ENDOCRINE Flashcards

1
Q

HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
What blood results would you see in the 3 types of hyperparathyroidism?

A

PRIMARY =

  • PTH = high
  • calcium = high
  • phosphate = low
  • alk phos = high

SECONDARY =

  • PTH = high
  • calcium = low
  • phosphate = high
  • alk phos = high

TERTIARY -

  • PTH = high
  • calcium = high
  • phosphate = high
  • alk phos = high
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

HYPERPARATHYROIDISM
Describe the treatment for hyperparathyroidism

A

PRIMARY
- parathyroidectomy
- calcimimetics (cinacalet)
- bisphosphonates
- HRT

SECONDARY
- vitamin D supplementation
- renal transplant
- calcium supplementation
- phosphate binding agent

TERTIARY
- parathyroidectomy
- cinacalet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HYPOPARATHYROIDISM
what are the causes of hypoparathyroidism?

A
  • iatrogenic (neck surgery)
  • autoimmune (isolated autoimmune hypothyroidism)
  • metabolic (hyper/hypomagnesaemia)
  • congenital (DiGeorge syndrome)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HYPOPARATHYROIDISM
What is the treatment for hypoparathyroidism?

A

ACUTE
- IV 10% calcium gluconate

LONG TERM
- increased dietary calcium + vitamin D
- calcium supplements
- Vitamin D supplements
- thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HYPERCALCAEMIA
Give 2 ECG changes that you might see in someone with hypercalcaemia

A
  1. Tall T waves
  2. Shortened QT interval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HYPOCALCAEMIA
Name 3 causes of hypocalcaemia

A

Hypoparathyroidism
Vitamin D deficiency
Hyperventilation
Drugs
Malignancy
Toxic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HYPOCALCAEMIA
what is the treatment for hypocalcaemia?

A

10ml calcium gluconate/chloride 10% slow IV,
oral calcium and Vit D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HYPOCALCAEMIA
Give 2 ECG changes that you might see in hypocalcaemia?

A
  1. Small T waves
  2. Long QT interval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T2DM
What class of drugs can cause diabetes?

A

Steroids
Thiazides
Anti-psychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T2DM
Describe the treatment pathway for T2DM

A

MEDICATIONS
1st line = metformin
if patient has HF offer metformin + SGLT2i (-gliflozin)

if HbA1c >58, commence dual therapy
1. DPP4i (linagliptin, sitagliptin)
2. Sulfonylurea (gliclazide)
3. Pioglitazone
4. SGLT2i (dapagliflozin, empagliflozin)

if HbA1c > 58 despite dual therapy, commence intermediate acting insulin or triple therapy

triple therapy = metformin + sulfonylurea + GLP-1 mimetic (liraglutide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T2DM
what are the side effects of Sulfonylurea?

A

Hypoglycaemia
weight gain
hyponatraemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HYPOGLYCAEMIA
Briefly describe the treatment of hypoglycaemia

A

CONSCIOUS + CAN SWALLOW:
- fast acting carbohydrate (glucose tablets, glucose 40% gels, glucose liquid, fruit juice), repeat blood glucose after 10-15 mins
- long acting carbohydrate once blood gluucose >4mmol/L (biscuit, bread)
- IM glucagon or IV glucose 10% if patient does not respond to fast acting carb

REDUCED CONSCIOUSNESS/EMERGENCY
- IM glucagon
- IV 10% glucose 150-200ml
- long acting carbohydrate, once blood glucose is >4mmol/L (biscuit, bread, milk or normal carb containing meal)

in malnourished/alcoholic patients, IV glucose should be given alonside thiamine to prevent wernicke’s encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ACROMEGALY
what are the clinical features of acromegaly?

A

SYMPTOMS:
visual disturbance
headaches
rings and shoes are tight
polyuria + polydipsia due to T2DM
tingling in hands
galactorrhoea
menstrual irregularity/erectile dysfunction

SIGNS:
hypertension,
bitemporal hemiopia
prominent jaw + supraorbital ridge
coarse facial appearance
Prognathism (protrusion of lower jaw)
Macroglossia (large tongue)
Spade-like hands
Sweaty palms + oily skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ACROMEGALY
What are the investigations for acromegaly?

