perspective: Parallel lines converge with distance - convergence implies depth
  • Size perspective: The smaller object will be assumed to be more distant
  • Distribution of shadows and illumination: Patterns of light and dark can give the impression of depth
  • Motion parallax: As we move, objects closer than the object we are looking at seem to move quickly and in the direction opposite to our own movement, whereas more distant objects move more slowly and in the same direction as our movement.
213
Q

Why do we move our eyes?

A

Clear vision of an object requires that its image be held steadily on the retina
Best vision is possible when the image lies on the fovea
Eye movements evolved to aid vision

214
Q

What are the different types of eye movement?

A
  • Vestibular: hold images steady on retina during brief head rotations/translations
  • Visual fixation: Holds the image of a stationary object on the fovea by minimizing ocular drifts
  • Optokinetic: Holds images of the seen world steady on the retina during sustained head rotation
  • Smooth pursuit: Holds the image of a small moving target on the fovea; or holds the image of a small near target on the retina during linear self- motion
  • Nystagmus quick phases: Reset the eyes during prolonged rotation and direct gaze towards the oncoming visual scene
  • Saccades: Bring images of objects of interest onto the fovea
  • Vergence: Moves the eyes in opposite directions so that images of a single object are placed or held simultaneously on the fovea of each eye
215
Q

What cortical areas are involved in eye movements?

A

Primary visual cortex (V1) is the gateway for eye movements:
Without it, humans cannot make accurate visually guided eye movements
Patients with lesions affecting Middle temporal visual area (V5/MT) report akinetopsia (loss of motion vision) and show impaired saccades and pursuit to targets moving in the contralateral visual hemifield.

216
Q

What are the different types of saccades?

A
  • Spontaneous saccade: 20/min, visual scan of the environment
  • Reflexive or non-volitional saccades: short reaction times to new visual, auditory, or tactile cues
  • Voluntary (intentional or volitional) saccades carry the eyes to a predetermined location corresponding to the position of a visual target or sound
    Saccades can be voluntarily suppressed to maintain steady foveal fixation.
217
Q

What is the Frontal Eye Field involved in?

A

Generating voluntary saccades
Suppression of saccades during steady fixation
Subregions of the FEF concerned with vergence and smooth pursuit
FEF is involved in triggering of the memory-guided saccade, possibly with a contribution from the parietal lobe (PEF)

218
Q

What do Supplementary eye fields do?

A

Guide saccades during complex tasks - Sequences of movements and responses when the instructional set changes
Also contribute to predictive smooth pursuit
The SEF seems to play an important role in shifting from a more automatic to volitional behaviour.

219
Q

What is the function of the pursuit system?

A

Smooth pursuit eye movements allow the eyes to closely follow a moving object.

220
Q

What is the vestibulo-ocular reflex?

A

A reflex, where activation of the vestibular system of the inner ear causes eye movement. This reflex functions to stabilize images on the retinas (when gaze is held steady on a location) during head movement by producing eye movements in the direction opposite to head movement, thus preserving the image on the center of the visual field.

221
Q

What is involved the maintaining smooth pursuit in the eyes?

A

Parietal cortex enhances attention on the moving target
Frontal Eye Field contributes to initiation and maintenance of smooth pursuit.
Projections descend to the brainstem and subsequently to the flocculus, paraflocculus, and vermis of the cerebellum.
The flocculus projects to the ipsilateral medial vestibular nuclus, which, in turn, project to the abducens nucleus.
Upward vertical smooth pursuit mediated by the y-group - a small cell group that caps the inferior cerebellar peduncle and downward via the superior vestibular nucleus.

222
Q

What are the muscles that move the eye ball?

A

Lateral rectus
Medial rectus
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus

You would assume that you would be able to move the eye in any direction, however there are some errors/abnormal movements that need to be corrected by the obliques.

Superior oblique
Inferior oblique

223
Q

What is the Levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Fixed to the superior rectus.
Inserted onto the upper eye lid
Supplied by the oculomotor nerve

Facial nerve supply
Sympathetic nerve supply

Loss of function - Ptosis (drooping or falling of the upper eyelid)

224
Q

What are the actions of the four recti muscles?

A

Lateral rectus – pulls the eye laterally (abduction)
Medial rectus – pulls the eye medially (adduction)
Superior rectus – pulls the eye up and medially and rotates it
Inferior rectus – pulls the eye down and medially and rotates it

225
Q

Why does the superior and inferior recti also rotate the eye?

A

The superior rectus runs slightly medially, it is not straight.
The pull of superior rectus does not pull through the centre of axis of the eye.
When it contracts, the eye lifts up but you also get a little bit of rotation of the eye (intorsion).
Same is the case for the inferior rectus to give rotation of the eye (extortion).

226
Q

How do the obliques correct the rotation of the superior and inferior recti?

A

Inferior rectus gives a degree of extortion but the superior oblique acts to cause intortion, so they cancel each other out enabling the eye to remain upright.
Superior rectus gives a degree of intorsion but the inferior oblique causes extorsion, so they cancel each other out enabling the eye to remain upright.

227
Q

Where must the patient be in order to examine their eye movement?

A

Directly in front
Eyes at the same level
2 arms lengths apart – almost at optic infinity (eyes parallel at the horizon into infinity)
Test peripheral vision

228
Q

How would you examine right eye movements (lateral and medial rectus)?

A

Both lateral and medial rectus have a ‘isolated’ action – an action which does not rely on any other muscle; so we test these first

Sit in front of the patient. Place a finger at eye level about an arms length from their face and move your finger right and left.
Do this twice, once whilst observing the left eye and once whilst observing the right eye.

229
Q

How would you examine right eye movements (lateral and medial rectus)?

A

Both superior and inferior rectus can have a ‘isolated’ action, which does not rely on any other muscle, by getting the patient to look 23 degrees to the side

Sit in front of the patient. Place a finger at eye level about an arms length from their face and out to the right side move your finger up and down.
Repeat this on the left side.

230
Q

How would you examine right eye movements (superior and inferior oblique)?

A

Both inferior and superior oblique cannot ever have a ‘isolated’ action so we position the eye so that superior and inferior RECTI are giving maximal rotation and look for complete correction

Sit in front of the patient. Place a finger at eye level about an arms length from their face and out to the left side move your finger up and down.
Repeat this on the right side.

231
Q

What is the function of the semicircular canals?

A

The semicircular canals are full of endolymph (lower protein than lymph, doesn’t clot).
The endolymph responds to the movement of the head to maintain it at a steady level.
This movement distorts the cupula and neuronal impulse generated.

232
Q

What causes someone to experience dizziness?

A

Dizziness occurs when the semi-circular canals send signals to the brain when there is no movement.
Can be physiological or pathological.

233
Q

Why do patients experience dizziness in labyrinthitis?

A

Inflammation of the ‘hair cells’ often due to viral infection means that the brain sends off a signal when there is no movement, giving the feeling of constant dizziness.

234
Q

What are the physiological effects of induced dizziness?

A

Body tries to twist to compensate - person falls over

Eyes also try to compensate by moving back and forward (nystagmus)

235
Q

How would you test the vestibulo-ocular reflex?

A

Put ice cold water into the patient’s ear canal
This will cool the bone and horizontal canal
This will consequently cause a convection current to form which will send a signal to the brain.
In a normal vestibulo-ocular reflex, the eyes will slowly move towards the direction of the cold water then jump back to normal position.
This is an important test for head injury patients.

236
Q

What are the two types of nerves that make up the peripheral nerve system?

A

Cranial nerves (I-XII) - Twelve pairs of nerves attached directly to the brain
Spinal nerves - A series of (32) paired nerves attached to the spinal cord, one pair for every vertebra (plus one);
Cervical 1-8, thoracic 1-12, lumbar 1-5, sacral 1-5, coccygeal.

237
Q

What types of information do cranial nerves carry?

A

Sensory
Somatic; general sensations
Special sensations
Autonomic sensations

Motor
Somatic and Branchial, for skeletal muscle
Autonomic, for smooth muscle and glands

238
Q

How can we remember which kind of information each cranial nerve carries?

A

Some say money matters but my brother says big brains matter more.
Cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X also have parasympathetic info.

239
Q

What is the function and route of cranial nerve I?

A

Sense of smell (special sense)
Sensory cells synapse with a neuron which sends its axons through the cribriform plate, run along the olfactory tract towards the Entorhinal cortex in the temporal lobe.

240
Q

How would you test the olfactory nerve?

A

Not commonly tested

Test with certain smells that you know the patient will recognise

241
Q

What can damage the olfactory nerve?

A

Olfactory groove meningioma (benign tumour that causes problems because it compresses things)
Parkinson’s
Epilepsy
Trauma - fine fibres which are prone to traumatic damage through sudden deceleration causing a shearing force

242
Q

What is the function and route of cranial nerve II?

A

Vision (special sense)
Runs through the optic canal
Complex pathway to the occipital canal
Surrounded by the dura, subarachnoid and pia mater for protection.

243
Q

How does the cross-over of visual pathways work?

A

The lens will invert the image so an image from left hand side will fall on the right hand side of the retina and vice versa.
Images from the nasal visual field will cross over to the opposite side of the brain, but images from the temporal visual field remain on the same side of the brain.

244
Q

How would you test the optic nerve?

A
Remember you are testing pathways!
Visual fields - H
Visual acuity - eye chart
Pupil reflexes - looking at light, accommodation and relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD)
Fundoscopy - shining light in the eye
245
Q

What are some common pupillary problems?

A

Syphilis: pupil is accommodating (adjusting to close and far) but slow to react
Horner’s syndrome – don’t have sympathetic anymore, so parasympathetic innervation takes over
Holmes-Adie “tonic” pupil – unequally sized pupils
Physiological anisocoria – pupils are unequal but can still respond to the light

246
Q

How will an optic nerve lesion affect the pupil?

A

If the light signal is not reaching the brain, it will be more dilated than normal (no feedback loop to stop over-dilation).

247
Q

Which nerves control which eye muscles?

