Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 4 > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

List some potential environmental factors which may predispose to asthma?

A 
Allergens
Microbial exposure
Diet
Vitamins
Breastfeeding
Tobacco smoke
Air pollution
Obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the typical clinical features of a patient presenting with undiagnosed asthma

A

Recurrent episodes of symptoms which are worse at night and early in the morning, including:

  • Wheeze
  • Breathlessness
  • Chest tightness
  • Coughing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the classic triggers of asthma

A 
Exercise
Cold weather
Airborne allergens/pollution
Viral upper respiratory tract infections
Drugs - beta-blockers, NSAIDs, oral contraceptive pill, cholinergic agents, PGF2a
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the ‘classic case’ of aspirin-sensitive asthma

A

A middle aged female with asthma symptoms, rhino sinusitis and nasal polyps, who’s symptoms are worse after alcohol or food containing salicylate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would you typically find on examination of a patient with suspected asthma?

A

Normal, except for wheeze.

May see nasal polyps, eczema or a vascular rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for asthma?

A
  1. Compatible clinical history
  2. FEV1 >12% (200ml) increase following bronchodilator therapy or glucocorticoid trial (reversibility test)
  3. > 20% diurnal variation on >2 days in a week for a 2 week PEF diary
  4. FEV >14% decrease after 6 minutes of exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What investigations would you consider doing in a patient with suspected asthma?

A
  1. PEF
  2. Spirometry
  3. Glucocorticoid trial
  4. FBC - eosinophilia
  5. Exercise testing
  6. Skin-prick testing/IgE levels
  7. CXR
  8. High-resolution CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What advice would you give to a patient diagnosed with asthma?

A
  1. Explanation of condition, relationship between symptoms and inflammation
  2. Red flag symptoms for poor control e.g. nocturnal waking
  3. Explanation of PEF monitoring
  4. Avoidance of aggravating factors
  5. Smoking cessation
  6. Adequate warm up or pre-treatment before exercise
  7. Reviews of medication adherence and inhaler technique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the management plan of a patient with diagnosed asthma

A
  1. Short-acting Beta-agonist as required (CONTINUED THROUGHOUT)
  2. ADD regular low dose inhaled corticosteroids
  3. ADD inhaled LABA (combination inhaler)
  4. No response to LABA - STOP LABA and INCREASE inhaled corticosteroid to medium dose
    Inadequate response to LABA - CONTINUE LABA and INCREASE inhaled corticosteroid to medium dose OR CONTINUE LABA and inhaled corticosteroid AND consider trial of leukotriene receptor antagonist, sustained-release theophylline or long-acting muscarinic antagonist
  5. Consider trials of INCREASE inhaled corticosteroid to high dose OR ADD leukotriene receptor antagonist, sustained-release theophylline or long-acting muscarinic antagonist or beta-agonist tablet AND refer to specialist care
  6. ADD daily steroid table and maintain high dose inhaled corticosteroid AND refer to specialist care
  7. Biologics - Omalizumab (atopic) or Mepolizumab (eosinophilic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the indications for addition of a regular preventer inhaler

A
  • Exacerbation in the last 2 years
  • Uses B-agonist >3x weekly
  • Reports symptoms >3x weekly
  • Awakened by asthma 1x weekly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why would you not prescribe a LABA alone to an asthmatic?

A

Associated with increased risk of life-threatening attack and asthma death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the management of a mild-moderate asthma exacerbation in secondary care

A

Short course of oral rescue prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the management of a mild acute asthma attack in primary care

A
  1. Measure PEF
  2. Give usual inhaled bronchodilator and wait 60 mins
  3. Send home with advice - return immediately if worsens, GP appointment within 48 hours

OR

  1. Nebulised treatment
  2. Measure PEF
  3. Wait 30 mins
  4. Re-check PEF
  5. PEF >60% –> send home (after checking with senior medical professional) with 5 days of prednisolone and start/double inhaled corticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the management of a moderate acute asthma attack in primary care

A
  1. Measure PEF
  2. Perform ABG
  3. Nebulised salbutamol 5mg or terbutaline 2.5mg
  4. High flow/60% oxygen
  5. Prednisolone 40mg PO
  6. Wait 30 mins
  7. PEF >60% –> home, PEF <60% –> follow protocol for severe asthma attack
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the management of a severe/life-threatening acute asthma attack in primary care

A
  1. Measure PEF (if patient able)
  2. Perform ABG
  3. Nebulised salbutamol 5mg or terbutaline 2.5mg 6-12x daily as required
  4. High flow/60% oxygen
  5. Prednisolone 40mg PO OR hydrocortisone 200mg IV
  6. Obtain IV access and get plasma theophylline level and plasma K+
  7. Order CXR
  8. Administer repeat salbutamol and ipratropium bromide by oxygen-driven nebuliser (consider continuous salbutamol nebuliser)
  9. Consider IV MgSO4 or amiophylline (cardiac monitoring required)
  10. Correct fluids and electrolytes