A

1st line = IGF-1 (high)
2nd line = oral glucose tolerance test (gold standard)
3rd line = pituitary function tests
4th line = MRI

also investigate for complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ACROMEGALY
what is the management for acromegaly?

A

1st line = trans sphenoidal surgery

2nd line
- medical = CABERGOLINE (dopamine agonist), bromocriptine is alternative
- OCTEOTIDE (somatostatin analogue) used in moderate/severe disease

3rd line = PEGVISOMANT (GH receptor antagonist)

4th line = radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PROLACTINOMA
what are the causes of prolactinoma?

A
  1. Pituitary adenoma
  2. Anti-dopaminergic drugs
  3. Head injury - compression of the pituitary stalk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PROLACTINOMA
what are the clinical features of prolactinoma

A

SYMPTOMS:
amenorrhea,
galactorrhoea,
gynaecomastia,
low libido,
erectile dysfunction

SIGNS:
low testosterone,
infertility
visual field defects
headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PROLACTINOMA
What is the treatment for prolactinoma?

A

Dopamine agonists - cabergoline - inhibits prolactin release

Occasionally transsphenoidal pituitary resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CUSHINGS
what are the causes of excess cortisol? And are they ACTH dependent or independent?

A

ACTH dependent (ACTH raised):
- Cushing’s disease
- Ectopic ACTH production
- ACTH treatment

ACTH independent (ACTH not raised)
- adrenal adenoma
- iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CUSHINGS
what are the investigations for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

CONFIRM HYPERCORTISOLISM
- 1st line = overnight dexamethasone suppression test (shows failure of cortisol suppression)
- 24hr urinary free cortisol (2 measurements required)

SOURCE LOCALISATION
- 9am ACTH (elevated = ACTH-dependant cause)
if positive then perform
- high dose dexamethasone suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CUSHINGS
What is the treatment for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

ACTH-dependent
- cushings disease - 1st line = trans-sphenoidal resection
- ectopic ACTH source - treat underlying cause of cancer

ACTH-independent
- iatrogenic = review need for medication + try weaning
- adrenal tumour = tumour resection/adrenalectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ADDISONS DISEASE
what are the causes of Addison’s disease?

A
  • autoimmune destruction (21-hydroxylase present in 60-90%) - most common in developed countries
  • TB - most common in developing countries
  • adrenal metastases- long term steroid use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ADDISONS DISEASE
what are the clinical features of Addison’s disease?

A

SYMPTOMS
Lethargy + weakness
N+V
weight loss
‘salt cravings’
collapse + shock (addisonian crisis)

SIGNS
Hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases)
loss of pubic hair
hypotension + postural drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ADDISONS DISEASE
What is the pathophysiology of Addison’s disease?

A

Destruction of the adrenal cortex results in decreased production of the hormones
All steroids reduced
Reduced cortisol levels = increased CRH and ACTH production through feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ADDISONS DISEASE
What are the investigations for Addison’s disease?

A

1st line = 8-9am cortisol (<100nmol/L = highly suggestive, 100-500nmol/L = refer for ACTH stimulation test)

Gold standard = ACTH stimulation test (short syntacthen test) - failure of rise in cortisol = addisions

Other tests
- 8am ACTH
- adrenal antibodies (anti-21-hydroxylase)
- U&Es (hyponatraemia + hyperkalaemia)
- aldosterone/renin ratio (decreased)
- CT adrenal (atrophied glands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ADDISONIAN CRISIS
What is the management of adrenal crisis (addisonian crisis)?

A

ACUTE
- IV fluids - normal saline
- Corticosteroids = HYDROCORTISONE 100mg IV stat followed by 200mg over 24hrs. Oral replacement after 24 hrs with reduction to maintenance level over 3-4 days
- treat underlying cause

CHRONIC
- long term hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

Fluid resuscitation - saline (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ADDISONS DISEASE
What would sodium and potassium levels be in someone with adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hyponatraemia = low sodium
Hyperkalaemia = high potassium
Lack of aldosterone and so less sodium reabsorbed and less potassium excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GRAVES DISEASE
Name 5 risk factors for Graves disease

A
  1. Female
  2. Genetic association
  3. E.coli
  4. Smoking
  5. Stress
  6. High iodine intake
  7. Autoimmune diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

GRAVES DISEASE
Name 5 autoimmune diseases associated with thyroid autoimmunity

A
  1. T1DM
  2. Addison’s disease
  3. Pernicious anaemia
  4. Vitiligo
  5. Alopecia areata
  6. Rheumatoid arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

THYROID GOITRE
Name 4 types of sporadic non toxic goitre

A
  1. Diffuse –> physiological –> Graves
  2. Multi nodular
  3. Solitary nodule
  4. Dominant nodule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
what are the causes of hyperthyroidism?