A
Cranial nerve III, occulomotor;
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Medial rectus
Inferior oblique
Parasympathetic to the pupil and to focus the lens

Cranial nerve IV, trochlear; superior oblique

Cranial nerve VI, Abducens; lateral rectus

248
Q

What is the route of cranial nerve III?

A

Exits midbrain near Posterior cerebral arteries, passes alongside cavernous sinus, through superior orbital fissure, and branches into two.

249
Q

What is the route of cranial nerve IV?

A

Exits midbrain dorsally. Passes round to the front, near Posterior cerebral arteries, passes alongside cavernous sinus, through superior orbital fissure.

250
Q

What is the route of cranial nerve VI?

A

Exits between the pons and medulla, passes from the posterior to middle cranial fossa, passes alongside cavernous sinus, through superior orbital fissure.

251
Q

How do problems with cranial nerves III, IV, VI present?

A

Damage to CNIII - Eye abducted (lateral rectus) and looks down and rotated (superior oblique). Often will be accompanied with changes in the pupil (larger).
Damage to CNIV - Damage -Double vision (rotated) when looking down (the stairs!). One of their eyes is abnormally rotated (superior oblique problems), so the brain corrects this by tilting their head.
Damage to CNVI - Eye will not look laterally

252
Q

What is the function of CNV?

A

Trigeminal nerve
Sensation to the face and mouth
Muscles of mastication

253
Q

What is the route of CNV?

A

Exits from pons, passes directly into Meckle’s cave where it divides into three:
Opthalmic branch passes through superior orbital fissure
Maxillary branch; foramen rotundum
Mandibular branch; foramen ovale.
Sensory roots- trigeminal sensory nuclei- thalamus- cortex

254
Q

What do each of the trigeminal branches account for on the face?

A

Ophthalmic division – includes forehead, around the eye, the sclera and runs down the nose
Maxillary – from the corner of the eye to the corner of the mouth and up the side of the temple, roof of mouth and all upper teeth
Mandibular – floor of mouth, lower jaw, all the muscles attached to the mandible (muscles of mastication – test by clenching teeth)

255
Q

What are the central trigeminal pathways?

A
3 sensory nuclei:
- Mesencephalic (jaw jerk)
- Main (touch and position from face)
- Spinal (pain and temp from face)
1 motor nucleus
256
Q

How would you test the trigeminal nerve?

A

Sensation to face

Muscles of the jaw - open your mouth, clench your teeth

257
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Cell bodies send signals to the brain when there is no sensation which the brain interprets as pain.

258
Q

What is the function of the facial nerve?

A

Skeletal muscle; muscles of facial expression and stapedius – always have one of their ends attached to skin
Visceral motor (parasympathetic): lacrimal gland and submandibular and sublingual salivary glands,
Special sense: taste buds of the anterior two thirds of the tongue.

259
Q

What is the cortical control of the facial nerve?

A

There is contralateral innervation of the lower face - right side of the brain is supplying the left side of the face and vice versa.
Bilateral innervation of the upper face giving forehead sparing – both sides of the brain supply both sides of the forehead (evolutionary advantage for the upper part of the face – if we damage the facial nerve in the cortex, the eyes can still open, as the healthy side can still supply the forehead).

260
Q

How would you examine the motor function of the facial nerve?

A
Inspect the face at rest for any weakness or asymmetry 
flattening of the nasolabial folds and drooping of the 
lower eyelid
- smile
- raise the eyebrows 
- puff out the cheeks
- shut the eyes tightly
- frown
261
Q

How would you examine the sensory function of the facial nerve?

A

Touch the lateral aspect of the tongue with cocktail stick (sugar, salt, or vinegar) then ask the patient to identify the taste.

262
Q

What effects will damage to the facial nerve have?

A

Damage distal to the stylomastoid foramen will cause a loss of movement.
Damage to the nerve within the facial canal will cause loss of movement, loss taste of anterior 2/3 of the tongue and will have a dry mouth (lack of innervation of glands).
Damage to the nerve within the internal auditory meatus will have all of the above and a dry lacrimal gland.

263
Q

What are some of the common causes of facial palsy?

A

Idiopathic Bell’s palsy is the commonest lesion of the facial nerve
Fractures of the petrous bone
Middle ear infections
Tumours in the cerebellopontine angle (CPA) (e.g., the vestibular schwannoma)
Inflammation of the parotid gland
Tumours of the parotid gland

264
Q

What is the function of cranial nerve VIII?

A

The vestibulocochlear nerve conducts auditory and vestibular-related impulses from the organ of Corti, the semicircular canals, the utricle, and the saccule.

265
Q

What tests would you use to examine the function of CNVIII?

A

Cochlear: Test hearing by whispering a number into the patient’s ears, by using a tuning fork or more complex equipment (Rinne and Weber tests)
Vestibular: Difficult to test – stand on one leg with your eyes closed

266
Q

What can cause damage to the CNVIII?

A

Basal skull fractures
Toxic drug effects e.g. gentamycin
Ear infections
Vestibular schwannoma (frequently impairs the facial nerve as well)

267
Q

What is the route of the glossophrangeal nerve?

A

The glossopharyngeal nerve emerges from the lateral sulcus of the medulla and exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the vagus and accessory nerves.

268
Q

What is the function of CNIX?

A
  • Somatic sensory: elevate the pharynx using stylopharyngeus muscle
  • Visceral motor: parotid gland secretion
  • Somatic sensory: somatic sensation of the skin of the external ear
  • Visceral sensory: Touch, pain, and temperature in the posterior third of the tongue, the pharynx, and the eustachian tube. Baro and chemoreception in the carotid sinus and carotid body
  • Special sensory: Taste buds in the posterior third of the tongue
269
Q

What is the test for CNIX and CNX?

A

Observe the quality of the patient’s voice:
- hoarseness is a sign of vocal cord paralysis
- nasal voice is a sign of paralysis of the palate
Ask the patient to say “ah” and observe the elevation of the palate
- bilateral lesions of the vagus nerve the => palate fails to rise
- unilateral paralysis => both the palate and the uvula deviate to the normal side
Gag reflex
Absence of the gag reflex suggests a lesion in the glossopharyngeal or vagus nerves

270
Q

What is the route of CNX?

A

The vagus nerve emerges from the medulla to exit the skull through the jugular foramen, accompanied by the glossopharyngeal and accessory nerves.

271
Q

What is the function of CNX?

A
  • Somatic motor: swallowing and speech (use of muscles of the pharynx and larynx)
  • Visceral motor: Autonomic effect on viscera of the thoracic and abdominal cavities
  • Somatic sensory: Somatic sensation of external ear
  • Visceral sensory: visceral sensation of pharynx and larynx, the aortic arch and body, and the thoracic and abdominal viscera
  • Special sensory: taste in posterior pharynx and epiglottis
272
Q

How would a unilateral lesion of the nucleus ambigus present?

A

Unilateral lesions of the nucleus ambigus cause hoarseness, dysphagia, tachycardia, and deviation of the uvula to the side opposite the lesion.

273
Q

What is the function of the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle (which is supplied by the superior laryngeal nerve). Compression or damage to the recurrent nerve causes
hoarseness secondary to paralysis of the vocal cords.

274
Q

What is the function of CNXI?

A

The accessory nerve supplies the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

275
Q

What is the route of CNXI?

A

The cell bodies of the nerve are situated in the ventral horn of the upper five segments of the spinal cord.

They send fibres up through the foramen magnum, which then exit the skull with cranial nerves IX and X through the jugular foramen.

276
Q

How would you examine CNXI?

A

Trapezius: Inspect from the back and front and ask the patient to shrug the shoulders.
Sternocleidomastoid: Inspect the neck as the patient turns the head against resistance.

277
Q

What is the function of CNXII?

A

The hypoglossal nerve supplies the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

278
Q

What is the route of CNXII?

A

Its cell bodies are located in the hypoglossal nucleus, which lies between the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus and the midline of the medulla.

It exits the skull through the hypoglossal canal.

279
Q

How would you examine CNXII?

A

Ask the patient to protrude the tongue
Atrophy and fibrillations are the hallmarks of the lower motor neuron lesion, which results in tongue deviation to the weakened side.

280
Q

What is Cerebellopontine Angle Syndrome?

A

This syndrome is due to a mass in the Cerebellopontine.
This is most commonly a vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma) and less commonly a meningioma.

The syndrome has the following signs and symptoms:
Progressive sensorineural hearing loss
Tinnitus
Dizziness
Unsteadiness
Facial nerve palsy
Facial pain and sensory loss and depressed corneal reflex

281
Q

What is Jugular Foramen Syndrome (Vernet’s Syndrome)?

A

Vernet’s syndrome is due to a lesion in the jugular foramen, most commonly a glomus jugulare tumor.

It has the following signs and symptoms:
Loss of taste sensation in the posterior third of the tongue (due to involvement of the glossopharyngeal nerve)
Paralysis of vocal cords and palate, anesthesia of larynx and pharynx (due to involvement of the vagus nerve)
Ipsilateral trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscle weakness and atrophy (due to involvement of the accessory nerve)

282
Q

What is pain?

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage or described in terms of such damage.

283
Q

What are the different types of pain?

A

Nociceptive pain - pain that arises from actual or threatened damage to non-neural tissue and is due to the activation of nociceptors (protective mechanism)
Neuropathic pain - pain caused by a lesion or disease of the somatosensory nerve system e.g phantom limb pain, stroke
Nociplastic pain - pain that arises from altered nociception despite no clear evidence of actual or threatened tissue damage causing the activation of peripheral nociceptors or evidence for the disease or lesion of the somatosensory system causing the pain.

284
Q

What is Allodynia, Dysesthesia, Hyperalgesia, Hypoalgesia, Hypoesthesia?

A

Allodynia - pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain
Dysesthesia - an unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous or evoked e.g. touching a surgery scar
Hyperalgesia - increased pain from a stimulus that normally provokes pain e.g area around a burn
Hypoalgesia - diminished pain in response to a normally painful stimulus
Hypoesthesia - decreased sensitivity to stimulation, excluding the special senses

285
Q

What’s the difference between acute and chronic pain?