Record PEF every 15-30mins then every 4-6 hours
Continuous pulse oximetry and repeat ABGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the features of an acute severe asthma attack

A

Unable to complete sentences in 1 breath
PEF 33-50% predicted value
HR >110bpm
RR >25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the features of a life-threatening asthma attack

A 
Silent chest
Cyanosis
Feeble respiratory effort
Bradycardia, arrhythmias
Hypotension
Exhaustion, delirium, coma
PEF <33% predicted
SpO2 <92%
PaO2 <8kPa
PaCO2 normal or raised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the indications for a rescue course of glucocorticoids in an asthmatic

A
  1. Symptoms and PEF progressively worsening day to day, with fall of PEF <60% of patient’s personal best
  2. Onset or worsening of sleep disturbance by asthma
  3. Persistence of morning symptoms until midday
  4. Progressively diminishing response to an inhaled bronchodilator
  5. Symptoms that are sufficiently severe enough to require treatment with nebulised or injected bronchodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the indications for assisted ventilation in an asthmatic

A
  1. Coma
  2. Respiratory arrest
  3. PaO2 <8kPa and falling
  4. PaCO2 >6kPa and rising
  5. pH low and falling
  6. Exhaustion, delirium, drowsiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the 2 criteria that asthmatic s need to meet before discharge after an asthma attack

A
  1. Patient should be stable on discharge medication, nebulised treatment discontinued for >24 hours
  2. PEF has reached >75% of predicted value or personal best
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List some risk factors for COPD

A 
Tobacco smoking
Indoor air pollution
Occupational exposure e.g. coal dust, silica, cadmium
Low birth weight
Childhood infection
Maternal smoking during childhood
Recurrent infection
Low socioeconomic status
Cannabis smoking
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Airway hyper-reactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List some co-morbidities commonly associated with COPD

A 
Cardiovascular disease
Cerebrovascular disease
Metabolic syndrome
Osteoporosis
Depression
Lung cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe chronic bronchitis

A

Cough and sputum for at least 3 consecutive months in each of 2 consecutive years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe emphysema

A

Abnormal permanent enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by destruction of their walls and without obvious fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the typical clinical features of a patient with COPD

A 
Age >40
Cough
Sputum
Breathlessness
Haemoptysis (during exacerbations)
Peripheral oedema
Morning headaches
Muscular weakness
Weight loss
Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What might you find on examination of a patient with COPD?

A 
Quiet breath sounds
Crackles
Peripheral oedema
Barrel chest 
Tar staining on fingers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List 6 differential diagnoses for COPD

A 
Chronic asthma
TB
Bronchiectasis
Congestive cardiac failure
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Lung cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the investigations you may consider doing in a patient with ?COPD?

A

1) Spirometry - required to diagnose COPD –> post-broncholdiator FEV1 <80% predicted OR FEV1/FVC <70%
2) CXR - rule out differentials, identify bull
3) FBC - anaemia, polycythaemia
4) Alpha-1-antitrypsin assy
5) Helium dilution lung volume measurement or body plethysmography
6) Exercise testing
7) HRCT

29
Q

Describe the ‘classic case’ of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

A patient under 45 of Caucasian descent with a family history and symptoms of COPD

30
Q

Describe the non-medical management of COPD

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Use of non-smoking cooking devices or alternative fuels
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Annual flu vaccine
  • Pneumococcal vaccine
31
Q

Describe the surgical management options for COPD, and their indications

A

Bullectomy - for large bull compressing surrounding normal lung tissue
Lung volume reduction surgery - patients with predominantly upper lobe emphysema
Lung transplantation - advanced COPD

32
Q

Describe the medical management of COPD

A

1) Avoid risk factors
2) ADD SABA +/- anticholinergic as required (mild disease)
3) ADD regular tiotropium (and/or LABA) AND pulmonary rehabilitation (moderate disease)
4) ADD inhaled glucocorticoids if repeated exacerbations occur AND consider theophylline (severe disease)
5) Add LTOT AND consider surgical options (advanced disease)

33
Q

Describe the medical management of a severe infective exacerbation of COPD

A

1) Controlled oxygen (24-28%)
2) Nebulised salbutamol AND ipratropium
3) Oral prednisolone
4) Antibiotics e.g. amoxicillin (in patients with increased sputum purulence, volume or breathlessness)
5) Non-invasive ventilation
6) Diuretics

34
Q

Describe the medical management of a mild exacerbation of COPD

A

Managed at home
Increased bronchodilator therapy
Short course of oral glucocorticoids
(consider antibiotics)

35
Q

Indications for COPD exacerbation should be managed in hospital

A

Cyanosis
Peripheral oedema
Alterations in consciousness

36
Q

If a patient has more than ? COPD exacerbations per year, you should consider prescribing a LABA or combination inhaler

A

2

37
Q

The prognosis of a COPD patient is inversely related to ?? and directly proportional to ???