A

PRIMARY
- graves disease
- toxic multinodular goitre (iodine deficiency)
- toxic adenoma
- subclinical hyperthyroidism
- drugs (amiodarone)

SECONDARY
- pituitary adenoma
- ectopic tumour
- hypothalamic tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
What are the thyroid function test results in primary hyperthyroidism?

A

high T4
high T3
low TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
What are the thyroid function rests in secondary hyperthyroidism?

A

high T4
high T3
high TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
What is a complication of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Thyroid crisis/storm
  • osteoporosis
  • proximal myopathy
  • thyrotoxic crisis
  • iatrogenic (agranulocytosis from carbimazole, congenital malformations, foetal goitre)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
What is the treatment for a thyroid crisis?

A

symptomatic treatment e.g. paracetamol
treatment of precipitating event
beta blockers e.g. IV propranolol
anti-thyroid drugs - methimazole/propylthiouracil
lugols iodine
dexamethasone 4mg IV QDS to stop conversion of T4 to T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of secondary hypothyroidism

A

Reduced release or production of TSH so reduced thyroid hormone release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of tertiary hypothyroidism

A

Thyroid gland overcompensates until it can reestablish correct concentration fo thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
what are the causes of primary hypothyroidism

A
  • autoimmune thyroiditis (hashimotos thyroiditis)
  • De Quervains thyroiditis (follows viral prodrome)
  • post-partum thyroiditis
  • iodine deficiency
  • post-thyroidectomy or post-radioiodine
  • drugs (amiodarone, lithium, anti-thyroid drugs e.g. carbimazole)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
Name 3 causes of secondary hypothyroidism

A
  • compression from a pituitary tumour
  • hypothalamic tumours
  • drugs (cocaine, steroids + dopamine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
What are the TFT results for primary hypothyroidism?

A
  • High TSH
  • low T4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
What are the TFT results for secondary hypothyroidism?

A
  • normal/low TSH
  • low T4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
what are the complications of hypothyroidism?

A
  • hypercholesterolaemia
  • carpal tunnel
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • myoxedema coma
  • thyroid lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
what are the causes of cranial(central) DI?

A

CONGENITAL
- malformations of hypothalamus
- wolfram syndrome

ACQUIRED
- pituitary surgery
- tumours (craniopharyngiomas + metastasis, NOT pituitary adenomas)
- traumatic brain injury
- subarachnoid haemorrhage
- CNS infections (meningitis + encephalitis)
- pituitary stalk disease (sarcoidosis)
- drugs (phenytoin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
what are the causes of nephrogenic DI?

A

CONGENITAL
- mutations in vasopressin or aquaporin receptors

ACQUIRED
- drugs (lithium, gentamicin, cisplatin)
- renal disease (renal amyloid, obstructive uropathy)
- electrolyte disturbance (hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
what are the investigations for diabetes insipidus?

A
  • Urine + serum osmolality = low urine osmolality + high serum osmolality
  • U&Es = normal/raised Na
  • serum glucose (to rule out DM)
  • 24hr urine output (if <3L, DI is unlikely)
  • Water deprivation test = low urine + high serum osmolality
  • desmopressin suppression test = in cDI, urine volume decrease + osmolality increases, in nDI no response

To consider
- MRI pituitary
- anterior pituitary function tests
- genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
What is the treatment for cranial DI?

A
  • desmopressin
  • manage fluid balance (water readily available in patients able to manage own fluids, IV fluids for those not able to)
  • low sodium diet
47
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
What is the treatment for nephrogenic DI?