A

Acute pain - pain less than 12 weeks
Chronic pain - continuous pain lasting more than 12 weeks, pain that persists beyond that tissue healing time.
Can be divided into cancer and non-cancer chronic pain.

286
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

Nociceptors are sensory neurons that are found in any area of the body that can sense pain either externally or internally. This process (nociception) usually results in the perception of pain.
External: skin/cornea/mucosa
Internal: viscera/joints/muscles/connective tissue etc

The cell bodies of the these neurons reside in either:
Dorsal root ganglion (body)
Trigeminal

287
Q

What are some examples of neuropathic pain?

A
Trigeminal neuralgia
Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
Post Herpetic neuralgia
Painful diabetic neuropathy
Complex regional pain syndrome
288
Q

What is the pain pathway?

A

Site of injury
Activation of nociceptors - start firing
Afferent nerve fibre goes very quickly to the dorsal root ganglion
In the dorsal horn, it projects into the second neuron into a spinal thalamic tract
In the thalamus, it projects into the sensory cortex (awareness of injury)

289
Q

What is the dorsal root ganglion?

A
Present on the dorsal root (sensory)
Composed of cell bodies of nerve fibres that are sensory (afferent)
Pseudo-unipolar neurons
First order neurons
Can be the source of pain pathology
Trigeminal ganglion
290
Q

What is the thalamus?

A
Midline, paired symmetrical structure in the brain
Approx 6 X 3 cms long
All sensations (except olfactory) relay/pass through
291
Q

What is the insular cortex?

A

Plays a role in perception, motor control, self-awareness and interpersonal experience
May also play an important part in addiction
This is where the degree of pain (experienced or imagined)
Emotional response to the pain

292
Q

What happens in phantom limb pain?

A

Phantom limb pain - sensory cortex starts remapping the sensory homunculus, different areas then have greater representation than they normally would (e.g. scratching head causes pain in the absence limb)

293
Q

What is the Bio-psycho-social model of pain?

A

Biological: age, genger, genetics, physiologic reactions, tissue health
Sociological: interpersonal relationships, social support dynamics, socioeconomics
Psychological: mental health, emotional health, beliefs and expectations

294
Q

What are the drugs commonly used in pain management?

A

NSAIDs
Paracetamol
Opioids
Often use a multimodal approach

295
Q

What are the problems with using opioids long-term?

A

Tolerance (challenge in acute pain settings)
Immunosuppression
Deranged HPAxis
Opioid Induced Hyperalgesia (OIH) - make you more sensitive and prone to pain
No evidence for effective use of opioids in chronic pain

296
Q

What do you need to remember when you prescribe a patient opioids for chronic pain?

A

Only a small percentage of patients will benefit from opioid use but difficult to establish the group
Not recommended to give more than 120mg Morphine
If opioids need to be started encourage patient education, set the time limit, start on a small dose, slowly titrate

297
Q

What are the different types of pain in cancer?

A

Pain associated with direct tumour (tumour infiltration, bone metastases)
Pain associated with cancer therapy (chemo, surgery, radiation)
Pain unrelated to cancer (RA, OA, headache or herpes zoster)

298
Q

What are the symptoms of depression?

A
"Biological” symptoms
Poor sleep
Poor appetite
Reduced libido
Poor concentration
“Cognitive” symptoms
Worthlessness (poor self esteem)
Guilt
Hopelessness
Suicidal thoughts
299
Q

What are the key features of depression?

A

Low mood, anhedonia (loss of interest in things that were previously enjoyable), low energy

300
Q

What is the Stress vulnerability model?

A

Our ‘vulnerability’ can be genetic, or a result of early/prenatal experience
Early experience sets our neuroendocrinological thermostat - epigenetics

301
Q

How does depression affect the HPA axis?

A

Normally there is cortisol produced and then a negative feedback loop eventually switches off ongoing production of further cortisol.
People with depression show an increased level of circulating cortisol in response to stress, they also have enlarged adrenal and pituitary glands and unable to maintain efficient neg feedback.
Thought that this is due to reduced glucocorticoid receptor expression in the brain ‘glucocorticoid resistance’.

302
Q

What social aspects can cause reduced healthy function of HPA axis?

A

History of childhood maltreatment (with or without current MDD) -> ↑ACTH release in response to stress
Affectionate childhood causes increase in GR expression (higher ACTH suppression)
Lower social status associated with heavier adrenal glands, increased cortisol in hair and reduced dexamethasone suppression (in monkeys!)

303
Q

How does stress affect the brain?

A
Causes the release of steroids which have the following effects...
Neurotoxic
Cause neuro-vulnerability
Affect dendrite formation
Reduces neurogenesis
Cause changes to the EEG.

Particularly affects the frontal lobes and hippocampus.

304
Q

What areas in the frontal lobe can be affected by depression?

A

Medial PFC - Involved in evaluating emotional state and social cognition
Less volume loss in depression

Dorsolateral PFC - Invovled in working memory and problem solving
Large volume loss in depression

305
Q

How is the hippocampus affected in depression?

A

Reduced in size in MDD
More depressive episodes in the past - decreased size
Associates with learning based cognitive deficits
Much of the volume loss is irreversible

306
Q

What is the new theory of neurogenesis?

A

For most of the 20th Century we thought the adult brain was “fixed” with no new neurons.
Grow axons and dendrites, and integrate into existing networks

307
Q

How does stress affect neurogenesis and BDNF?

A

Restraint and shock stress causes reduced neurogenesis. Particularly when learned helplessness is induced.
‘Social dominance stress’ reduces the number of surviving new cells (same rate).
Increased stress, decreases BDNF

308
Q

How do antidepressants work?

A

All antidepressants boost serotonergic or noradrenergic effects
Take about 6 weeks to work – some clinical effect within a week
- Antidepressants increase GR expression (regulating HPA activity)
- Antidepressants increase neurogenesis
- They increase BDNF synthesis by affecting gene expression ∴ improve connectivity and increase number of synapses.

309
Q

What are the modern scanning techniques used to assess the brain?

A

Based on oxygen or glucose take up.
Look at functional connectivity
Spatially distinct areas of the brain showing similar activity at similar times (temporal pattern).
Allows the study of neural networks – considering the whole brain together.

310
Q

What is the default mode network?

A

It’s what comes on when there’s nothing to do (“resting state”)
Daydreaming, internal ‘flow’ of consciousness.

311
Q

What is the function of the default mode network?

A
  • Autobiographical details: The self’s place in time and space and projecting to other places in time and space
  • Self reference: Referring to traits or states and emotional and moral reasoning
  • Thinking about others: Theory of mind and Social judgements/evaluations
312
Q

How is the default mode network affected in depressives?

A

Depressed people find it hard to appropriately switch off their DMN in response to a task.
We already knew depressed people excessively ruminate – think about themselves, the past and the future excessively (loops of thought).

313
Q

How does mindfulness affect the default mode network?

A

Short (8 week) course of daily mindfulness practice reduces activity in the DMN and treats and prevents major depressive disorder.
Allows the patient to focus on breathing and be more aware of one’s mind.

314
Q

What are the five pillars of wellbeing seeking to combat depression?

A
Physical activity
Connect with others
Learn something new
Practice mindfulness
Acts of generosity
315
Q

How are memory and emotion interconnected?

A

Perceptions can induce emotions.
Auditory/olfactory stimuli can also induce certain memories or emotions.
Limbic system links perceptual areas into memory and emotion, and translates this into drive-related behaviour.
Evolutionary benefit: to avoid danger, pass genes on, establish social standing.

316
Q

What makes up the limbic system?

A

The amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, cingulate gyrus, mamillary bodies.

317
Q

What are the different types of memory?

A
  • Working memory
  • Long term memory
    Explicit memory - episodic (day-to-day diary) or semantic (knowledge about stuff)
    Implicit memory
    Skills/habits (cerebellum, basal ganglia) - motor
    routines (driving home)
    Conditioned reflexes (cerebellum, others)
    Emotional (amygdala)
318
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

To lay down new memories (loss leads to anterograde amnesia).
Hypothalamus nuclei are concerned with drive-related behaviours - hunger, thrist, sleep, sex. This is through direct neural connections to the brain and through the release of hormones (neuroendocrine) from the pituitary.

319
Q

What are the mamillary bodies?

A

Two tiny nuclei on the underside of the brain. Crucial role in encoding new memories.
Very sensitive to alcohol, can be damaged irreversibly.

320
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

Receives highly processed information
Produces instinctive emotional output
Responsible for emotional memory
Mediates fear response

321
Q

How might a tumour in the hypothalamus present?

A

Hyperphagia, hypothermia, sleep dysregulation.

322
Q

How might Temporal lobe epilepsy?

A

Old memories, deja vu/jamais vu, olfactory hallucinations, autonomic disturbance, fear

323
Q

What are the corpora quadrigemina?

A

On the posterior aspect of the midbrain, there is the pairs of superior (visual) and inferior (auditory) colliculi. Together known as the corpora quadrigemina.

324
Q

What’s the difference between gliomas and schwannomas?

A

Gliomas are tumours of the central nervous system (tumours of the ophthalmic and optic nerves).
Schwannomas occur in the other cranial nerves due to the myelination of the schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system.

325
Q

Why is the abducens nerve vulnerable to stretching?

A

Abducens nerve comes off the base of the pons. It runs upwards. It has a very long intracranial course. It is susceptible to being stretched if there is a tumour elsewhere.

326
Q

How can MS affect the structures of the brainstem?

A

There is a facial colliculus that lies by the facial nerve nuclei. Lesions can occur here, particularly in patients with MS.
Median longitudinal fasciculus can be damaged by MS, breaking communication between the nuclei (internuclear ophthalmoplegia).

327
Q

What is Anorexia nervosa?

A

Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health.
Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight.
Disturbance in the way in which one’s body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight.
Subtypes: Restricting and binge-eating/purging

328
Q

What is Bulimia nervosa?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating characterized by both of the following:

  • Eating in a discrete amount of time (within a 2 hour period) large amounts of food.
  • Sense of lack of control over eating during an episode.

Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior in order to prevent weight gain (purging).
Binge eating and compensatory behaviors both occur, on average, at least once a week for three months

329
Q

What is Binge eating disorder?

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating:
eating, in a discrete period of time more than most people would eat during a similar period and under similar circumstances
a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode
Episodes associated with three or more of the following:
- eating much more rapidly than normal
- eating until feeling uncomfortably full
- eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry
- eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating
- feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed or very guilty afterward
Marked distress regarding binge eating
Bingeing at least once a week for three months (mean)
No purging or compensatory behaviours

330
Q

What are Other Specified Feeding and Eating Disorders (OSFED)?

A

Presents with many of the symptoms of other eating disorders, but will not meet the full criteria for diagnosis

Atypical anorexia nervosa - despite significant weight loss, the individual’s weight is within or above the normal range.
Bulimia nervosa - of low frequency and/or limited duration
Binge-eating disorder - of low frequency and/or limited duration)
Purging Disorder – throw up but not to eat a huge amount beforehand
Night eating syndrome – semi-autonomous eating in the night

331
Q

What is the general prevalence of eating disorders?

A

Among females aged 14-40
- anorexia nervosa = 0.5-1%
- bulimia nervosa = 1-2%
- atypical cases = 3-4%
Similar levels in different ethnic groups and socioeconomic groups
males have a lower prevalence (c. 10%)
The stereotype is not particularly helpful
influences help-seeking and referral patterns

332
Q

What are the factors that contribute to the onset of eating disorders?

A

Multiple risk factors, but non-specific: genes/temperament, family interaction, social pressures, trauma, etc.
Core model: Low self-esteem combined with high perfectionism (likes control but doesn’t feel they have any control) = a need for control
Trigger comes along which causes ‘restraint’ – patient finds something that they can control (food)
Weight loss reinforces the appreciation for control

333
Q

What are the maintaining factors in eating disorders?

A

Initially, positive reinforcement for weight loss/ control
enhances overvaluation of eating, shape and weight as ways of defining oneself
Then, terror at losing control
- physiological reaction to starvation
- body image disturbance
- cognitive rigidity
- emotional instability (serotonin deprivation)
- own body, family and professionals all try to take control and make you eat
- enhances the overvaluation even more, and reduces the ability to respond adaptively

334
Q

What should you assess in a eating disorder patient?

A
Severe restriction of food/fluid
Electrolyte imbalance
Bone deterioration
Physical damage
e.g., tears to oesophagus; blood in vomit
Alcohol/drug intake
335
Q

What are the red flags in an eating disorder patient?

A

Muscular weakness - use SUSS test
Problems in breathing
Deterioration of consciousness
Cardiac signs - ectopic beats, tachycardia, bradycardia, low blood pressure
Rapid weight loss - not low weight per se (depends what their normal is)
Risky behaviours e.g., suicidal intent; risk to others (e.g. driving)

336
Q

How do we encourage motivation for change in eating disorder patients?

A

If we use motivational interventions to explore the pros and cons of change or staying ‘ill’, it often doesn’t work because this is the only strategy that makes the patient feel safe and the are experiencing impaired emotional and cognitive abilities.
Most effective motivator is early behavioural change with reinforcement for doing well.

337
Q

What are the recommended treatment options for eating disorders?

A

Bulimia nervosa and binge eating disorder (BED)
Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT)
Bulimia - try guided CBT self-help first? Less effective
Binge-eating disorder – group CBT

Anorexia nervosa
Family therapy for adolescent cases
CBT, Maudsley AN treatment model (MANTRA), or Specialist Supportive Clinical Management

No evidence-based medications

338
Q

What are principles in effective treatment for eating disorders?

A
  • Structure is key to effective therapies - ‘doing therapies’ have a better record than ‘talking therapies’. Diary keeping and weighing the patient matter.
  • Risk management
  • Effectiveness is variable, even with ‘best practice’
  • A good therapeutic alliance matters
339
Q

What are the different types of motor control?

A

Voluntary: Running, walking, talking, playing guitar
Goal-directed: conscious, explicit, controlled.
Habit: unconscious, implicit, automatic
Involuntary: eye movements, facial expressions, jaw, tongue, postural muscles throughout trunk, hand and fingers, diaphragm, cardiac, intercostals (around
lungs), digestive tract

340
Q

What are upper and lower motor neurons?

A

Motor control governed by lower and upper motor neurons.
The lower motor neuron begins (has its cell body) in brainstem or spinal cord and projects to the muscle.
The upper motor neurons originate in higher centres and project down to meet the lower motor neurons.

341
Q

How do muscles vary from person to person?

A
The number of muscle fibres varies across individuals, but changes little  with either time or training – appears to be genetically determined
Muscle size (+ strength) is more about cross sectional area of individual  fibres and different proportions of the different types of fibre.
342
Q

How do we achieve such a range of movements and forces with our muscles?

A

Antagonistic arrangement – combined co-ordinated action

Recruitment of muscle fibres – fast/slow twitch, small and large motor units

343
Q

What is the motor unit?

A

Motor unit = single alpha motor neuron + all the muscle fibres it innervates – Different motor neurones innervate different numbers of muscle fibres – fewer fibres means greater movement resolution - those innervating finger tips and tongue
Activation of an alpha motor neuron depolarises and causes contraction of all fibres in that unit (all or none)
Muscle fibres innervated by each unit are the same type of fibre and often distributed through the muscle to provide evenly distributed force (and may help reduce effect of damage)

344
Q

What is the motor pool?

A

All the lower motor neurons that innervate single muscle.
The motor pool contains both the alpha and gamma motor neurons.
Motor pools are often arranged in a rod like shape within the ventral horn of the spinal column

345
Q

How are alpha motor neurons arranged in the spinal cord?

A

Alpha Motor Neurons originate in the Spinal Cord
More distal muscles have their muscle fibres more laterally
More proximal muscles have their muscle fibres more medially

346
Q

How does sensing in muscles work?

A

Muscles can be contracted or relaxed to provide movement, but a good control system (the CNS) needs to know two things:

  • how much tension is on the muscle (sensed by Golgi tendon organs)
  • what is the length (stretch) of the muscle (sensed by muscles spindles)
347
Q

What do the Golgi tendon organ do?

A

The GTO is within the tendon (where the muscle joins to bone). Mostly, it is just sending ascending sensory information to the brain via the spinal cord about how much force there is in the muscle.
Under conditions of extreme tension, it is possible that GTOs act to inhibit muscle fibres (via a circuit in the spinal cord) to prevent damage.

348
Q

What do muscles spindles do?

A

AKA Muscle sensory receptors
Muscle spindles sense the length of muscles, i.e. the amount of stretch.
Embedded within most muscles Composed of intrafusal fibers
Detect stretch regardless of the current muscle length
Sensory fibres are coiled around the intrafusal fibers
Intrafusal fibers are innervated separately, by gamma motor neurons
They keep the intrafusal fibers set at a length that optimizes muscle stretch detection

349
Q

How is the number of muscle fibres change based on function?

A

Average number of muscle fibres in a motor unit varies according to two functional requirements for that muscle:
- Level of control
- Strength
Typically a range of motor units in a muscle, some with few, some with many fibres.

SIZE PRINCIPLE
Units are recruited in order of size (smallest first) Fine control typically required at lower forces

350
Q

Where do the neurons from the motor cortex project to?

A

Motor command originates in motor cortex (M1) pyramidal cells (upper motor neurons)
Cell body located in grey matter of cortex
Pyramidal cell axon can project directly to spinal cord and onto lower motor neurons
This descending projection also known as pyramidal tract
Most cortical projections innervate contralateral motor units

351
Q

What are the similarities and differences between the dorsolateral and ventromedial tracts?

A

Both contain a direct corticospinal route
Both contain an indirect route via brainstem nuclei
Dorsolateral Tracts
- Route is via the red nucleus
- Innervate contralateral side of one segment of spinal cord
- Sometimes project directly to alpha motor neuron
- Project to distal muscles, e.g. fingers
Ventromedial Tracts
- Route is via tectum, vestibular nuclei, reticular formation & cranial nerve nuclei
- Diffuse innervation projecting to both sides and multiple segments of spinal cord
- Project to proximal muscles of trunk and limbs

352
Q

What does the basal ganglia do?

A

Basal Ganglia as a centralised action selector – the Vertebrate Solution to the Selection Problem, it turn inhibition OFF for the channel you want to allow through to the motor system.

  • Receives excitatory input from many areas of cortex (Glutamate)
  • Output goes back to cortex via the thalamus
  • Output is mainly inhibitory (GABA)
  • Complex internal connectivity involving 5 principle nuclei:
    Substantia Nigra (pars compacta & pars reticulata) Caudate & Putamen (together=striatum)
    Globus Pallidus (internal and external segments) Subthalamic Nucleus
353
Q

What are the effects when the cerebellum is damaged?

A

When damaged, movements become jerky, erratic and
poorly co-ordinated
Voluntary movement loses fluidity and appears mechanical and robot-like
Intention tremor (not like the PD resting tremor)
Dysarthria – disruption of fine control of speech, slurring
Some people born without one (cerebellar agenesis) and show little impairment (this is debatable)

354
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

It knows what the current motor command is
It knows about actual body position and movement
It projects back to motor cortex
Computes motor error and adjusts cortical motor commands accordingly.
BUT ALSO
Not just motor control, but motor learning too, in collaboration with basal ganglia and cortical circuits.
Also involved in a wide variety of non-motor tasks

355
Q

What information to sent to the cerebellum to process?

A

Cortical - Mostly from motor cortex (copies of motor commands). Also somatosensory and visual areas of parietal cortex
Spinal - Proprioceptive information about limb position and movement (muscle spindles, other mechanoreceptors)
Vestibular - Rotational and acceleratory head movement (semicircular canals / otoliths in inner ear)

356
Q

What are the different types of fibres in the brain?

