RESPIRATORY Flashcards

1
Q

PNEUMONIA
Name 3 pathogens that can cause community acquired pneumonia (CAP)

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common)
  2. Haemophilus influenzae
  3. s.aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PNEUMONIA
Name 3 pathogens that can cause hospital acquired pneumonia (HAP)

A

mainly gram negative

  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. E.coli
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PNEUMONIA
What is the treatment for someone with Legionella pneumoniae?

A

Fluoroquinolone + clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PNEUMONIA
What is the treatment for someone with Pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia?

A

IV ceftazidime + gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

BRONCHIECTASIS
What can cause bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Congenital = Cystic fibrosis
  2. Idiopathic (50%)
  3. Post infection - (most common)
    • pneumonia,
    • TB,
    • whopping cough
  4. Bronchial obstruction
  5. RA
  6. Hypogammaglobulinaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

BRONCHIECTASIS
Which bacteria might cause bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Haemophilus influenza (children)
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (adults)
  3. Staphylococcus aureus (neonates often)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BRONCHIECTASIS
what are the symptoms of bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Chronic productive cough
  2. Purulent sputum
  3. Intermittent haemoptysis
  4. Dyspnoea
  5. Fever, weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BRONCHIECTASIS
what are the signs of bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Finger clubbing
  2. Coarse inspiratory crepitate (crackles)
  3. Wheeze
  4. rhonchi (low-pitched snore-like sound)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BRONCHIECTASIS
what are the investigations?

A

CXR - dilated airways with thickened walls (tram-tracks)

High resolution CT (gold standard) - bronchial dilation + wall thickening

sputum cultures

FBC

spirometry - obstructive pattern (FEV1/FVC <70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the treatment for bronchiectasis

A

1st line
- treat underlying cause
- chest physio
- annual flu vaccine
- antibiotics ofr exacerbations

2nd line
- mucoactive agent (carbocisteine)
- bronchodilator
- nebulised isotonic/hypertonic saline
- long term antbiotics (azithromycin)

long term oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

LUNG CANCER
which cancers most commonly metastasise to the lungs?

A

breast
bowel
kidney
bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

LUNG CANCER
Give examples of paraneoplastic syndromes due to lung cancer

A
  • ↑PTH -> Hyperparathyroidism
  • ↑ADH -> SIADH
  • ↑ACTH -> Cushing’s disease
  • lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ASTHMA
What are the signs of a life threatening asthma attack?

A
  1. Hypoxia = PaO2 <8 kPa, SaO2 <92%
  2. Silent chest
  3. Bradycardia
  4. Confusion
  5. PEFR < 33% predicted
  6. Cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ASTHMA
What is the long-term guideline mediation regime for asthma?

A
  1. low dose ICS/formoterol combination inhaler (AIR therapy) or if very symptomatic start low dose MART
  2. low dose MART
  3. moderate dose MART
  4. check FeNO + eosinophil level (if either is raised, refer to specialist).
    - If neither are raised = LTRA or LAMA in addition to moderate dose MART
    - if still not controlled, stop LTRA or LAMA and try other drug option (LTRA/LAMA)
  5. refer to specialist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

COPD
What can cause COPD?

A
  1. Genetic = alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
  2. Smoking = major cause
  3. Air pollution
  4. Occupational factors = dust, chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

COPD
Give 4 signs of COPD

A
  1. Tachypnoea
  2. Barrel shaped chest
  3. Hyperinflantion
  4. Cyanosis
  5. Pulmonary hypertension
  6. Cor pulmonale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

COPD
What investigations might you do to diagnose someone with COPD?

A

Spirometry = FEV1:FVC < 0.7
CXR = hyperinflation, bullae, flat hemi-diaphragms, large pulmonary arteries
CT = Bronchial wall thickening, enlarged air spaces
ECG = RA and RV hypertrophy
ABG = decreased PaO2 +/- hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

COPD
What are the treatments for COPD?

A
  1. SABA or SAMA as required

if NO asthmatic features:
2. SABA as required, LABA + LAMA regularly

if asthmatic features:
2. SABA or SAMA as required, LABA + ICS regularly

  1. SABA as required, LABA + LAMA + ICS regularly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what are the causes of a transudate pleural effusion?

