NEUROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

STROKE
What is the treatment for an ischaemic stroke?

A

Immediate management:

  • CT/MRI to exclude haemorrhagic stroke
  • aspirin 300mg

Antiplatelet therapy

  • aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks
  • clopidogrel daily long term

Anticoagulation (e.g. warfarin) for AF

thrombolysis

  • within 4.5 hrs of onset
  • IV alteplase
  • lots of contraindications (can cause massive bleeds)

mechanical thromboectomy
- endovascular removal of thrombus

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2
Q

STROKE
What other treatment can be given in ischaemic stroke either alongside alteplase or after the time frame?

A
  • Thrombectomy (mechanical retrieval of clot)
  • Proximal anterior circulation stroke within 6h (with IV alteplase if <4.5h) or within 24h if potential to salvage brain tissue
  • Proximal posterior circulation stroke within 24h (with IV alteplase if <4.5h) if potential to salvage brain tissue
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3
Q

STROKE
What medication may be given as secondary prevention following a stroke?

A
  • Antiplatelets (lifelong clopidogrel or aspirin + dipyridamole if cardiac disease)
  • Anticoagulation if have AF but wait 2w post-stroke
  • Manage co-morbidities (HTN, DM)
  • Cholesterol >3.5mmol/L diet + 80mg atorvastatin
  • VTE assessment + monitor for infection
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4
Q

SAH
What is the pathophysiology of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)?

A
  1. tissue ischaemia - less blood, O2 and nutrients can reach the tissue due to bleeding loss -> cell death
  2. raised ICP - fast flowing arterial blood is pumped into the cranial space
  3. space occupying lesion - puts pressure on the brain
  4. brain irritates meninges - these inflame causing meningism symptoms. This can obstruct CSF outflow -> hydrocephalus
  5. vasospasm - bleeding irritates other vessels -> ischaemic injury
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5
Q

SAH
what are the investigations?

A

non-contrast CT head
- if CT done within 6hrs of onset + is normal = no need for LP, alternative diagnosis should be considered
- if CT done after 6hrs onset + is normal = LP required

LP should be done 12hrs after onset to allow xanthochromia to develop

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6
Q

SAH
What is the management of SAH?

A

1st line
- nimodipine 60mg 4hrly
- endovascular coiling (2nd line = surgical clipping)

  • if raised ICP = IV mannitol, hyperventilation + head elevation
  • conservative = bed rest, stool softeners
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7
Q

EDH
What is the management for EDH?

A
  • bed position = tilted to 30 degrees
  • intubation if low GCS
  • maintain cerebral perfusion (hyperventilation, inotropes + vasopressors, fluids, hypertonic saline or IV MANNITOL)
  • hypothermia
  • burr hole

DEFINITIVE
- Craniotomy + haematoma evacuation

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8
Q

SDH
What is the management of SDH?

A

IV mannitol

ACUTE
- monitor intracranial pressure
- decompressive craniectomy

CHRONIC
- can be monitored + managed conservatively
- burr hole decompression if pt is confused, has neuro deficit or severe image findings

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9
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS
What is the step-wise management of status epilepticus?

A

PRE-HOSPITAL/EARLY STATUS (<10 MINS)
- in community 1st line = buccal midazolam (2nd line = rectal diazepam)
- in hospital 1st line = 4mg IV lorazepam (2nd line = IV diazepam)
two doses of benzodiazepine given 10 mins apart

ESTABLISHED STATUS (>10 MINS)
- alert on-call anaesthetist
- one of following: phenytoin, levetiracetam, sodium valproate
if one fails, try another agent on list

REFRACTORY STATUS (>30 MINS)
- phenobarbitone
- general anaesthesia with propofol, midazolam or thiopental

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10
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What are 4 differential diagnoses to consider in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Parkinson’s plus syndromes –
- Progressive supranuclear palsy
- Multiple system atrophy
- Lewy Body dementia
- Corticobasal degeneration

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11
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What is progressive supranuclear palsy?

A
  • Early falls, cognitive decline or both sides being equally affected
  • Occurs above nuclei of CN3, 4 + 6 so difficulty moving eyes
  • Impaired vertical gaze (down worse = issues reading or descending stairs)
  • Ocular cephalic reflex present (caused by supranuclear issue) where they tilt/turn their head to look at things rather than moving eyes
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12
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What is multiple system atrophy?