A

Age

Post-bronchodilator therapy FEV1

38
Q

List 2 poor prognostic indicators in a COPD patient

A

Weight loss

Pulmonary hypertension

39
Q

Describe the scoring system used to assess prognosis in COPD patients

A 
BODE score:
B - BMI
O - degree of airflow obstruction (FEV1)
D - measurement of dyspnoea (MRC scale)
E - exercise tolerance (distance walked in 6 mins)

Score from 0-3 given for each category. Score or 0-2 = mortality of 10%, score of 7-10 = mortality of 80%.

40
Q

List the risk factors for a VTE

A 
Age
Obesity
Varicose veins
Previous DVT
Family history
Pregnancy
Oestrogen-containing oral contraceptives
HRT
Immobility
IVDU
Surgery
MI/Heart failure
IBD
Malignancy
Nephrotic syndrome
COPD
Pneumonia
Neurological conditions/spinal injury associated with immobility
Coagulation disorders
Lower limb fractures
Major trauma
Transfusions
Chemotherapy
EPO agents
IVF
Infection
41
Q

List the 3 components of Virchow’s triad

A

1) Hypercoaguability
2) Endothelial damage
3) Venous stasis

42
Q

Describe the clinical features of PE

A 
Faintness/collapse
Chest pain (central, crushing or pleuritic)
Dyspnoea
Haemoptysis
Cough
Sepsis symptoms
Symptoms of pulmonary hypertension or right heart failure
Apprehension
43
Q

What signs might you see on examination of a patient with PE?

A

Acute massive PE:

  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Raised JVP
  • Right ventricle gallop rhythm
  • Loud S2
  • Severe cyanosis
  • Decreased urinary output

Acute small/medium PE:

  • Tachycardia
  • Pleural rub
  • Raised hemidiaphragm
  • Crackles
  • Effusions (often blood stained)
  • Low-grade fever

Chronic PE:

  • RV heave
  • Loud S2
  • Signs of right heart failure
44
Q

What signs may you see on a CXR of a patient with PE?

A
  • Normal CXR
  • Oligaemia
  • Pleuropulmonary opacities
  • Pleural effusions
  • Linear shadows
  • Raised hemi-diaphragm
  • Enlarged pulmonary artery trunk
  • Enlarged heart, prominent right ventricle
45
Q

What signs may you see on the ECG of a patient with PE?

A
  • S1Q3T3
  • Anterior T wave inversion
  • RBBB
  • Sinus tachycardia
  • Normal ECG
  • RV hypertrophy
  • Right heart strain pattern
46
Q

What signs may you see on the ABG of a patient with PE?

A
  • Normal
  • Decreased PaO2
  • Decreased PaCO2
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Desaturation on exercise/exertion
47
Q

What differentials would you consider in a patient presenting with suspected PE?

A
  • MI
  • Pericardial tamponade
  • Aortic dissection
  • Pneumonia
  • Pneumothorax
  • MSK chest pain
48
Q

List some of the causes of bronchiectasis

A 
TB
Cystic fibrosis
Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Kartagener's syndrome
Primary hypogammaglobulinaemia
Severe infection in infancy e.g whooping cough, measles
Inhaled foreign body
Suppurative pneumonia
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis complicating asthma
Bronchial tumours
49
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bronchiectasis

A

Abnormal dilatation of the bronchi, resulting in chronic airway infection, sputum production, progressive scarring and lung damage.

50
Q

Clinical features of bronchiectasis

A 
Chronic, persistant cough
Copious, continuously purulent sputum
Pleuritic chest pain
Haemoptysis
Exertional breathlessness

Halitosis
Weight loss
Anorexia

Infective exacerbations are characterised by increased sputum production, fever, malaise and anorexia.

51
Q

Describe the features you may see on examination of a patient with bronchiectasis

A

Physical examination may be normal (if no airway secretions and no lobar collapse).

