A&E, ANAETHETICS + PALLIATIVE Flashcards

1
Q

END OF LIFE CARE
In terms of managing end of life care, what should be given for nausea and vomiting?

A

Haloperidol 0.5-1.5mg SC
do not repeat within 4 hrs, max dose 3mg in 24hrs

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2
Q

END OF LIFE CARE
In terms of managing end of life care, what should be given for agitation, anxiety, or dyspnoea?

A

Midazolam 2.5-5mg SC
do not repeat within 1hr, max 4 doses in 24hrs

if not in terminal phase of illness
1st line = haloperidol
other options = chlorpromazine + levomepromazine

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3
Q

END OF LIFE CARE
In terms of managing end of life care, what should be given for constipation?

A

Start with stimulant laxative (senna) as opiates decrease peristalsis or stool softener if not on opiates, if not suppositories, enemas, PR evacuation

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4
Q

END OF LIFE CARE
In terms of managing end of life care, what should be given for hiccups?

A
  • chlorpromazine
  • haloperidol + gabapentin also used
  • dexamethasone if hepatic lesions
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5
Q

ANAPHYLAXIS
when would discharge after a minimum of 12 hours be considered?

A
  • severe reaction requiring > 2 doses of IM adrenaline
  • patient has severe asthma
  • possibility of an ongoing reaction (e.g. slow-release medication)
  • patient presents late at night
  • patient in areas where access to emergency access care may be difficult
  • observation for at 12 hours following symptom resolution
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6
Q

ANIMAL BITES
what is the most common isolated organism in animal bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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7
Q

HUMAN BITES
what are the most common organisms?

A

Streptococci spp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Eikenella
Fusobacterium
Prevotella

HIV and hep C should also be considered

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8
Q

BED BUGS
what is the causative organism?

A

Cimex hemipteru

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9
Q

BURNS
how do you assess the extent of burns?

A

Wallace’s Rule of Nines:
- head + neck = 9%,
- each arm = 9%,
- each anterior part of leg = 9%,
- each posterior part of leg = 9%,
- anterior chest = 9%,
- posterior chest = 9%,
- anterior abdomen = 9%,
- posterior abdomen = 9%

Lund and Browder chart: the most accurate method
- the palmar surface is roughly equivalent to 1% of total body surface area (TBSA).
- Not accurate for burns > 15% TBSA

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10
Q

BURNS
what is a superficial epidermal (1st degree burn)?

A
  • red and painful
  • dry
  • no blisters
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11
Q

BURNS
what is a Partial thickness (superficial dermal) (2nd degree burn)?

A
  • pale pink
  • painful
  • blistered
  • slow CRT
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12
Q

BURNS
what is a Partial thickness (deep dermal) (2nd degree burn)?

A
  • white
  • may have patched of non-blanching erythema
  • reduced sensation
  • painful to deep pressure
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13
Q

BURNS
what is a full thickness (3rd degree burn)?

A
  • white (waxy) / brown (leathery) / black in colour
  • no blisters
  • no pain
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14
Q

BURNS
how do you calculate the fluids required for burns?

A

parkland formula

volume = %SA burnt x weight (kg) x 4

half of fluid should be administered within first 8 hours

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15
Q

BURNS
how much fluid should be administered within the first 8 hours according to the parkland formula?

A

50% of all fluid calculated from parkland formula should be given within the first 8hrs

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16
Q

BURNS
what features would be suspicious for smoke inhalation?

A
  • burning sensation in nose + throat
  • productive cough
  • stridor
  • dyspnoea
  • SOB
  • wheeze
  • hoarse voice
  • accessory muscle usage
  • headache
  • cyanosis
  • decreasing consciousness
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17
Q

ADVANCED LIFE SUPPORT
what are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A

Hs + Ts
- hypoxia
- Hypovolaemia
- Hyperkalaemia, hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia and other metabolic disorders
- Hypothermia

  • Thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary)
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Tamponade - cardiac
  • Toxins
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18
Q

ACID-BASE ABNORMALITY
what are the different causes of metabolic acidosis?

A

NORMAL ANION GAP
- GI bicarbonate loss (diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidstomy, fistula
- renal tubular acidosis
- drugs (acetazolamide)
- ammonium chloride injection
- addisons disease

RAISED ANION GAP
- lactate (shock, hypoxia)
- ketones (DKA, alcohol)
- urate (renal failure)
- acid poisoning (salicylates, methanol)

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19
Q

ACID-BASE ABNORMALITY
what are the causes of metabolic alkalosis?