A
  • Neurones in multiple systems in the brain degenerate
  • Degeneration in basal ganglia > Parkinsonism
  • Degeneration in other areas > early autonomic (postural hypotension + falls, bladder/bowel dysfunction) + cerebellar (ataxia) dysfunction
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13
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What is Lewy Body dementia associated with?

A
  • Associated with Sx of visual hallucinations, delusions, REM sleep disorders, fluctuating consciousness, progressive cognitive decline + Parkinsonism
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14
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What is corticobasal degeneration?

A
  • Early myoclonic jerks, gait apraxia, agnosia + alien limb
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15
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
What is the management of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Lifestyle: education, exercise, physio, MDT

1st line:
- if motor symptoms are affecting QoL = L-DOPA (CO-CARELDOPA)
- if motor symptoms not affecting QoL = dopamine agonist (ROPINIROLE) or MAO-B inhibitor (SELEGILINE or RASAGALINE)

2nd line
- COMT inhibitor (ENTACAPONE)
- amantadine
- SC apomorphine (in advanced disease with severe motor symptoms)
- deep brain stimulation

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16
Q

MIGRAINE
What is the pathophysiology of migraines?

A
  • Changes in brainstem blood flow leads to unstable trigeminal nerve nucleus + nuclei in basal thalamus
  • Leads to release of vasoactive neuropeptides CGRP + substance P > neurogenic inflammation > vasodilation + plasma protein extravasation leading to pain propagating all over the cerebral cortex
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17
Q

MIGRAINE
What are the triggers of migraines?

A

CHOCOLATE –
- Chocolate
- Hangovers
- Orgasms
- Cheese/caffeine
- Oral contraceptives
- Lie-ins
- Alcohol
- Travel
- Exercise

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18
Q

MIGRAINE
What is the acute management of migraines?

A
  • PO (or nasal in paeds) triptan like sumatriptan plus paracetamol or NSAID
  • Antiemetic like metoclopramide or prochlorperazine if vomiting occurs
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19
Q

MND
What is progressive bulbar palsy?
What does it affect?
What does it need to be differentiated from?

A
  • Only affects CN 9–12 (brainstem motor nuclei) so LMN of them
  • Primarily affects muscles of talking, chewing, tongue palsy + swallowing
  • Progressive pseudobulbar palsy = destruction of UMN so same as bulbar but small spastic tongue with no fasciculations
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20
Q

MND
What is…

i) progressive muscular atrophy?
ii) primary lateral sclerosis?

A

i) Anterior horn cells affected so LMN signs only, distal > proximal
ii) Loss of cells in motor cortex so UMN signs only

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21
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What are some classic sites for MS?

A
  • Periventricular white matter lesions
  • Predilection for distinct sites – optic nerves, corpus callosum, brainstem + cerebellar peduncles
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22
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is the diagnostic criteria for MS?

A

McDonald criteria –
- >2 relapses
- Multiple CNS lesions (≥2)
- Sx that last >24h
- Disseminated in space (Clinically or on MRI) and time (>1m apart)

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23
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What are the symptoms of MS?

A

SYMPTOMS
- blurred vision + red desaturation (optic neuritis)
- numbness + tingling
- weakness
- bowel + bladder dysfunction
- Uhtoff’s phenomenon (worsening symptoms following temperature rise e.g. hot bath/shower)

SIGNS
- visual (pale optic disc + inability to see red, relative afferent pupillary defect)
- internuclear ophthalmoplegia
- sensory loss
- UMN signs (spastic paraparesis)
- cerebellar signs (ataxia + tremor)
- Lhermitte’s phenomenon (electric shock sensation on neck flexion)

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24
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
In terms of the symptoms of MS, what is the pattern of motor weakness?

A

i) Pyramidal pattern so extensors weaker than flexors in upper limb, flexors weaker than extensors in lower

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25
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is the management of MS relapses?
How does this affect disease prognosis?

A
  • oral/IV methylprednisolone for 5 days
  • plasma exchange (for sudden, severe relapses not responding to steroids)
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26
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
What is the management of MS remissions?