A
  • manage fluid balance
  • treat underlying cause
  • sodium restriction
  • thiazide diuretics (BENDROFLUMETHIAZIDE)
48
Q

SIADH
what are the clinical features of SIADH?

A

MILD
- N+V
- headache
- lethargy

MODERATE
- weakness
- muscle aches
- confusion
- ataxia

SEVERE
- reduced consciousness
- seizures
- respiratory arrest

All patients are EUVOLAEMIC (no features of hyper/hypovolaemia)

49
Q

SIADH
what are the causes of SIADH?

A

NEURO
- meningitis
- encephalitis
- intracranial haemorrhage
- stroke

MALIGNANCY
- small cell lung cancer

INFFECTION
- pneumonia
- TB

ENDOCRINE
- hypothyroidism

DRUGS
- SSRIs + TCAs
- PPIs
- Carbamazepine
- Cyclophosphamide
- Sulfonylureas

OTHER
- porphyria
- PEEP

50
Q

SIADH
what are the investigations for SIADH?

A
  • urine osmolality = inappropriately high in relation to serum osmolality
  • urine sodium concentration = high
  • ADH levels
  • U and Es (low sodium normal potassium),
  • fluid status

distinguish SIADH from salt & water depletion - test with 1-2L of
0.9% saline:
* Sodium depletion will respond
* SIADH will NOT RESPOND

51
Q

SIADH
Describe the treatment for SIADH

A

ACUTE (<48hrs)
- hypertonic 3% NaCl

CHRONIC (>48hrs)
- Na correction maximum 10mmol/L per day
- mild-moderate asymptomatic cases = fluid restriction (750-1000ml per day)
- severe or symptomatic = demeclocycline or tolvaptan

52
Q

SIADH
How do you treat very symptomatic SIADH?

A

Give 3% saline (hypertonic)
demeclocycline or tolvaptan

53
Q

PITUITARY ADENOMA
Give 4 local effects a pituitary adenoma

A
  1. Headaches
  2. Visual field defects - bitemporal hemianopia
  3. Cranial nerve palsy and temporal lobe epilepsy
  4. CSF rhinorrhoea
54
Q

DIABETES MELLITUS
Name 3 exocrine causes of Diabetes

A
  1. Inflammatory - actue/chronic pancreatitis
  2. Hereditary haemochromatosis
  3. Pancreatic neoplasia
  4. Cystic fibrosis
55
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA
What is Pheochromocytoma?

A

A rare catecholamine secreting tumour in the adrenal medulla (chromatin cells)

56
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA
what are the clinical features of pheochromocytoma?

A

SYMPTOMS
Headache
Profuse Sweating
Palpitations
Tremor

SIGNS
Hypertension
Postural hypotension
Tremor
hypertensive retinopathy
Pallor

57
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA
What are the investigations for pheochromocytoma?

A
  • Plasma metanephrines and normetanephrines
  • 24 hour urinary total catecholamines
  • CT – look for tumour
58
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA
What is the treatment for pheochromocytoma?

A

Without HTN crisis:
1st Line = Alpha blockers (PHENOXYBENZAMINE)
Most patients will eventually get the tumour removed and then managed medically.

With HTN crisis:
1st Line = Antihypertensive agents (PHENTOLAMINE)

59
Q

PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA
What is the management of a phaeochromocytoma crisis?

A

Non-competitive alpha-blocker e.g. phenoxybenzamine
Excision of paraganglioma
Biochemistry: measure plasma and serum metanephrines

60
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
What is Conn’s syndrome?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism caused by an adrenal adenoma

High aldosterone levels independent of RAAS activation - H20 and sodium retention and potassium excretion

61
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
What are the clinical features of Conn’s syndrome?

A

SYMPTOMS
- lethargy
- mood disturbance
- paraesthesia + muscle cramps

SIGNS
- refractory hypertension
- metabolic alkalosis

62
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
A deficiency in which electrolyte causes the symptoms of Conn’s syndrome?

A

HYPOKALAEMIA

causes:
1. Muscle weakness
2. Tiredness
3. Polyuria

63
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
What hormone is raised in Conn’s syndrome and what hormone is reduced? Where are these hormones synthesised?

A
  1. Aldosterone is raised - synthesised in the zone glomerulosa
  2. Renin is reduced - synthesised in the juxta-glomerular cells
64
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
What investigations might you do in someone to confirm a diagnosis of Conn’s syndrome?