A

Association fibres
Within one cerebral hemisphere
Can be short or long (e.g. superior longitudinal fasciculus)

Commissural fibres
From one side of the brain to the other
Largest set of commissural fibres pass through the corpus callosum

Projection fibres
From top to bottom or bottom to top
E.g. internal capsule

357
Q

How does the brain exhibit asymmetry?

A

E.g. right/left handed
Right frontal lobe is larger than the left
Left parietal lobe is larger than the right

358
Q

What is the difference between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic NS in terms of trajectory?

A

Parasympathetic – cranial and sacral outflow
The cranial nerves run through the brain (cranial outflow)
Parasympathetic nerves hitch a ride on the cranial nerves (predominant transport is through the vagus nerve), apart from the sacral outflow.
Sacral outflow - colon and sexual function

Sympathetic – majority come from the thoraco-lumbar spine
Line of ganglia in the sympathetic chain with postganglionic fibres running to their targets with some plexi present (secondary synapses/ganglia)
Also involved with adrenal gland amplification.

359
Q

What are the physical changes that occur when the sympathetic and parasympathetic are activated?

A

Sympathetic - increased heart rate and force of contraction, constriction of blood vessels, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, sphincter contraction and decreased secretions.

Parasympathetics - decreased heart rate and force of contraction, vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, increased gut motility, sphincter relaxation and increased secretions.

360
Q

How do neurotransmitters differ in the autonomic nervous system?

A

Symp: Ach and Ach nicotinic receptor in the sympathetic chain, in postganglionic, the neurotransmitter is noradrenaline
Para: Ach and Ach nicotinic receptors, the receptor at the end organ is a Ach muscarinic receptor

361
Q

What are the adrenergic receptor subtypes?

A

The autonomic nervous system has two main receptors types: the cholinergic receptors and the adrenergic receptors. The adrenergic receptors are those that are acted upon adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Alpha1 and alpha2: mostly involved in the stimulation of effector cells and constriction of blood vessels.
Beta 1, 2, 3: mostly involved in the relaxation of effector cells and dilatation of blood vessels

362
Q

How is contriction/dilatation of blood vessels controlled?

A

Majority of the receptors (baroreceptors and chemoreceptors) which control the circulatory system are found at the bifurcation of the carotid artery.
The chemical balance of the blood and the pressure is monitored and messages are sent to the brain stem nuclei to maintain homeostasis.
It is though that most info goes through CNIX.
The carotid baro-receptor reflex pathway – once the signal is integrated, info through the vagus nerve will cause constriction or dilatation depending on the pressure detected.

363
Q

What are some primary ANS disorders?

A

Acute: Pan-dysautonomia with neurological features
Chronic: Pure autonomic failure, multiple system atrophy (Shy-Drager syndrome), Autonomic failure with Parkinson’s disease

364
Q

What are some secondary ANS disorders?

A

Hereditary
Metabolic diseases – diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, chronic liver disease, alcohol induced
Inflammatory – Gullian-Barre syndrome
Infections – tetanus (bacterial), Chagas’ disease (parasitic), HIV (viral)
Neoplasia – brain tumours particularly of the third ventricle or posterior fossa
Cardiovascular disorders- Postural hypotension, Supine hypertension, Lability of blood pressure
Sexual disorders – erectile dysfunction
Alimentary disorders - Gastric stasis, Constipation, Dumping syndromes, Diarrhoea
Disorders of the eye

365
Q

How to test the CVS action of the ANS?

A

CVS is the easiest to measure – heart rate and blood pressure
Head-Up Tilt Test – passive stress (strapped to a table), Patients with disorders will not be able to maintain BP as they are upright but no change in heart rate

Baro-reflex testing – phenylephrine test: measure R-R interval after IV pressor agent
As you artificially increase blood pressure, the body should initiate a slowing of the heart rate.
Degree of autonomic neuropathy – insensitive reflex

366
Q

What is a ganglion and what’s either side?

A

Ganglion = a ‘junction box’ - a group of neuron cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system
Preganglionic neuron – most are myelinated (fast)
Postganglionic neuron – usually unmyelinated (slow)
Can be ACh or Noradrenaline

367
Q

What makes up the basal ganglia?

A
Two subgroups:
ROSTRAL (upper)
- Striatum: Putamen and Caudate nucleus
- Globus pallidus: Internal segment (Gpi) and External segment (Gpe)
CAUDAL (lower)
- Subthalamic nucleus
- Substantia nigra
368
Q

Where are the different parts of the basal ganglia located?

A

Caudate nucleus runs along the wall of the lateral ventricles.
Putamen is lateral to the caudate nucleus.
Substantia nigra is in the mesencephalon.
The subthalamic nucleus is rostrolateral to the substantia nigra.

369
Q

What are the different circuits of the basal ganglia?

A

Motor circuit
Limbic circuit
Oculomotor circuit

370
Q

What are some illnesses that are associated with the basal ganglia?

A

Motor disorders - Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease, Dystonia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome
Psychiatric disorders - OCD, ADHD
Secondary damage - Cerebral palsy, Wilson’s disease

371
Q

What are the major differences between Parkinson’s and Huntington’s?

A

Parkinson’s disease: increased muscle tone and reduced movements due to not enough dopamine
Huntington’s disease: decreased muscles tone and overshooting movements due to too much dopamine

372
Q

How is dopamine made?

A

Dopamine is produced in the substantia nigra but acts where the axons synapse.
L-tyrosine, an amino acid, is converted into L-Dopa.
L-DOPA to Dopamine by decarboxylation.
Dopamine is stored in synaptic vesicles.
When it is released, it acts on a post-synaptic dopamine receptors.

373
Q

What happens to dominergic neurons in Parkinson’s?

A

Loss of dominergic neurons
In the remainder of dominergic neurons – Lewy bodies form
You need to lose about 2/3 of your dominergic neurons before symptoms manifest.

374
Q

What happens to the ventricles in Huntington’s?

A

Ventricles appear much larger.

Head of the caudate nucleus has died away, giving the ventricles more space.

375
Q

How does Parkinson’s disease present clinically?

A

Brady/Akinesia
Problems with doing up buttons, keyboard etc
Writing smaller
Walking deteriorated: Small steps, dragging one foot etc

Tremor
At rest
May be on one side only

Rigidity
Pain
Problems with turning in bed

376
Q

What are the problems with Parkinson’s disease drugs that aim to correct the dopamine deficit?

A

More and more cells die
The drugs have shorter and shorter effects
The longer on treatment, the more likely are the patients to develop side effects, in particular dyskinesias.

377
Q

What is the alternative treatment for Parkinson’s disease, other than drugs?

A

Deep brain stimulation: functional lesioning of the subthalamic nucleus leads to dramatic improvement of PD.
Patients have a battery to their chest wall, the electrodes are implanted into the brain and the tip is in the subthalamic nucleus.

378
Q

How does Huntington’s disease present?

A

Clinical features
Chorea (abnormal involuntary movement disorder)
Dementia/psychiatric illness
Personality change

Clinical genetics
Autosomal dominant
Fully penetrant
Expansion of CAG (cytosine-adenine-guanine) triplet repeats in the gene coding for the huntingtin protein results in an abnormal protein.

379
Q

How can Huntington’s disease be treated?

A

Problem: Too much dopamine
Solution: Dopamine receptor blockers = neuroleptics
Typically used for psychosis treatment
Up and coming: Downregulation of mutant Huntingtin protein – inactivation of genes

380
Q

What areas of life can persistent pain affect?

A
Ability to work
Activities - daily and social
Sastifaction and enjoyment from activities
Contact with others
Relationships with family and friends
Self confidence
Sleeping patterns
Mood
Sense of self
Pre-occupation with pain
Concerns about the future
381
Q

What are the differences between acute and chronic pain?

A

Acute pain - acts as a warning sign, will often have a diagnosis/explanation and cure, time-limited, patient experiences sympathy, can go back to normal
Chronic pain - nuisance, diagnosis/explanation is not always possible, treatment is management-based, less understanding from others, wider aspects of life affected.

382
Q

What is pacing and how can it be useful for managing pain?

A

Limiting time spent on an activity to prevent marked increases in pain and keeping up a regular amount of activity to prevent problems of too much rest.
Planning activity rather than just doing things according to how you feel.
Taking breaks, breaking activities down into smaller tasks, changing position.

383
Q

What are the 3Ps for pain management?

A

Pacing
Planning
Prioritsing

384
Q

What is planning and how can it be useful for managing pain?

A

Involves thinking about when and how activities are going to be done.
Make sure that difficult activities are spread out.
Balance is essential with non-essential activities.
Taking regular breaks.

385
Q

What is priotising and how can it be useful for managing pain?

A

Making choices about what is done

Try to balance what needs to be done with what is pleasurable or interesting.

386
Q

What are the effects of prolonged muscle tension?

A

Causes aches, discomfort and tiredness.
Causes simple movements to be stiff and slow.
Become normal - may be physically tense without being aware of it.

387
Q

What’s in the ‘box of tools’ for someone with chronic pain?

A
Medication
Breathing control and relaxation
3Ps - pacing, planning, prioritising
Distraction
Support from others
Counter stimulation
Managing unhelpful thoughts
Movement and exercise
Advice and information
Relaxation techniques
388
Q

What are the special senses?

A

Senses which have evolved specialized organs; arise in more evolutionary advanced parts of the brain

Olfaction
Vision
Hearing
Balance
Taste
389
Q

What are dermatomes?

A

Dermatome – area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

390
Q

What are myotomes?

A

Myotome – a volume of muscle supplied by a single spinal nerve

391
Q

What does the sympathetic chain communicate with?

A

Sympathetic chain communicates with the spinal cord between T1 and L2 (sends a small component of the nerve to the sympathetic chain).
Nerve fibre can go up/down/sideways/synapse.
It will eventually synapse at an organ.

392
Q

What is the role of spinal cord?

A

The pathway for motor control from the brain to the body.

The pathway for sensory information from the body to the brain.

393
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract cross?