A

DMARDs
- natalizumab
- ocrelizumab
- fingolimod
- beta-interferon
- glatiramer acetate

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27
Q

MENINGITIS
What is the management of bacterial meningitis

A

1st line = ceftriaxone/cefotaxime (+ amoxicillin if <3m or >55)
IV dexamethasone (avoid in meningococcal sepsis)

if penicillin allergic = IV chloramphenicol

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28
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS
What are the most common causative organisms?

A
  • Staph. aureus + strep. pnuemoniae
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29
Q

BRAIN ABSCESS
What is the management of brain abscess?

A

1ST LINE
- empirical antibiotics (IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole)
- treat underlying cause

2ND LINE
- abscess drainage/excision

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30
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What are the components of ‘eyes’ in GCS?

A

E4 = opens spontaneously
E3 = opens to verbal command
E2 = opens to pain
E1 = no response

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31
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What are the components of ‘verbal’ in GCS?

A

V5 = orientated in TPP, answers appropriately
V4 = confused conversation, odd answers
V3 = inappropriate words (random, abusive)
V2 = incomprehensible sounds (groans)
V1 = no response

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32
Q

BRAIN DEATH + COMA
What are the components of ‘motor’ in GCS?

A

M6 = obeys commands
M5 = localises pain
M4 = withdraws away from painful stimulus
M3 = flexion to pain
M2 = extension to pain
M1 = no response

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33
Q

MYASTHENIC CRISIS
What is the management of myasthenic crisis?

A
  • Urgent review by neurologists + anaesthetists
  • IV immunoglobulins or parapheresis
  • intubation
  • corticosteroids
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34
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
What is the management of myasthenia gravis?

A

1st line = acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (pyridostigmine)

2nd line = prednisolone

3rd line = azathioprine

other = methotrexate or rituximab

Thymectomy if thymoma present

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35
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE
What is the pathophysiology of GBS?

A
  • B cells produce antibodies against the antigens on the pathogen causing the preceding infection and these antibodies also match proteins on the nerve cells leading to demyelination and potentially axonal degeneration
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36
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE
What is the clinical presentation of GBS?

A

SYMPTOMS
- tingling + numbness in hands and feet (often precedes muscle weakness)
- symmetrical ascending progresive weakness
- unsteady when walking
- back and leg pain
- SOB
- facial weakness and speech problems

SIGNS
- reduced sensation in affected limbs
- symmetrical weakness
- ataxia with hyporeflexia
- autonomic dysfunction (tachycardia, HTN, postural hypotension, urinary retention)
- respiratory distress
- cranial nerve involvement and bulbar dysfunction (diplopia, facial droop)

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37
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE
What are the investigations for GBS?

A

BLOODS
- U&Es
- B12 + folate
- TFTs (exclude hypothyroidism)
- anti-ganglionside antibodies

CULTURES
- stool or sputum

LUMBAR PUNCTURE
- raised protein with normal WCC

To consider
- nerve conduction studies (not required for diagnosis)
- MRI brain + spinal cord

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38
Q

NEUROPATHY
What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A
  • Autosomal dominant condition.
  • Characterised by high-arched feet, distal muscle weakness + atrophy (inverted champagne bottle legs), hyporeflexia, foot drop + hammer toes
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39
Q

CORD COMPRESSION
What are the signs of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Motor, reflex + sensory level = normal ABOVE lesion
  • LMN signs = AT level
  • UMN signs = BELOW level
  • Tone + reflexes usually reduced in acute cord compression
  • ?Sign of infection like tender spine, pyrexia
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40
Q

CORD COMPRESSION
How does degenerative cervical myelopathy present?

A
  • Pain, loss of motor or sensory function affecting neck, upper or lower limbs
  • Loss of autonomic function
  • Hoffman’s sign +ve
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41
Q

SPINAL CORD INJURY
What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  • Lateral hemisection of spinal cord
  • Ipsilateral weakness below the lesion (lateral corticospinal)
  • Ipsilateral loss of fine touch, proprioception + vibration (DCML)
  • Contralateral loss of pain + temp (lateral spinothalamic)
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42
Q

ANTERIOR CORD SYNDROME
What is anterior cord syndrome?

A
  • Anterior spinal artery occlusion or compression
  • Bilateral spastic paresis (lateral corticospinal)
  • Bilateral loss of pain + temp (lateral spinothalamic)
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43
Q

SPINAL CORD INJURY
What is posterior cord syndrome?