A

fluid movement (systemic causes)

  1. Heart failure
  2. fluid overload
  3. Peritoneal dialysis
  4. Constrictive pericarditis
  5. hypoproteinaemia
    • cirrhosis
    • hypoaluminaemia
    • nephrotic syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
Name 3 causes of a exudate pleural effusion

A

inflammatory (local causes)

  1. Pneumonia
  2. Malignancy
  3. TB
  4. pulmonary infarction
  5. lymphoma
  6. mesothelioma
  7. asbestos exposure
  8. MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PNEUMOTHORAX
What is the treatment for a primary pneumothorax?

A

PRIMARY
- small (<2cm) + asymptomatic = consider discharge
- if >2cm or breathless = aspirate with 16-18G needle
- if successful consider discharge + follow-up
- If unsuccessful insert chest drain + admit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SARCOIDOSIS
what are the symptoms?

A
  • non-productive cough
  • gradual onset dyspnoea
  • polyarthralgia
  • uveitis (red eye, photophobia)
  • fever
  • fatigue
  • weight loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SARCOIDOSIS
How can you stage sarcoidosis?

A

Using CXR
Stage 1 = bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL)
Stage 2 = pulmonary infiltrates with BHL
Stage 3 = pulmonary infiltrates without BHL
Stage 4 = progressive pulmonary fibrosis, bulla formation and bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SARCOIDOSIS
How do you treat sarcoidosis?

A

asymptomatic non-progressive = observation

symptomatic or progressive = 1st line - corticosteroids, 2nd line - immunosuppressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IDIOPATHIC PULMONARY FIBROSIS
what are the risk factors of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • cigarette smoking
  • infectious agents - CMV, Hep C, EBV
  • occupational dust exposure
  • drugs - methotrexate, imipramine
  • GORD
  • genetic predisposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

IDIOPATHIC PULMONARY FIBROSIS
What is the treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

SUPPORTIVE CARE
- pulmonary rehab
- long term oxygen
- pneumonia + flu vaccines

ANTI-FIBROTIC AGENTS
- pirifenidone
- nintedanib

LUNG TRANSPLANTATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
what are the causes of pulmonary hypertension

A
  • pre-capillary
    • multiple small PE’s
    • left-to-right shunts
    • primary
  • capillary
    • emphysema
    • COPD
  • Post-capillary
    • backlog of blood causes secondary hypertension
    • LV failure
  • chronic hypoxaemia
    • living at high altitude
    • COPD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
What are the investigations?

A

Initial tests:
- CXR - Enlarged main pulmonary artery, enlarged hilar vessels and pruning.

  • ECG - right ventricular hypertrophy,right axis deviation, right atrial enlargement. (A normal ECG does not rule out the presence of significant pulmonary hypertension)
  • TTE - (trans-thoracic echocardiogram)

Diagnostic test: Right heart catheterisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
Describe the treatment of pulmonary hypertension

A

1st line
- CCBs
- pulmonary vasodilators e.g. prostacyclin, sildenafil
- diuretics
- oxygen therapy
- anticoagulation (warfarin or NOAC)

2nd line
- lung transplant
- balloon atrial septostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TB
Give 2 potential side effects of Pyrazinamide

A
  1. Hepatitis
  2. Gout
  3. Neuropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what are the risk factors for pleural effusion?

A
  • Previous lung damage

- Asbestos exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PNEUMOTHORAX
what are the risk factors for pneumothorax?

A

Smoking
Family history
Male
Tall and slender build
Young age
Presence of underlying lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PNEUMONIA
which bacteria causes rusty sputum in pneumonia?

A

strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

PNEUMONIA
what are the common organisms that cause atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae,
Chlamydophila pneumoniae,
Legionella pneumophila
coxiella burnetii

35
Q

BRONCHIECTASIS
what antibiotics are used for bronchiectasis?

A
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa = oral ciprofloxacin
  • h.influenzae = oral amoxycillin, co-amoxyclav or doxycycline
  • staph aureus = flucloxacillin
36
Q

LUNG CANCER
where does squamous cell carcinoma of the lung arise from?

A
  • epithelial cells typically in the central bronchus
37
Q

LUNG CANCER
where does adenocarcinoma arise from?

A

mucus-secreting glandular cells

38
Q

ASTHMA
which drugs can trigger asthma attacks?

A

NSAIDs and aspirin

beta blockers - results in bronchoconstriction which results in airflow limitation and potential attack

39
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
give 2 examples of LABAs

A
  • salmeterol

- formoterol (full agonist)

40
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
give an example of a SAMA

A

ipratropium

41
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
give an example of a LAMA

A

tiotropium

42
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what are the side effects of ICS?