A

85% cross over to the other side (decussation of the pyramids) at the upper ventral medulla
If we have a patient who is paralysed – looked for pathology on the same side in the spinal cord and on the opposite side in the brain.

394
Q

What is the pathway of the corticospinal tract?

A
Motor tract
Comes from the precentral gyrus
Through internal capsule
Crura cerebri
85% decussates medulla (Lateral tract)
15% same side (Anterior tract)
395
Q

What are the functions of the different motor tracts?

A

Lateral corticospinal tract - rapid, skilled, voluntary movement
Rubrospinal tract - facilitates flexors, inhibits extensors
Vestibulospinal tract - facilitates extensors, inhibitrs flexors
Tectospinal tract - truncal reflexes from sight
Anterior corticospinal tract - rapid, skilled voluntary movement

396
Q

What are the crossover parts of the different motor tracts?

A
Lateral corticospinal tract - pyramids
Rubrospinal tract - midbrain
Vestibulospinal tract - ipsilateral
Tectospinal tract - midbrain
Anterior corticospinal tract - thoracic cord
397
Q

Where do each of the motor tracts originate from?

A

Lateral corticospinal tract - contralateral motor cortex
Rubrospinal tract - red nucleus
Vestibulospinal tract - CNVIII
Tectospinal tract - superior colliculus
Anterior corticospinal tract - motor cortex

398
Q

What are the functions of the different sensory tracts?

A

Dorsal columns - touch, vibration, conscious muscle/joint sense
Anterior spinocerebellar tract - non-conscious muscle/joint sense
Posterior spinocerebellar tract - non-conscious muscle/joint
Lateral spinothalamic tract - pain and temperature
Anterior spinothalamic tract - light touch, pressure
Spino-olivary tract - proprioception
Spinotectal tract - spinovisual reflex

399
Q

What are the crossover parts of the different sensory tracts?

A

Dorsal columns - upper medulla
Anterior spinocerebellar tract - immediate
Posterior spinocerebellar tract - ipsilateral
Lateral spinothalamic tract - two segments
Anterior spinothalamic tract - several segments
Spino-olivary tract - same segment
Spinotectal tract - same segment

400
Q

Where do each of the sensory tracts originate from and project to?

A

Dorsal columns - from legs and arms to sensory cortex
Anterior spinocerebellar tract - superior cerebellar peduncle
Posterior spinocerebellar tract - inferior cerebellar peduncle
Lateral spinothalamic tract - thalamus
Anterior spinothalamic tract - thalamus
Spino-olivary tract - cerebellum
Spinotectal tract - superior colliculus

401
Q

What’s the difference between an upper or motor neuron lesion?

A

If we cut the lower motor neuron, the muscle will never receive a signal – muscle becomes flacid and paralysed
If we cut the upper motor neuron, there will be no signal to the lower muscle neuron, but the LMN will still receive inputs from other areas so it will fire off spontaneously and create tone in the muscles – the muscles become tight and spastic (deformed)

402
Q

Where and why is an Epidural anaesthetic used?

A

The spinal cord finishes at L1
The corda equina continues through the lumbar vertebra
The cell bodies for the sensory neurones are in the dorsal root ganglia
Cell bodies have a higher surface area and take up anaesthetic better than axons
Epidural anaesthetic gives a greater sensory block than motor block

403
Q

What is the function of a lumbar puncture?

A

Can collect the CSF and diagnose lesions of the cranium
e.g. MS or meningitis
Can measure levels of glucose in blood and glucose in CSF – bacteria can use up the glucose in the CSF (lower levels)

404
Q

What are the proportional causes of strokes?

A

85% are embolic (gas, solid or liquid) - comes from vertebral or internal carotid
10% are haemorrhagic
5% have rarer causes

405
Q

How can AF cause an embolic stroke?

A

Common cause of stroke embolus is atrial fibrillation (uncoordinated movement of the muscle)
Left auricular appendage has no blood flow – increased likelihood that a clot will form here

406
Q

What are the different types of intracranial haemorrhage?

A

Extradural haemorrhage
Subdural haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Intracerebral haemorrhage

407
Q

What blood vessels are present within the meninges?

A

Meningeal vessels are in the Extradural space
Bridging veins cross the subdural space
The circle of Willis lies in the subarachnoid space
There are no vessels deep to the Pia, the Pia forms part of the blood brain barrier

408
Q

What are the characteristics of a Extradural Haemorrhage?

A
Traumatic
Fractured skull
Bleeding from Middle meningeal artery
Lucid period
Rapid rise in inter-cranial pressure (ICP)
Coning and death if not treated
409
Q

What are the characteristics of a Subdural Haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding from bridging veins
Commonest where the patient has a small brain (alcoholics, dementia)
Occurs in ‘shaken babies’
Bridging veins bleed, low pressure so soon stops
Days/weeks later the haematoma starts to autolyse
Massive increase in oncotic and osmotic pressure sucks water into the haematoma
Gradual rise in ICP over many weeks

410
Q

What are the characteristics of a Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A

Rupture of the arteries forming the circle of Willis
Often because of ‘Berry aneurysms’

Sudden onset severe headache photophobia and reduced consciousness
‘Thunderclap headache’
Rapidly fatal, the commonest source of organs for transplant since seat belts were made compulsory

411
Q

How do embolic and haemorrhagic strokes differ?

A

Embolic stroke

  • Death of cell bodies in the cortex
  • ‘Small’ well defined territory of loss of motor and sensory function
  • No recovery

Haemorrahgic stroke

  • Compression of the internal capsule
  • No death of cells
  • Large territory of loss of motor and sensory function
  • Possibility of complete recovery
412
Q

How to visualise a stroke?

A

Puncturing the femoral artery, insert a catheter, inject iodine-containing contrast.
Very invasive but introduces a catheter which can damage (and consequently a stroke).
Moving away from these catheter angiograms.

Contrast can also be injected into the cubital fossa and an MRI can be used to image the arterial circulation. These can be used to replace invasive imaging.

413
Q

What are the different branches of the aortic arch?

A

Brachiocephalic trunk - divides into right common carotid and right subclavian
Left common carotid
Left subclavian artery
<1% also has the left vertebral artery branching off

414
Q

What are the branches and bifurcations of the common carotid arteries?

A

Right common carotid arises from the brachiocephalic trunk
Left common carotid arises from the aortic arch
They have no branches
They common carotid arteries bifurcate in the neck at approximately C3/C4 (a lot of variation).

Common carotid splits into the internal and the external.
The internal goes to provide the blood supply for the brain.
The external is primarily for the facial tissues and the dura.

415
Q

What are the different parts of the internal carotid artery?

A

Cervical part - in the soft tissues of the neck
Petrous part - hits the petrous bone
Cavernous part - into the cavernous sinus
Supraclinoid (intradural) - through the dura inside the meninges

416
Q

What are the characteristics of the cervical ICA?

A

No narrowings/dilatations/branches
Lie anterior and medial to the internal jugular vein
Lies posterior and lateral to the ECA at origin
Ascends behind and then medial to ECA (but can vary)
ICA is always larger than the ECA

417
Q

What are the characteristics of the petrous ICA?

A

Penetrates temporal bone and runs horizontally (anteromedially) in the carotid canal
Small branch to inner ear (caroticotympanic artery)
Small potential connection with ECA (vidian artery)

418
Q

What are the characteristics of the cavernous ICA?

A

Turns superiorly at the foramen lacerum
Enters cavernous sinus
Pierces dura at the level of the anterior clinoid process
Small branches supply dura, cranial nerves 3-6 (can apply pressure here) and posterior pituitary.
If it is injured, you can get a carotid cavernous sinus fistula - leak into the cavernous sinus.
Can cause venous hypertension.

419
Q

What are the characteristics of the Supraclinoid ICA?

A

Ophthalmic artery is usually intradural and passes into the optic canal
Superior hypophyseal arteries/trunk supply pituitary gland, stalk, hypothalamus and optic chiasm
Posterior communicating artery runs backwards above CNIII to connect with the PCA
Anterior choroidal artery supplies the choroid plexus, optic tract, cerebral peduncle, internal capsule and medial temporal lobe
At the top it splits into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries

420
Q

What is collateral circulation?

A

Collateral circulation is the alternate circulation around a blocked artery or vein via another path, such as nearby minor vessels.

421
Q

What are the different parts of the middle cerebral artery?

A
Larger of the two terminal ICA branches
M1: runs laterally to the limen insulae (lateral lenticulostriate branches)
M2: runs in the insular cistern
M3: emerge onto the brain surface
M4: vessels on the brain surface
422
Q

What do the Lateral lenticulostriate branches supply?

A

Supply:
Lentiform nucleus (putamen and globus pallidus)
Caudate nucleus
Internal capsule
If there is a clot sitting across these blood vessels, what they supply will die off very quickly (anatomically vulnerable to infarction).

423
Q

What are the different parts of the anterior cerebral artery?

A

Smaller of the two ICA branches
A1: runs medially to connect with the contralateral ACA via anterior communicating artery (medial lenticulostriate arteries supply the head of the caudate nucleus and the internal capsule)
A2: runs in the interhemispheric fissure to genu of corpus callosum and has two cortical branches
A3: cortical branches from callosomarginal and pericallosal arteries

424
Q

What are the Extracranial vertebral arteries and their pathway?

A

Form the posterior circulation
Vertebral arteries arise from the subclavian arteries
Enter at the foramina transversarium at C6
Turn laterally at C2
Loop posteriorly on C1
Go through the foramen magnum anterolateral to the medulla

425
Q

Which arteries in the brain may have dissections?

A

Carotid dissection (rip in the vessel in torsional forces) will often happen at the opening of the carotid canal.

We often see dissections in vertebral arteries too (spontaneously on minimal trauma or through major trauma in dislocations of the cervical spine).

426
Q

What branches from the intracranial vertebral arteries?

A

Give off the anterior spinal artery which gives off small medullary perforators
Gives off posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) which supplies the medulla and inferior cerebellum

427
Q

What are the characteristics of the basilar arteries?