A
  • Trauma or posterior spinal artery occlusion
  • Loss of fine touch, proprioception + vibration (DCML)
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44
Q

MYOPATHY
How do myopathies present?

A
  • Symmetrical proximal pattern of muscle weakness (hairs, stairs + chairs)
  • Weakness > wasting
  • Reflexes + sensation normal, no fasciculations
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45
Q

IDIOPATHIC INTRACRANIAL HYPERTENSION
What is the management of IIH?

A
  • # 1 weight loss (topiramate can be used + has benefit of weight loss)
  • Acetazolamide
  • Surgery = optic nerve sheath decompression + fenestration to prevent damage
  • Lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt
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46
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are some side effects and important information for…

i) carbamazepine?
ii) valproate?
iii) lamotrigine

A

i) Blurred vision, headache, drowsiness – agranulocytosis, aplastic anaemia, P450 inducer
ii) Teratogenic, hepatitis, hair loss, tremor, weight gain – some interactions with antidepressants
iii) Blurred vision, headache, drowsiness – Steven-Johnson syndrome + risk of leukopenia

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47
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are some side effects and important information for…

i) phenytoin?
ii) levetiracetam?
iii) ethosuximide?

A

i) Megaloblastic anaemia (folate), osteomalacia, teratogenic, P450 interactions – Steven-Johnson syndrome
ii) Headache, drowsiness – some interactions with antidepressants
iii) Night terrors, rashes

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48
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What is the mechanism of action of Levodopa?

A
  • Levodopa is dopamine precursor which can cross BBB to be converted to dopamine by dopa-decarboxylase
  • Must be combined with peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor like carbidopa so levodopa can reach brain
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49
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are the side effects of Levodopa?

A
  • Postural hypotension
  • Confusion
  • Dyskinesias (abnormal movements)
  • Effectiveness decreases with time (even with dose increase)
  • On-off effect
  • Psychosis
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50
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
Give some examples of dopamine receptor agonists.
What is the mechanism of action?
What are some side effects?
What monitoring is required?

A
  • Bromocriptine, cabergoline, ropinirole
  • Increases amount of dopamine in CNS
  • Hallucinations (more than levodopa), postural hypotension
  • ECHO, ESR, creatinine + CXR prior to Rx
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51
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are some adverse effects of dopamine receptor agonists?

A
  • Pulmonary retroperitoneal + cardiac fibrosis
  • Bromocriptine associated with gambling + other inhibition disorders (e.g. sexual)
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52
Q

NEURO PHARMACOLOGY
What are COMT + MAO-B inhibitors?
What is the mechanism of action?

A
  • Catechol-o-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor = entacapone
  • Monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitor = selegiline
  • Inhibit enzymatic breakdown of dopamine
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53
Q

STROKE
What is the timeframe for thrombolysis for ischaemic strokes?

A
  • Within 4.5 hours of the onset of symptoms
54
Q

STROKE
what is the mechanism of action for alteplase / streptokinase (thrombolysis drugs for ischaemic stroke)?

A
  • Converts plasminogen > plasmin so promotes breakdown of fibrin clot
  • Alteplase (tPA) or can use streptokinase
55
Q

EPILEPSY
How would a partial seizure present in the parietal lobe?

A

paraesthesia
visual hallucinations
visual illusions

56
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
In terms of the symptoms of MS, what is Lhermitte’s sign?

A

Neck flexion causes electric shock sensation down spine

57
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
In terms of the symptoms of MS, what is Uhthoff’s phenomenon?

A

symptoms worsening in heat e.g. in the shower/exercise

58
Q

MENINGITIS
What are the aseptic causes of meningitis?

A

MS.
HSV2, SLE, sarcoidosis + skull # can cause recurrent aseptic meningitis

59
Q

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
What medications can exacerbate myasthenia gravis?

A

Abx, CCBs, beta-blockers, lithium + statins

60
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS
What focal signs would you get if the tumour was located in the temporal lobe?

A

Receptive dysphasia, amnesia

61
Q

BRAIN TUMOURS
What focal signs would you get if the tumour was located in the parietal lobe?

A

Hemisensory loss, dysphasia

62
Q

BELL’S PALSY
what are the symptoms?