A

Loss of bone density
Adrenal suppression
Cataracts
Glaucoma

43
Q

LUNG CANCER
what are the extra-pulmonary manifestations of lung cancer?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy - hoarse voice

Superior vena cava obstruction - facial swelling, distended veins in neck and upper chest, Pemberton’s sign

Horner’s syndrome - ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

44
Q

PNEUMONIA
which bacteria is associated with causing pneumonia in COPD patients?

A

h.influenzae

45
Q

PNEUMONIA
which bacteria is associated with aspiration pneumonia?

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

46
Q

PNEUMONIA
what is the management of HAP?

A

low severity = oral co-amoxiclav
high severity = broad spectrum abx (IV tazocin or ceftriaxone)

47
Q

CYSTIC FIBROSIS
how does orkambi work?

A
  • LUMACAFTOR - increases number of CFTR proteins transported to cell membranes
  • IVACAFTOR - potentiates CFTR proteins on cell surface, increases chance channel will open
48
Q

ASTHMA
what is the management of a severe/life-threatening asthma exacerbation?

A
  • oxygen
  • nebulised bronchodilator (salbutamol)
  • corticosteroid (40-50mg prednisolone)
  • ipratropium bromide
  • IV magnesium sulfate
  • IV aminophylline
49
Q

PNEUMOTHORAX
what is the management for a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

SMALL (1-2cm)
- aspirate with 16-18G needle
- admit with high flow oxygen

LARGE (>2cm) or breathless
- insert chest drain
- admit with high flow oxygen

50
Q

PNEUMOTHORAX
where is the needle for aspiration of a spontaneous pneumothorax placed?

A
  • 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line
51
Q

PNEUMOTHORAX
what are the indications for surgical management?

A
  • 2nd ipsilateral pneumothorax
  • 1st contralateral pneumothorax
  • bilateral spontaneous pnemothorax
  • persistent air leak after 5-7 days chest drain
  • pregnancy
  • at risk profession e.g. pilots + divers
52
Q

SARCOIDOSIS
what are the signs?

A
  • cervical + submandibular lymphadenopathy
  • lupus pernio (lupus-type rash)
  • erythema nodosum (dusky coloured nodules on shins)
53
Q

PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
what are the signs?

A
  • right parasternal heave
  • loud 2nd heart sound
  • pulmonary or tricuspid regurgitation
  • raised JVP
  • signs of underlying condition
54
Q

PNEUMOCONIOSIS
what is the pathophysiology?

A
  • when dust particles are inhaled, they reach terminal bronchioles + are ingested by interstitial + alveolar macrophages
  • dust particles are carried by macrophages + expelled as mucus
  • if exposed for a long time these systems no longer function
  • macrophages accumulate in alveoli resulting in immune system activation + lung tissue damage
55
Q

PNEUMOCONIOSIS
what are the different types?

A
  • coal workers pneumoconiosis (coal miners)
  • silicosis (quarry workers, silica miners)
  • berylliosis (aerospace industry, beryllium miners)
  • asbestosis (construction workers, plumbers)
56
Q

PNEUMOCONIOSIS
what are the investigations?

A
  • CXR - opacities in upper lobes, eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes
  • SPIROMETRY - restrictive pattern (FEV1/FVC>0.7)
  • HIGH RESOLUTION CT CHEST - interstitial fibrosis
57
Q

PNEUMOCONIOSIS
how is it staged?

A

using CXR
- 0 = small rounded opacities absent
- 1 = small rounded opacities but few in number
- 2 = numerous small rounded opacities but normal lung markings
-3 = numerous small rounded opacities + obscured lung markings

58
Q

PNEUMOCONIOSIS
what is the management?

A
  • smoking cessation
  • avoidance of exposure
  • pulmonary rehab
  • supplementary oxygen
  • corticosteroids
  • lung transplant
59
Q

HYPERSENTIVITY PNEUMONITIS
what is it?

A

type III + IV hypersensitivity reaction to an environmental allergen

60
Q

HYPERSENTIVITY PNEUMONITIS
give some examples of causes

A
  • bird fanciers lung (bird droppings)
  • farmers lung (mould spores in hay)
  • mushroom workers lung (mushroom antigens)
  • malt workers lung (mould on barley)
61
Q

HYPERSENTIVITY PNEUMONITIS
what are the investigations?

A
  • bronchoalveolar lavage = raised lymphocytes
62
Q

HYPERSENTIVITY PNEUMONITIS
what is the management?

A
  • removal of allergen
  • oxygen
  • corticosteroids
63
Q

RESPIRATORY FAILURE
what are the causes of type 1 respiratory failure?

A
  • pneumonia
  • heart failure
  • asthma
  • PE
  • high altitude pulmonary oedema
64
Q

RESPIRATORY FAILURE
what are the causes of type 2 respiratory failure?

A
  • opiate toxicity
  • iatrogenic
  • neuromuscular disease (MND, GBS)
  • reduced chest wall compliance (Obesity)
  • increased airway resistance (COPD)
65
Q

INFLUENZA
what is the management?

A
  • not treatment required for majority
  • if at risk or have severe flu, offer anti-virals (zanamivir, oseltamivir)
66
Q

ACUTE BRONCHITIS
what is the management?

A
  • analgesia
  • good fluid intake
  • antibiotics (DOXYCYCLINE (or AMOXICILLIN if contraindicated))

consider antibiotics if:
- systemically unwell
- have pre-existing co-morbidities
- delayed abx prescription if CRP 20-100
- immediate abx if CRP >100

67
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what is the light’s criteria?

A

exudate is likely if:
- pleural fluid to serum protein ratio >0.5
- pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH ratio >0.6
- pleural fluid LDH >2/3 upper limits of normal serum LDH

68
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what does low glucose in pleural fluid indicate?

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • tuberculosis
69
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what does a raised amylase in pleural fluid indicate?

A
  • pancreatitis
  • oesophageal perforation
70
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what does heavy blood staining in pleural fluid indicate?

A
  • mesothelioma
  • PE
  • tuberculosis
71
Q

PLEURAL EFFUSION
what are the indications of a pleural infection?

A
  • purulent or turbid/cloudy fluid
  • clear fluid but pH <7.2 (chest drain must be inserted)
72
Q

PULMONARY FIBROSIS
what are the causes of upper lobe pulmonary fibrosis?

A

SCART
- sarcoidosis
- coal miners pneumoconiosis
- ankylosing spondylitis
- radiation
- TB

73
Q

PULMONARY FIBROSIS
what are the causes of lower lobe pulmonary fibrosis?

A

RASIO
- Rheumatoid
- Asbestosis
- Scleroderma
- Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (most common)
- other

74
Q

COPD
what is the criteria for LTOT?

A

pO2 <7.3

pO2 7.3-8kPa and one of the following:
- secondary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary hypertension

do not offer LTOT to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation

75
Q

PNEUMONIA
what is the most common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics?

A

klebsiella

76
Q

ASTHMA
what are the investigations for asthma in adults?

A

1st line = FeNO or eosinophil levels
2nd line = bronchodilator reversibility with spirometry
3rd line = peak expiratory flow variability
4th line = skin prick or total IgE

77
Q

ASTHMA
what are the investigations for asthma in children aged 5-16?

A

1st line = FeNO (asthma = >35)
2nd line = bronchodilator reversibility with spirometry
3rd line = peak expiratory flow variability
4th line = skin prick or total IgE

if still in doubt = bronchial challenge test

78
Q

ASTHMA
what are the 3 drugs and their doses that should be immediately administered in an acute asthma exacerbation?

A
  • oxygen - 15L via non-rebreather
  • salbutamol nebuliser 2.5-5mg
  • IV hydrocortisone 20mg or 40-50mg oral prednisolone
79
Q

LUNG CANCER
what paraneoplastic features are associated with small cell lung cancer?

A
  • ADH
  • ACTH (cushing’s)
  • Lambert Eaton syndrome
80
Q

LUNG CANCER
what are the paraneoplastic features of squamous cell lung cancer?

A
  • parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rp)
  • clubbing
  • hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
  • hyperthyroidism
81
Q

LUNG CANCER
what are the paraneoplastic features of adenocarcinoma lung cancer?

A
  • gynaecomastia
  • hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)
82
Q

COPD
how is a mild exacerbation of COPD managed?

A
  • increase bronchodilator use + consider nebuliser
  • 30mg oral prednisolone for 5 days
  • only give antibiotics if sputum is purulent or signs of infection
  • 1st line abx = amoxicillin, clarithromycin or doxycycline
83
Q

PNEUMONIA
what are the CURB65 criteria?

A

C = confusion
U = urea >7
R = resp rate >30
B = BP systolic <90, diastolic <60
65 = >65