A

The vertebral arteries unite to form a single basilar artery
Runs anteriorly to the pons
Has multiple perforating arteries to the brain stem
Bilateral anterior inferior cerebellar arteries (AICAs): cerebellum, CN7 and 8
Bilateral superior cerebellar arteries (SCAs)
Selective clot in the basilar artery can be one of the worst strokes. Often seen in younger age groups or in the elderly in the context of atherosclerosis.

428
Q

What are characteristics of the posterior cerebral arteries?

A

The two posterior cerebral arteries arise from the terminal bifurcation of the basilar artery
PCAs partially encircle the midbrain supplying, by a series of small perforators, the thalamus, geniculate bodies, cerebral peduncles and tectum.
In addition the medial and lateral posterior choroidal also supply the tectum, thalamus and choroid of the 3rd and lateral ventricles.

429
Q

What are the causes of meningitis?

A
Infective causes:
Bacterial
Viral
Fungal
Parasitic

Non-infective causes:
Paraneoplastic
Drug side effects
Autoimmune (e.g. vasculitis, SLE)

430
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Meningitis - inflammation of the meninges (layer between the bone and the brain)

431
Q

How does the meningitis infection get into the brain?

A

The brain and the CSF should be a sterile space.
If you are bacteraemic, infection can reach the meninges through the bloodstream
Extracranial infection - colonisation in the nasopharynx, inner ear infection (otitis media), sinusitis
Neurosurgical complications - post op, infected shunts, trauma

432
Q

What is the pathophysiology of meningitis?

A

There should be any white cells or bacteria in the CSF.
Once there is bacteria in the CSF, it can multiply very quickly.
This causes increased inflammation which breaks down the barrier between the blood and the CSF, meaning that neutrophils and lymphocytes can get in.
This can cause brain swelling.

433
Q

What does the patient with meningitis experience?

A

Fever
Headache
Neck stiffness - ‘meningism’

434
Q

What is the prognosis of bacterial meningitis?

A

Medical emergency - 5% mortality (when treated)

20% permanent effects including skin scarring, amputation, hearing loss, seizures, brain damage.

435
Q

How should bacterial meningitis be treated?

A

Immediate advice:
Give IM Benzylpenicillin (if possible) and admit the patient to hospital
On arrival to hospital:
Assess Glasgow Coma Scale (3 to 15) - how sick they are from the neurological point of view, consider need for intubation
Blood cultures before giving antibiotics
Broad spectrum antibiotics
Steroids (IV dexamethasone) - to reduce inflammation/swelling

436
Q

Which antibiotics are given to those with meningitis?

A

Start broad to cover likely/possible organisms
First-line: Ceftriaxone or cefotaxime (both cross the blood brain barrier and are anti-bacterial)
Special considerations:
Penicillin allergy (if the patient has penicillin anaphylaxis, you need to avoid ceftriaxone/cefotaxime)
Immunocompromised (risk of listeria) - may need to add in amoxicillin at a high dose
Recent travel (risk of penicillin resistance)

437
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A

Eye response - open spontaneously, open to verbal command, open to pain, no eye opening
Verbal response - orientated, confused, inappropriate words, incomprehensible words, no verbal response
Motor response - obeys commands, localising pain, withdrawal from pain, flexion to pain, extension to pain, no motor response

438
Q

How is lumbar puncture used to investigate meningitis?

A

Definitive investigation to diagnose meningitis
Patient is curled up in the foetal position and a large needle is inserted to collect some CSF.
In the lab, they perform microscopy, gram stain culture, protein, glucose, viral PCR (and potentially acid-fast bacilli like TB and histology for tumour cells) on the CSF.
Would not perform a lumbar puncture if the patient has abnormal clotting (platelets/coagulation), petechial rash which would suggest a bleeding abnormality or raised intracranial pressure.

439
Q

What is Neisseria Meningitidis?

A

Gram negative diplococci
5-11% adult carriage
25% in teenagers
If it is found in the blood culture, you can get meningococcal septicaemia (non-blanching purpuric rash, necrosis, high mortality).

440
Q

What are the causes of acute meningitis?

A
Bacterial:
Neisseria meningitidis (gram neg diplococci)
Strep. pneumoniae (gram pos diplococci)
Listeria spp. (gram pos rod)
Group B strep (gram pos cocci)
Haemophilus influenzae B (gram neg rod)
E.coli (gram neg rod)

Viral:
Enterovirus
Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)

441
Q

What are the causes of chronic meningitis?

A

Bacterial:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB)
Syphilis

Fungal:
Cryptococcal

Other: Non-infective, parasitic

442
Q

How does bacterial meningitis affect different age-groups?

A

Neisseria meningitidis - children, adults, elderly
Strep. pneumoniae - children, adults, elderly
Listeria spp. - neonates and elderly
Haemophilus influenzae B - children
E.coli - neonates

443
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of meningitis?

A
Subarachnoid hemorrhage - thunderclap headache
Migraine
Flu and other viral illnesses
Sinusitis
Brain abscess
Malaria
444
Q

Who are the at-risk groups of different types of meningitis?

A

Bacterial - students, travel, immunosuppressed
Viral - small children, immunosuppressed
TB - TB contact, immunosuppressed
Cryptococcal - HIV, immunosuppressed

445
Q

What are the clinical features of each type of meningitis?

A

Bacterial - may appear septic, focal neurology, purpuric rash
Viral - recent viral illness, less severe
TB - weight loss, night sweats, insidious onset
Cryptococcal - high opening pressure

446
Q

What does the CSF in bacterial meningitis look like?

A
Cloudy
Polymorphs (neutrophils) under the microscope
Organisms can be seen on a gram stain
High protein
Low glucose
447
Q

What does the CSF in viral meningitis look like?

A
Clear
Lymphocytes under the microscope
Staining doesn't reveal anything
High protein
Normal glucose
PCR for HSV, VZV, enterovirus
448
Q

What does the CSF in TB-caused meningitis look like?

A
"Fibrin web"
Lymphocytes under the microscope
Organisms seen on phenol auramine/Ziehl Neeelson stain
High protein
Low glucose
PCR for M. Tuberculosis
449
Q

What does the CSF in Cryptococcal meningitis look like?

A
"Fibrin web"
Lymphocytes under the microscope
Organisms seen on India ink stain
High protein
Low glucose
450
Q

What is the public health management for Neisseria Meningitidis?

A

Identify ‘close contacts’ - they have a 1/300 risk of developing meningitis (particularly the first 7 days).
Antibiotic prophylaxis reduces the risk and prevents onward transmission (Ciprofloxacin or Rifampicin).

451
Q

What is Encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain

452
Q

What are the causes of encephalitis?

A

Usually viral
Most commonly Herpes Simplex
Sometimes Varicella Zoster
Others: measles, mumps, rubella, EBV, HIV, Cytomegalovirus - CMV, coxsackie)

Other causes
Japanese encephalitis virus
Tick-borne encephalitis
Rabies
West Nile
Non-infective: autoimmune, paraneoplastic
(Ask about travel! Ask friends/family if patient is confused)

453
Q

How does encephalitis present clinically?

A
Hours to days: preceding ‘flu-like’ illness
Then:
Altered GCS: confusion, drowsiness, coma
Fever
Seizures
Memory loss
(+/- meningism)
454
Q

How is encephalitis investigated?

A

MRI of the head +/- EEG
Lumbar puncture after lymphocytic CSF and viral PCR
HIV test (acute stages may cause encephalitis)

455
Q

How is encephalitis treated?

A

Mostly supportive - fluids and nutrition, painkillers, physio, neuro rehab to resolve memory loss or muscle weakness
14-21 days of Aciclovir if HSV or VZV

456
Q

What is the pathophysiology of tetanus?

A

Inoculation through skin with Clostridium tetani spores (found globally in soil) e.g. stepping on a nail, dirty wounds
Bacteria produce toxins
Tetanolysin (tissue destruction)
Tetanospasmin (clinical tetanus)

Tetanospasmin can travel retrogradely along axons.
It interferes with neurotransmitter release, which increases neuron firing, and causes unopposed muscle contraction and spasm.
Incubation around 8 days.

457
Q

What’s the difference between generalised and localised tetanus?

A

Generalised tetanus
Risus sardonicus - grimace
Opisthotonos - spasm of the muscles causing backward arching of the head, neck, and spine

Localised tetanus
E.g. injury in the hand - unopposed flexion of fingers and spasm of the forearm

458
Q

How to treat tetanus?

A

If patient has had an at-risk injury - vaccinate
If symptomatic:
Supportive - muscle relaxants, paracetamol/cooling
Immunoglobulin to mop up toxins to stop it progressing
Metronidazole to clear up any bacteria

459
Q

What is Rabies?

A

Viral infection that kills 35-50 thousand/yr
Inoculation through skin with saliva of rabid animal (dogs, cats, foxes etc) e.g. lick, bite, splash
Travels retrogradely along nerves relatively slowly
Commonly in Africa, South east Asia

460
Q

What is the clinical presentation of rabies?

A

Incubation depends on site and size of inoculation. Minimum 2 weeks, maximum years.
Paraesthesia at bite site.
Reaches CNS: furious or paralytic presentation
Furious - hydrophobic, aerophobic, distressed, confused, agitated

461
Q

What is the prognosis for rabies?

A

Once symptomatic, it is invariably fatal (>99.9%)

The ones who do survive often have lots of neurological damage

462
Q

What’s the management for rabies?

A

Manage with sedatives
Prophylaxis is key:
Pre-exposure prophylaxis (vaccination)
Post-exposure prophylaxis (vaccination and immunoglobulin)

463
Q

Why are headaches important?

A

One of the most common symptoms that clinicians evaluate.
One of the problems is that diagnoses cannot always be made and the effective treatment depends on a correct diagnosis.
Diagnosis often takes a long time - median time to diagnose a cluster headache is 2.6 years and patients will often see at least 3 GPs before diagnosis.

464
Q

How can headaches be classified?