A

1st line = aldosterone renin ratio (high aldosterone + low renin)

serum U&Es = hypokalaemia + hypernatraemia

high resolution CT abdomen

adrenal venous sampling

65
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
Give 4 ECG changes you might see in someone with Conn’s syndrome

A

HYPOKALAEMIC ECG
1. Increased amplitude and width of P waves
2. Flat T waves
3. ST depression
4. Prolonged QT interval
5. U waves

66
Q

CONNS SYNDROME
What is the treatment for Conn’s syndrome?

A

1st line
- laparoscopic adrenalectomy for unilateral
- spironolactone for bilateral

2nd line
- spironolactone if surgery is inappropriate in unilateral disease

67
Q

HYPERKALAEMIA
What ECG changes might you see in someone with hyperkalaemia?

A

GO - absent/flat P waves
GO LONG - prolonged PR
GO TALL - Tall T waves
GO WIDE - Wide QRS

68
Q

HYPERKALAEMIA
What is the treatment for hyperkalaemia?

A

CARDIAC MEMBRANE PROTECTION
- 10ml 10% IV calcium gluconate or calcium chloride given immediately

POTASSIUM REDUCTION
- insulin/dextrose infusion
- nebulised salbutamol
- potassium binders (sodium zirconium cyclosilicate or calcium resonium)
- sodium bicarbonate
- haemodialysis

69
Q

HYPOKALAEMIA
What ECG changes might you see in someone with hypokalaemia?

A
  1. Increased amplitude and width of P waves
  2. ST depression
  3. Flat T waves
  4. U waves
  5. QT prolongation

U have no Pot (potassium), no T, but a long PR and a long QT

70
Q

HYPOKALAEMIA
What is the treatment for hypokalaemia?

A

POTASSIUM REPLACEMENT
- mild to moderate = oral supplements (Sando-K)
- severe = 20-40mmol IV KCl in 0.9% saline.

  • the fastest rate of correction is 10mmol/hr so 1L bag with 40mmol KCl is run over 4hrs or more

TREAT UNDERLYING CAUSE

71
Q

THYROID CANCER
Name 5 types of thyroid cancer

A
  1. Papillary - thyroid epithelium
  2. Follicular - thyroid epithelium
  3. Anaplastic - thyroid epithelium
  4. Lymphoma
  5. Medullary - calcitonin C cells
72
Q

THYROID CANCER
What types of thyroid cancers are usually asymptomatic thyroid nodule (usually hard and fixed)?

A

Papillary
Follicular
Anaplastic

73
Q

THYROID CANCER
What is the most common form of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary - 70%, young people, 3x more common in women

Follicular - 20%

74
Q

DE QUERVAINS THYROIDITIS
what is the treatment for de quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

Treat with aspirin and only give prednisolone for severely symptomatic
cases

75
Q

DIABETES PHARMACOLOGY
what is the mechanism of action for SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

inhibits resorption of glucose in the kidney causing urinary glucose excretion

76
Q

DIABETES PHARMACOLOGY
what is the mechanism of action for pioglitazone?

A

PPAR gamma agoinsts reduce peripheral resistance

77
Q

DIABETES PHARMACOLOGY
what are the side effects of pioglitazones?

A

Weight gain
Fluid retention
Hepatotoxicity
Bladder cancer

78
Q

HYPEROSMOLAR HYPERGLYCAEMIC STATE
what is the pathophysiology of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

hyperglycaemia drives osmotic diuresis, resulting in fluid + electrolyte loss (hyperosmolality + hypovolaemia)

due to presence of small amounts of circulating insulin, lipolysis does not occur so ketoacidosis is not seen

79
Q

HYPEROSMOLAR HYPERGLYCAEMIC STATE
what is the treatment for hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

FLUID REPLACEMENT
- IV 0.9% NaCl
- aim to replace 50% fluid loss in first 12 hrs

FIXED RATE INSULIN INFUSION
- do not use insulin initially due to risks of rapid correction
- IV insulin only used if there is ketonaemia or if blood glucose is not longer falling with IV fluids alone, otherwise do NOT start insulin

POTASSIUM REPLACEMENT
- if >5.5 in first 24hrs = no replacement required
- if 3.5-5.5 in first 24hrs = 20-40mmol/L KCl
- if <3.5 in first 24hrs = require senior review

ANTICOAGULATION
- LMWH unless contraindicated
-

80
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
what is the mechanism of action for carbimazole?