A

unilateral LMN facial weakness (forehead is affected)
altered taste
post auricular pain - pain behind ears
- hyperacusis (noise sensitivity)
- dry mouth

63
Q

BELL’S PALSY
what is the management?

A
  • prednisolone
  • eye protection (eye lubricants or artificial tears should be considered
64
Q

NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
what are the clinical signs of NF1?

A
  • cafe-au-lait spots on the skin
  • pea-sized lumps under skin
  • skeletal abnormalities
  • tumour on optic nerve
65
Q

NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
what are the clincial signs of NF2?

A
  • acoustic neuromas (bilateral)
  • family history
  • meningioma, schwannoma, juvenile cortical cataracts or glioma
66
Q

NEUROFIBROMATOSIS
what are the causes of neurofibromatosis 1 and 2?

A

NF1 = chromosome 17 (autosomal dominant)
NF2 = chromosome 22 (autosomal dominant)

67
Q

NARCOLEPSY
what is the management?

A

1st line = sleep hygiene + lifestyle changes
can also consider pharmacotherapy
- modafinil
- pitolisant
- sodium oxybate

68
Q

CATAPLEXY
what is the management?

A

sodium oxybate
tricyclic antidepressants (clomipramine)
SSRIs

69
Q

EPILEPSY
what is the treatment for generalised myoclonic epilepsy?

A

male = sodium valproate
female = levetiracetam

70
Q

PARKINSON’S DISEASE
Give 2 histopathological signs of Parkinson’s disease

A
  1. Loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra
  2. Lewy bodies
71
Q

MND
What is the diagnostic criteria for MND?

A

LMN + UMN signs in 3 regions

El Escorial criteria

Presences of LMN and UMN degeneration and progressive history
Absence of other disease processes

72
Q

GUILLAIN-BARRE
When is IV immunoglobulin contraindicated in the treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

If a patient has IgA deficiency - can cause severe allergic reaction

73
Q

ANTERIOR CORD SYNDROME
what are the symptoms?

A
  • acute motor dysfunction
  • loss of pain and temperature sensation below level of infarction
  • autonomic dysfunction - neurogenic bowel/bladder
  • acute onset back pain
74
Q

ANTERIOR CORD SYNDROME
what are the investigations?

A

MRI - ‘owls eyes’ hyperintensities in anterior horns

lumbar puncture, CSF testing, blood and urine to rule out other causes

75
Q

HORNER’S SYNDROME
what are the causes of 1st order horner’s syndrome?

A

Stroke
Syringomyelia
MS
tumour
encephalitis

anhidrosis to face, arm and trunk

76
Q

HORNER’S SYNDROME
what are the causes of 2nd order horner’s syndrome?

A

Pancoast’s tumour
thyroidectomy
trauma
cervical rib

anhidrosis of face

77
Q

HORNER’S SYNDROME
what are the causes of 3rd order horner’s syndrome?

A

carotid artery dissection
carotid aneurysm
cavernous sinus thrombosis
cluster headache

no anhidrosis

78
Q

HORNER’S SYNDROME
what are the clinical features of horner’s syndrome?

A

MAPLE

Miosis
Anhydrosis
Ptosis
Loss of ciliospinal reflex
Endophthalmos (sunken eyeball)

79
Q

TIA
what are the signs of a carotid TIA?

A

Amaurosis fugax = retinal artery occlusion –> vision loss
Aphasia
Hemiparesis
Hemisensory loss
hemianopia

80
Q

TIA
what are the signs of a vertebrobasilar TIA?

A

Diplopia, vertigo, vomiting
Choking and dysarthria
Ataxia
Hemisensory loss
Hemianopic/bilateral visual loss
tetraparesis
loss of consciousness

81
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS
what are the causes of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

excess fluid builds up in the ventricles, which enlarge and press on nearby brain tissue

  • injury
  • bleeding
  • infection
  • brain tumour
  • brain surgery
82
Q

ESSENTIAL TREMOR
what is the management?

A

mild disease
- observation

moderate disease
- 1st line: propranolol or primidone
- 2nd line: gabapentin or benzodiazepines
- 3rd line: deep brain stimulation, MRI guided thalamotomy

83
Q

HYDROCEPHALUS
What are some causes of non-obstructive hydrocephalus?

A
  • Commonly failure of reabsorption of arachnoid granulations (meningitis, post-haemorrhage)
  • increased CSF production (choroid plexus tumour) but very rare
84
Q

DIABETIC NEUROPATHY
what is the management for gastroparesis?

A

metoclopramide, domperidone or erythromycin

85
Q

HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE
where is the genetic mutation located and what type of mutation is it?

A
  • mutation in HTT gene on chromosome 4
  • trinucleotide repeat disorder (CAG)
86
Q

BRAIN METASTASES
what are the most common cancers to metastasise to the brain?

A
  • lung cancer
  • breast cancer
  • melanoma
  • colorectal cancer
  • renal cell carcinoma
87
Q

CEREBELLAR DISEASE
what are the causes?

A
  • Friedreich’s ataxia
  • neoplastic (cerebellar haemangioma)
  • stroke
  • alcohol
  • MS
  • hypothyroidism
  • drugs (phenytoin, lead poisoning)
  • paraneoplastic (secondary to lung cancer)
88
Q

RADICULOPATHY
how can you distinguish an L5 radiculopathy from a common peroneal nerve injury?

A

both conditions cause foot drop

L5 RADICULOPATHY
- weakness of foot on dorsiflexion
- weakness of toe on extension
- weakness during foot eversion
- lower limb tendon reflex changes
- L5 dermatomal distribution of sensory loss

COMMON PERONEAL NERVE INJURY
- weakness of foot on dorsiflexion
- weakness of toe on extension
- weakness during foot eversion
- no changes to lower limb reflexes
- sensory loss over anterior aspects of foot and leg

89
Q

WERNICKE-KORSAKOFF SYNDROME
what is the clinical triad?

A
  • confusion
  • ataxia
  • ophthalmoplegia + nystagmus
90
Q

EPILEPSY
what is the management for different types of seizures?

A

GENERALISED TONIC-CLONIC
- male = sodium valproate
- female = lamotrigine or levetiracetam

FOCAL SEIZURES
- 1st line = lamotrigine or levetiracetam
- 2nd line = carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide

ABSENCE SEIZURES
- 1st line = ethosuximide
- 2nd line (male) = sodium valproate
- 2nd line (female) = lamotrigine or levetiracetam

MYOCLONIC SEIZURES
- male = sodium valproate
- female = levetiracetam

TONIC OR ATONIC SEIZURES
- male = sodium valproate
- female = lamotrigine

91
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the nerve roots for median nerve?

92
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the clinical features of median nerve palsy (carpal tunnel syndrome)?

A
  • sensory loss and/or paraesthesia over palmar + distal aspect of thumb, index, middle and half of ring ringer
  • weakness of hand
  • weak thumb abduction
  • thenar eminence wasting
  • hand pain (worse at night)
93
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the nerve roots for the ulnar nerve?

94
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the clinical features of ulnar neuropathy?

A
  • sensory loss and/or paraesthesia over little finger + medial side of ring finger
  • hand weakness (loss of dexterity, grip weakness)
  • muscle wasting (hypothenar eminence +/- interossei muscles)
  • claw hand deformity
95
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the investigations for ulnar neuropathy

A

froments test - pinch paper between thumb + index finger

96
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the nerve roots for the radial nerve?

97
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the clinical features of radial neuropathy?

A
  • sensory loss and/or paraesthesia over dorsum or hand (may extend up forearm)
  • wrist drop
  • weakness in finger extension
  • weakness in brachioradialis
98
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the nerve roots of the axillary nerve?

99
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the clinical features of axillary neuropathy?

A

sensory loss over lateral shoulder

100
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the nerve roots for the common peroneal nerve?

101
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the clinical features of common peroneal neuropathy?

A
  • foot drop (weakness of dorsiflexion)
  • sensory loss over dorsum of foot + lateral shin
102
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the nerve roots of the tibial nerve?

103
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what are the clinical features of tibial neuropathy?

A
  • paraesthesia, pain or numbness over the sole of the foot (worse at night + with prolonged standing)
  • foot deformities (pes planus, pronated foot, abnormal gait)
104
Q

MONONEUROPATHY
what is meralgia parasthetica?

A

pain +/- sensory loss over anterolateral thigh due to neuropathy of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

105
Q

TIA
What is the secondary prevention following a stroke/TIA?

A
  • 1st line = clopidogrel 75mg
  • 2nd line = aspirin 75mg + MR dipyridamole
  • 3rd line = MR dipyridamole
  • 4th line = aspirin 75mg

all patients = high dose statin (atorvastatin 20-80mg)

manage HTN, DM, smoking and CVD risk factors

106
Q

ENCEPHALITIS
what is the management?

A

IV acyclovir

107
Q

STROKE
How would a Total Anterior Circulation Infarct (TACI) present?

A

(involves middle and anterior cerebral arteries)
- unilateral hemiparesis +/- hemisensory loss of face, arm and leg
- homonymous hemianopia
- higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphagia

108
Q

STROKE
how would a Partial Anterior Circulation Infarct present?

A

2 of the criteria are present:
- unilateral hemiparesis +/- hemisensory loss of face, arm and leg
- homonymous hemianopia
- higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphagia

109
Q

STROKE
how does a lacunar infarct (LACI) present?

A

presents with one of the following:
- unilateral weakness (+/- sensory deficit) of face, arm and leg or all 3
- pure sensory stroke
- ataxic hemiparesis

110
Q

STROKE
what vessels are affected in a lacunar infarct?

A

perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia

111
Q

STROKE
how would a posterior circulation infarct (POCI) present?

A

presents with one of the following:
- cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
- loss of consciousness
- isolated homonymous hemianopia

112
Q

STROKE
what is the presentation of lateral medullary syndrome?

A

IPSILATERAL
- ataxia
- nystagmus
- dysphagia
- facial numbness
- cranial nerve palsy

CONTRALATERAL
- limb sensory loss

113
Q

STROKE
what vessels are affected in lateral medullary syndrome?

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery
(also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome)

114
Q

STROKE
what is the presentation of Weber’s syndrome?

A
  • ipsilateral CN III palsy
  • contralateral weakness
115
Q

MENINGITIS
what are the most common causes of viral meningitis?

A

enteroviruses e.g. coxsackie B, echovirus

116
Q

APHASIA
what are the different types of aphasia?

A
  • Wernickes (receptive)
  • Brocas (expressive)
  • conduction
  • global
117
Q

APHASIA
what is the presentation of Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

speech is normal but sentences do not make sense (comprehension is impaired)

118
Q

APHASIA
what is Wernicke’s aphasia

A

receptive aphasia (can speak but do not make sense, comprehension is impaired)

119
Q

APHASIA
what is the presentation of Broca’s aphasia?

A

comprehension is normal
speech is non-fluent
repetition is impaired

120
Q

APHASIA
what is Broca’s aphasia?

A

expressive aphasia (can comprehend but cannot speak fluently)

121
Q

APHASIA
what is the presentation of conduction aphasia?

A

comprehension is normal
speech is fluent
repetition is poor

122
Q

APHASIA
what is the presentation of global aphasia?

A
  • expressive + receptive aphasia
  • can communicate using gestures
123
Q

APHASIA
where is the lesion for Broca’s (expressive) aphasia?

A

inferior frontal gyrus

124
Q

APHASIA
where is the lesion for Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia?

A

lesion in superior temporal gyrus

125
Q

APHASIA
where is the lesion for conductive aphasia?

A

arcuate fasciculus

126
Q

APHASIA
where is the lesion for global aphasia?

A

lesion affecting all 3 areas:
- superior temporal gyrus
- inferior frontal gyrus
- arcuate fasciculus

127
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
what is the medical management for fatigue?

128
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
what is the medical management of spasticity?

A

1st line = baclofen or gabapentin
2nd line = diazepam, dantrolene or tizanidine

129
Q

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
what is the management of bladder dysfunction?

A

USS bladder first
- if significant residual volume = intermittent self catheterisation
- no residual volume = anticholinergics

130
Q

CEREBELLAR LESIONS
what is the cause of finger-nose ataxia?

A

cerebellar hemisphere lesion

131
Q

CEREBELLAR LESIONS
what is the cause of gait ataxia?

A

cerebellar vermis lesions

132
Q

STROKE
what is the definition of a stroke?

A

rapidly developing neurological deficit of vascular origin lasting over 24 hours or resulting in death