A

Primary - migraine, cluster, tension type
Secondary - meningitis, subarachnoid haemorrhage, giant cell arteritis, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, medication overuse headache
Painful cranial neuropathies, other face pains and other headaches e.g.trigeminal neuralgia (face pain)

465
Q

When would you think about a potential secondary headache?

A

Consider in patients who are/have:
>50 years old
History of HIV, cancer, trauma, risk factors for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis
Changing personality or cognitive dysfunction
Vomiting without any obvious cause

466
Q

What are the features of the headaches?

A

Jaw claudication or visual disturbance - GCA?
Severe eye pain - closed angle glaucoma?
Postural
Sudden onset headache/thunderclap (could indicate a vascular problem)
Exercise or valsalva (e.g. coughing, laughing, straining)
Focal neurological symptoms (e.g. limb weakness, unusual aura <5min or >1hr)

467
Q

On examination of a patient with a headache what should you look for?

A
Fever
Altered consciousness
Neck stiffness
Swollen optic discs
Other abnormal neurological examination
To check for meningitis or encephalitis
468
Q

When should you consider immediate referral in a patient with a headache?

A

Thunderclap headache - subarachnoid haemorrhage
Seizure and new headache - electrical problems
Suspected meningitis or encephalitis
Red eye - acute glaucoma
Headache and new focal neurology (including papilloedema)

469
Q

How to assess risk in a patient with a suspected brain tumour?

A

Red flags - risk >1%: Urgent investigation
Orange flags - risk 0.1-1%: Monitor and low-threshold investigation
Yellow flags - risk 0.01%: Management but further investigation not excluded
Background - risk <0.01%
The symptoms and signs guide the level of risk

470
Q

What are the red flags for a brain tumour?

A

New headache with history of cancer
Cluster headache
Seizure
Significantly altered consciousness, memory, confusion, coordination
Papilloedema
Other abnormal neuro exam or symptom (evidence = orange)

471
Q

What are the orange flags for a brain tumour?

A

New headache where the diagnostic pattern did not emerge over 8 weeks.
Headache exacerbated by exercise or valsalva
Headache associated with vomiting
Headache for some time but changed significantly, particularly if there is an increase in frequency
New headache if >50 years old
Headache that wakes the patient from sleep
Confusion

472
Q

What are the yellow flags for a brain tumour?

A

Diagnosis of migraine or tension type headache
Weakness or motor loss
Memory loss
Personality change

473
Q

What is Papilloedema?

A

A swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure.

474
Q

How to take a history of a headache?

A

Types/number - history for each one
Time - onset/duration/how long/why now/frequency and pattern
Pain - severity/quality/site and spread
Associated - nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, cranial autonomic features
Triggers - any triggers, aggravating, or relieving factors, family history
Response - during attack/function/medication useful
Between attacks - normal/persisting symptoms
Any changes in attacks

475
Q

How to take a headache exam?

A
Fever
Altered consciousness
Neck stiffness/Kernig's sign
Focal neurological signs - fundoscopy
Always check blood pressure too
476
Q

What are the most to least types of headache?

A

Migraine
- Episodic migraine with and without aura
- Chronic migraine
Medication overuse headache
Tension type headache (very common and people aren’t worried about it)
Other secondary headaches
Cluster headache

477
Q

What are the characteristics of migraines without aura?

A

5 attacks
Attacks lasting 4-72 hours
Two of the following: unilateral, pulsing, moderate/severe, aggravation by routine physical activity
During the headache at least one of either nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia and phonophobia
Not attributed to another disorder

478
Q

What is the aura experienced with migraines?

A

Can be flashing lights, a gleam of light, blurred vision, an odor, the feeling of a breeze, numbness, weakness, or difficulty in speaking.
Can be in one eye or both eyes.
Fortification spectra - zigzag lines

479
Q

What is characteristic of a migraine with aura?

A

At least 2 attacks
Aura consisting at least one of the following: fully reversible visual symptoms including positive features and/or negative features, fully reversible dysphasic speech disturbance
At least 2 of the following: homozygous visual symptoms and/or unilateral sensory symptoms, at least one aura symptom which develops gradually over >5mins or different aura symptoms which occur in succession over >5mins
Each symptom lasts >5 and <60 mins
Headache fulfilling migraine without aura symptoms which follows within 60 mins
Not attributed to another disorder

480
Q

What is characteristic of a tension-type headache?

A

> 10 attacks occurring <1 day/month (>12 days/year)
Headache lasting from 30mins to 7 days
Headache has two of the following characteristics: bilateral, pressing tightening (non-pulsating) quality
Mild or moderate intensity
Not aggravated by routine physical activity
Both of the following: no nausea or vomiting (anorexia may occur), either photophobia or phonophobia
Not attributed to another disorder

481
Q

What is characteristic of a cluster headache?

A

At least 5 headache attacks
Severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15-180 minutes if untreated
Headache is accompanied by ipsilateral cranial autonomic features and/or a sense of restlessness or agitation
Attacks have frequency from 1 every other day to 8 per day
Not attributed to another disorder

482
Q

What is characteristic of Classical trigeminal neuralgia?

A

At least 3 attacks of unilateral facial pain
Occurring in one or more distributions of the trigeminal nerve, with no radiation beyond the trigeminal distribution
Pain has at least 3 of the following characteristics: reoccuring in paroxysmal attacks from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes, severe intensity, electric shock like feeling like shooting, stabbing, or sharp, precipitated by innocuous stimuli to the affected side of the face
No clinically evident neurological deficit
Not better attributed to another diagnosis

483
Q

What are the treatment options for migraines?

A

Make an accurate diagnosis - manage expectations and initiate close follow up
Lifestyle modification and trigger management
Pharmacological treatments
Psychological and behavioural treatments
Surgical treatments

484
Q

What is the abortive treatment for migraines?

A

Offer combination therapy for acute treatment of migraine with an oral triptan and an NSAID or an oral triptan and paracetamol
For monotherapy, consider oral tripan, NSAID, aspirin (900mg), or paracetamol for the acute treatment of migraine
Consider an antiemetic in addition to other acute treatment for migraine even in the absence of nausea and vomiting
Do not offer ergots or opioids for acute treatment of migraines

485
Q

What is the preventative treatment for migraines?

A

Offer topiramate or propranolol
A course of up to 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks or gabapentin (up to 1200mg a day) or Amitriptyline more readily used.
For people who are already having treatment with preventatives such as amitriptyline and those whose migraine is well controlled, continue the current treatment as required.
Advise people with migraine riboflavin (400mg once daily) may be effective
Botulinum toxin A is recommended for the prophylaxis of chronic migraine: if patient is not responding to at least 3 prior prophylaxis treatments and whose condition is appropriately managed for medication overuse.

486
Q

What happens if the treatment for migraines doesn’t work?

A

Wrong diagnosis
Drug not effective for patient
Effective preventative drug but not used for long enough
Non-compliance - used wrong, not tolerated, just not taking it
Medication overuse which might complicate the diagnosis

487
Q

What are the types of secondary headache?

A
Medication overuse headache
Meningitis
Giant cell arteritis
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
High intracranial pressure
488
Q

What investigations would you do for a patient with suspected meningitis?

A

Bloods, blood cultures, throat swab, blood for serology and PCR, HIV test, Chest X-ray, CT head scan, CSF.

489
Q

How does a subarachnoid haemorrhage present?

A

8-12 per 100,000 per year
Thunderclap headache - maximum severity within seconds (usually)
Worse ever
SAH until proven otherwise
Meningeal irritation - may be late or absent
Focal symptoms and signs and coma in severe cases

490
Q

What investigation would you do for a suspected SAH?

A

95% sensitive in the first 24 hours - may help in locating source
Lumbar puncture - if CT is normal, it must be done, but not before 12 hours to allow for xanthochromia
Angiography

491
Q

How does raised intracranial pressure present?

A

Worse on walking
Worse coughing, sneezing, straining
Postural, worse lying down
Nausea, vomiting
Papilloedema - may be absent if acute (look at optic discs using an ophthalmoscope)
+/- focal signs
Visual obscurations - transient losses of vision lasting a few seconds

492
Q

How would Idiopathic intracranial hypertension present?

A

Unknown cause, would have normal brain scan and lumbar puncture
Risk factors: obesity and drugs e.g. tetracycline
Normal CT +/- contrast
CSF opening pressure high but normal constituents
Imaging to exclude secondary cause and cerebral venous sinus thrombosis (particularly in young women)

493
Q

What is brain stem death?

A

When a person no longer has any brain stem functions, and has permanently lost the potential for consciousness and the capacity to breathe. When this happens, a ventilator keeps the person’s heart beating and oxygen circulating through their bloodstream.

494
Q

Why does brain swelling cause a fixed dilated pupil?

A

The petrous part of the skull has an apex. The parasympathetic fibres of the 3rd nerve travels along the petrous apex/cavernous sinus/orbital apex. When the nerve is squeezed against the petrous apex, the patient experiences a fixed dilated pupil - suggests brain swelling.

495
Q

What is the venous drainage of the brain?

A

The main venous drainage is through the sagittal sinus which drains from front to back. At the venous confluence, it divides into a transverse sinus. Transverse sinus becomes the sigmoid sinus down through to the beginnings of the internal jugular vein.

496
Q

What is the thrombotic risk of the contraceptive pill?

A

There is an increased risk of venous thrombosis, DVT and PE in women using the contraceptive pill. This also includes a risk of sagittal sinus thrombosis.

497
Q

How does CSF through the brain?

A

The 3rd ventricle drains into the 4th ventricle through the aqueduct of Sylvius. The floor of the 4th ventricle is the brainstem in fron and the roof is the cerebellum behind. There are three exit holes (foramina of Magendie - medial and Lushka - lateral) which allow the CSF to exit the ventricular system into the subarachnoid space. The CSF is absorbed through the arachnoid granulations.

498
Q

What is the reticular activating system (RAS)?

A

A network of neurons located in the brain stem that project anteriorly to the hypothalamus to mediate behavior, as well as both posteriorly to the thalamus and directly to the cortex.
Involved in alertness, sleep/wake, REM, non-REM, respiratory centre, cardiovascular drive.