A

prevents thyroid peroxidase from producing T3 and T4

81
Q

ACROMEGALY
what are the side effects of GH receptor antagonists e.g. pegvisomant?

A
  • reactions at injection site
  • GI disturbance
  • hypoglycaemia
  • chest pain
  • hepatitis
82
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what is the mechanism of action for vasopressin antagonists e.g. tolvaptan?

A
  • inhibits vasopressin-2 receptor -> increases fluid excretion
  • causes aquaresis (excretion of H2O with no electrolyte loss) -> increased Na+
83
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what are the side effect of vasopressin antagonists e.g. tolvaptan?

A
  • GI disturbance
  • headache
  • increased thirst
  • insomnia
84
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what is the mechanism of action for vasopressin analogues e.g. desmopressin?

A

binds to V2 receptors -> aquaporin 2 inserted in collecting duct which increases water reabsorption

85
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what are the side effects of vasopressin analogies e.g. desmopressin?

A
  • headache
  • facial flushing
  • nausea
  • seizures
86
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what is the mechanism of action for metyrapone?

A
  • blocks cortisol synthesis by irreversibly inhibiting steroid 11 beta-hydroxide enzyme
87
Q

PHARMACOLOGY
what are the side effects of metyrapone?

A
  • GI disturbance
  • headache
  • dizziness
  • drowsiness
  • hirsutism
88
Q

ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY
how would cortisol levels react to the synacthen test if there was secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

short ACTH = no change

long ACTH = increase

89
Q

CUSHINGS
what investigation can be used to differentiate between cushing’s syndrome and cushing’s disease?

A

dexamethasone suppression test
- overnight = cushing’s syndrome (including disease) is confirmed when there is no suppression

  • 48 hours = cushing’s syndrome (not disease) = no suppression
90
Q

HYPERNATRAEMIA
what is the management?

A
  • fluid replacement = IV 5% dextrose
  • treat causes
  • suspend medications
91
Q

HYPONATRAEMIA
what is the management?

A

ACUTE (<48hrs)
- mild/no symptoms = stop non-essential fluids + meds that can provoke hyponatraemia + treat cause
- moderate/severe symptoms = hypertonic 3% NaCl

CHRONIC (>48hrs)
- maximum increase 10mmol/L per day
- if hypovolaemic = 0.9% NaCl
- if hypervolaemic = fluid restriction

92
Q

HYPONATRAEMIA
what are the complications?

A
  • central pontine myelinolysis
93
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
What are the test results for serum osmolality, urine osmolality + post desmopressin urine osmolality in cranial + nephrogenic DI?

A

CRANIAL
- high serum osmolality
- low urine osmolality
- high urine osmolality post desmopressin suppression

NEPHROGENIC
- high serum osmolality
- low urine osmolality
- no response post desmopressin suppression

94
Q

DIABETES PHARMACOLOGY
what is the mechanism of action for DPP-4 inhibitors?

A

prevent degradation of incretins _ promote insulin secretion

95
Q

DIABETES PHARMACOLOGY
what are the side effects of DPP-4 inhibitors e.g. linagliptin?

A

pancreatitis

96
Q

DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS
what is the management?

A

IV FLUIDS
- if SBP<90 500ml bolus of 0.9% NaCl over 15 mins + call for senior help
- if SBP>90 1L 0.9% NaCl over 1 hour, 1 litre 0.9% NaCl with kCl over 2hrs, 2hrs, 4hrs, 4hrs and then 6hrs

INSULIN
- fixed rate insulin infusion
- 0.1U/kg/hr
- once glucose <14mmol/L add 10% glucose + consider reducing insulin
- do not stop long acting insulin

POTASSIUM REPLACEMENT
- >5.5 in first 24hrs = no replacement required
- 3.5-5.5 in first 24hrs = 40mmol/L KCl
- <3.5 in first 24hrs = consider HDU/ITU

97
Q

DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS
what are the complications?