May show unilateral/bilateral:

  • Coarse crackles
  • Locally diminished breath sounds
  • Bronchial breathing
52
Q

What investigations would you consider in a patient with suspected bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Sputum culture
  2. CXR –> bronchiectasis not apparent unless extensive. May see thickened airway walls, cystic bronchiectatic spaces and associated consolidation or collapse
  3. CT –> thickened, dilated airways
  4. Ciliary dysfunction test/Saccharin test –> abnormal if >20 mins
  5. Nasal biopsy
  6. Electron microscopy
53
Q

Describe the management of a patient with bronchiectasis

A
  1. Inhaled bronchodilators
  2. Inhaled glucocorticoids
  3. Daily chest physiotherapy
  4. Antibiotics
  5. Surgical excision
54
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of CF

A

A mutation in a gene on chromosome 7 which codes for a chloride channel - causing increased sodium and chloride content in sweat and increased resorption of sodium and water from the respiratory epithelium, causing airway dehydration.

The most common mutation is F508.

55
Q

Clinical features of CF

A 
Recurrent bronchiectasis
Respiratory failure
Spontaneous pneumothorax
Haemoptysis
Lobar collapse
Pulmonary hypertension
Nasal polyps
Malabsorption and steatorrhoea
Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
Biliary cirrhosis
Portal hypertension, varices and splenomegaly
Insatiable appetite
Gallstones
Diabetes
Failure to thrive, delayed puberty
Male infertility
Stress incontinence
Psychosocial problems
Osteoporosis
Arthorapthy
Cutaneous vasculitis
56
Q

What investigations would you do in a patient with suspected CF?

A
  1. Immuno-reactive trypsinogen test (newborn screening)
  2. Electrolyte sweat testing - positive = sweat chloride >60mmol/L
  3. Genotyping
  4. Sinus x-ray
  5. Deep throat swab
57
Q

How would you manage a patient with CF?

A
  1. Daily chest physiotherapy
  2. Nebulised recombinant DNAse
  3. Nebulised tobramycin
  4. Regular azithromycin
  5. Nebulised hypertonic saline
  6. Oral/IV antibiotics during exacerbations
  7. Lung transplant
  • Oral pancreatic enzymes
  • Vitamin supplements
  • Insulin
  • Bisphosphonates
58
Q

What pathogens would you expect to see in patients with CF?

A

Children
- S. Aureus

Adults

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Strenotrophomonas maltophilia
  • Other gram negative bacilli
59
Q

Risk factors for CAP

A 
Smoking
Upper respiratory tract infection
Recent influenza
Pre-exisiting lung disease
Alcohol intake
Glucocorticoid therapy
Extremes of age
HIV
Indoor pollution
60
Q

What is the most common cause of CAP??

A

Strep. pneumoniae

61
Q

Clinical features of pneumonia

A 
Short, painful and dry cough --> becomes associated with mucopurulent sputum (or rust coloured sputum in Strep. pneumoniae)
Haemoptysis
Pleuritic chest pain
Fevers/rigors/shivering
Malaise
Delirium
Loss of appetite
Headache
62
Q

What features may you see on examination of a patient with pneumonia?

A
  • Reduced chest expansion
  • Dull percussion
  • Increased breath sounds
  • Bronchial breathing
  • Increased vocal resonance
  • Whispering pectoriloquy
  • Coarse crackles
  • Pleural rub
63
Q

What investigations would you consider in a patient with suspected CAP?

A
  1. Bloods - FBC, U&Es, LFTs, CRP
  2. Blood cultures
  3. ABG
  4. Sputum culture
  5. Viral throat swab
  6. CXR
  7. Urinalysis
  8. Cold agglutinins
64
Q

How would you manage a patient with mild CAP?

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Fluids
  3. 5 days Amoxicillin PO
  4. Pleural pain relief
65
Q

How would you manage a patient with moderate CAP?

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Fluids
  3. 5 days Amoxicillin PO + Clarithromycin IV
  4. Pleural pain relief
66
Q

How would you manage a patient with severe CAP?

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Fluids
  3. 5 days Co-amoxiclav/cefuroxime/ceftriaxone + Clarithromycin
  4. Pleural pain relief
67
Q

What follow up would you offer a patient with CAP?

A

Follow up appointment in 6 weeks time

Repeat CXR if still symptomatic

68
Q

Complications of CAP

A
  • Para-pneumnic effusion
  • Empyema
  • Lobar collapse
  • DVT/PE
  • Pneumothorax (S. Aureus)
  • Suppurative pneumonia/lung abscess
  • ARDs, renal failure, multi-organ failure
  • Ectopic abscess formation (S. Aureus)
    Hepatitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, meningoencephalitis, arrhythmias
69
Q

What are the indications for ITU referral in a patient with CAP?

A
  • CURB65 score 4-5, failing to respond rapidly to initial management
  • Persisting hypoxia despite high flow oxygen
  • Progressive hypercapnia
  • Severe acidosis
  • Circulatory shock
  • Reduced consciousness

Year 4 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions