PASSMED Flashcards

1
Q

PSC
which cancer is most commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MEDICATIONS
why should ciprofloxacin not be given to epileptics?

A

it lowers the seizure threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HAEMOLYTIC URAEMIC SYNDROME
what is the most useful diagnostic test?

A

blood film - shows schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what is the management of hypothermia in cardiac arrest?

A

only 3 shocks should be administered before the patient is warmed to 30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ANOREXIA
what is refeeding syndrome?

A
  • caused by sudden introduction of glucose after prolonged starvation
  • when glucose is low, cell metabolism slows
  • when glucose is reintroduced it causes insulin to be released, which pushes glucose into cells
  • causes demand for phosphate, potassium + magnesium
  • leads to hypophophataemia, hypokalaemia + hypomagnesaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AF
how would you manage a patient with stable heart disease with a new diagnosis of AF?

A

stop clopidogrel
start anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CARDIAC ARREST
which kind of cardiac arrest can be caused by a penumothorax?

A

pulseless electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

STROKE
how would you manage a patient with very high blood pressure and an ischaemic stroke?

A
  • if blood pressure >185/110, control BP before thrombolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HERNIA
what is the definition of a hernia?

A

protrusion of part/whole of an organ or tissue through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

INGUINAL HERNIA
what is the difference between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia in terms of how they enter the canal?

A
  • direct = bowel enters inguinal canal directly through weakness in posterior wall of the canal
  • indirect = enters inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

INGUINAL HERNIA
which type of inguinal hernia is more commonly seen in children and why?

A
  • indirect inguinal hernia
  • because of a patent processus vaginalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AGE RELATED MACULAR DEGENERATION
what is the management?

A
  • Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor
  • given via intravitreal injections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ARTHRITIS
what is the difference between oligoarthritis and polyarthritis?

A
  • oligoarthritis = affects 4 joints or fewer
  • polyarthritis = more than 4 joints affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HEP B TESTING
which 2 serological markers are used initially in hep B screening?

A

HBsAg (Hep B surface antigen)
anti-HBc (Hep B core antibody)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HEP B TESTING
which marker gives a direct count of viral load?

A

HBV DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HEP B TESTING
what is injected in the Hep B vaccine?

A

HBsAg (Hep B surface antigen)

17
Q

HEP B TESTING
which Hep B serological marker indicates immunity post vaccination?

18
Q

GOUT
what is the crystal composition in gout?

A

monosodium urate

19
Q

PSEUDOGOUT
what is the crystal composition in pseudogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate

20
Q

GOUT
what type of medications is allopurinol?

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

21
Q

BRADYCARDIA
how would you manage bradycardia (give drug and dose)?

A
  1. 500 micrograms atropine IV
  2. repeat 500 micrograms atropine IV (repeat if needed until 3mg given)
  3. transcutaneous pacing
22
Q

ASTHMA
what is the discharge criteria following treatment for an asthma attack?

A
  • PEFR >75%
  • inhaler technique checked
  • been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for 12-24 hours
23
Q

SMOKING
how do you calculate pack years?

A

1 pack year = 20 cigarettes per day for 1 year