A
  • venous thrromboembolism
  • arrhythmias
  • ARDS
  • AKI
  • cerebral oedema
  • hypokalaemia
  • gastric stasis
98
Q

HYPERNATRAEMIA
what are the complications?

A
  • cerebral oedema
  • coma
  • death
99
Q

HYPOTHYROIDISM
what is the management for mxyoedema coma?

A
  • ITU/HDU admission
  • IV thyroid replacement (levothyroxine)
  • antibiotics
  • IV hydrocortisone (100mg)
100
Q

HYPERLIPIDAEMIA
what is the management?

A

1st line
- lifestyle modifications (dietary changes, increased physical activity, weight loss + smoking cessation)
- statins (atorvastatin or simvastatin)
- fibrates

2nd line
- ezetimibe
- PCSK9 inhibitors (evolocumab)

101
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
how do you differentiate between cranial and nephrogenic DI?

A

DESMOPRESSIN SUPPRESSION TEST
- cranial DI = decreased urine volume + increased urine osmolality
- nephrogenic DI = no response

102
Q

DIABETES INSIPIDUS
when is the desmopressin suppression test contraindicated?

A
  • hypernatremia
  • uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
  • kidney insufficiency
  • pregnancy
103
Q

CUSHINGS
what are the results for high dose dexamethasone suppression test for cushings syndrome, disease and ectopic ACTH syndrome?

A

CUSHINGS SYNDROME
- cortisol = not suppressed
- ACTH = suppressed

CUSHINGS DISEASE
- cortisol = supressed
- ACTH = suppressed

ECTOPIC ACTH SYNDROME
- cortisol = not suppressed
- ACTH = not suppressed

104
Q

PRIMARY HYPERALDOSTERONISM
what are the causes?

A
  • bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia (most common)
  • adrenal adenoma = Conn’s syndrome
  • unilateral hyperplasia
  • familial hyperaldosteronism
  • adrenal carcinoma
105
Q

HYPERCALCAEMIA OF MALIGNANCY
what is the pathophysiology?

A

three main mechanisms:
- secretion of PTH-related protein (PTHrP) = most common
- osteolytic metastases
- secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)

106
Q

HYPERCALCAEMIA OF MALIGNANCY
what is the management?

A

SUPPORTIVE
- stop medications that contribute to hypercalcaemia (thiazides, calcium supplements, vitamin D supplements, lithium)
- stop medications that can worsen renal function (NSAIDs, ACEis)
- medications for associated symptoms
= laxatives for constipation
= anti-emetics for nausea
= analgesia for bone pain

REHYDRATION
- IV fluids (3 litres in first 24hrs)

BISPHOSPHONATES
- 1st line = IV zoledronic acid 4mg
- 2nd line = disodium pamidronate 30-90mg

  • if hypercalcaemia lasts >7 days then further bisphosphonates may be considered or denosumab
107
Q

CARCINOID TUMOURS
what is the difference between carcinoid tumours and carcinoid syndrome?

A

carcinoid tumours = type of neuroendocrine tumour which can secrete serotonin

carcinoid syndrome = liver mets impair hepatic excretion of serotonin during 1st pass metabolism, resulting in increased serotoninergic symptons

108
Q

CARCINOID TUMOURS
what are the clinical features?

A

SYMPTOMS
- abdominal pain
- diarrhoea
- flushing
- wheezing
- pulmonary stenosis

patients with GI carcinoid tumours will only experience symptoms if they have liver mets

109
Q

CARCINOID TUMOURS
what are the investigations?

A
  • urinary hormone levels = 5-HIAA
  • plasma chromogranin A y
  • CT or MRI
  • tissue biopsy
110
Q

CARCINOID TUMOURS
what is the management?

A
  • somatostatin analogues = octreotide
  • surgery
  • cyproheptadine can help with diarrhoea
111
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
what antibody is raised in Grave’s disease?

A

TSH receptor antibody

112
Q

HYPERTHYROIDISM
what are the 2 methods of medical management?

A
  1. suppress with carbimazole until euthyroid
  2. block with carbimazole and replace with levothyroxine
113
Q

HYPERTHYROID
what is the most serious side effect of carbimazole?

A

agranulocytosis