A

usually GI/renal
- vomiting/aspiration
- diuretics
- liquorice, carbenoxolone
- hypokalaemia
- primary hyperaldosteronism
- cushings syndrome
- Bartter’s syndrome
- congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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20
Q

ACID-BASE ABNORMALITY
what are the causes of respiratory acidosis?

A

Caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation, leading to CO2 retention
- COPD
- decompensation in other respiratory conditions (life-threatening asthma/pulmonary oedema)
- sedative drugs (benzodiazepines, opiate overdose)
- GBS

21
Q

ACID-BASE ABNORMALITY
what are the causes of respiratory alkalosis?

A

caused by excessive alveolar ventilation, resulting in more CO2 than normal being exhaled.
- anxiety leading to hyperventilation
- PE
- salicylate poisoning
- CNS disorders (stroke, SAH, encephalitis)
- altitude
- pregnancy

22
Q

ACID-BASE ABNORMALITY
what are the causes of mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis?

A

cardiac arrest
multi-organ failure

23
Q

ACID-BASE ABNORMALITY
what are the causes of mixed respiratory and metabolic alkalosis?

A
  • liver cirrhosis in addition to diuretic use
  • hyperemesis gravidarum
  • excessive ventilation in COPD
24
Q

CARBON MONOXIDE POISONING
what are the clinical features?

A
  • headache
  • nausea + vomiting
  • vertigo
  • confusion
  • subjective weakness

severe toxicity = ‘pink’ skin + mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma + death

25
Q

CARBON MONOXIDE POISONING
what is the effect of carbon monoxide on the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve?

A
  • shifts curve to the LEFT
  • CO has greater affinity for Hb than O2
  • Left shift = increased affinity of Hb to O2 so Hb holds onto O2 more tightly
  • this reduces release of O2 at tissues, causing hypoxia
26
Q

LEAD POISONING
what are the clinical features?

A
  • abdominal pain
  • peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor)
  • neuropsychiatric features
  • fatigue
  • constipation
  • blue lines on gum margin

(consider in questions giving combination of abdominal pain + neurological signs along with acute porphyria)

27
Q

LEAD POISONING
what are the investigations?

A
  • blood lead level (>10 mcg/dL)
  • FBC = microcytic anaemia
  • blood film = basophilic stippling + clover leaf morphology
  • raised serum + urine levels of delta aminoaevulinic acid
28
Q

LEAD POISONING
what is the management?

A
  • dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)
  • D-penicillamine
  • EDTA
  • dimercaprol
29
Q

LEAD POISONING
what is the pathophysiology?

A

lead poisoning results in defective ferrochelatase + ALA dehydratase function

30
Q

ORGANOPHOSPHATE INSECTICIDE POISONING
what are the clinical features?

A

SLUD
- salivation
- lacrimation
- urination
- defecation/diarrhoea

  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • small pupils
  • muscle fasciculation
31
Q

ORGANOPHOSPHATE INSECTICIDE POISONING
what is the pathophysiology?

A
  • inhibition of acetylcholinesterase leads to upregulation of nicotinic + muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission
32
Q

ORGANOPHOSPHATE INSECTICIDE POISONING
what is the management?

33
Q

OVERDOSE
what is the management for ethylene glycol overdose?

A

fomepizole

34
Q

OVERDOSE
what is the management for methanol poisoning?

A

fomepizole or ethanol
haemodialysis

35
Q

OVERDOSE
what is the management of cyanide poisoning?

A

hydroxocobalamin

36
Q

SEPSIS
what is the immediate management for suspected sepsis?

A

SEPSIS 6 (BUFFALO)

IN
- oxygen (titrate to 94-98%)
- IV fluids (crystalloid bolus 500ml over 15 mins + reassess)
- broad-spectrum antibiotics (CO-AMOXICLAV with GENTAMICIN)

OUT
- measure lactate
- blood cultures
- urine output

37
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the clinical features of lithium overdose?

A

SYMPTOMS
- acute confusion
- N+V
- polyuria secondary to nephrogenic DI

SIGNS
- coarse tremor
- hyperreflexia
- seizures
- reduced GCS
- ataxia

38
Q

OVERDOSE
what is the criteria for liver transplant following paracetamol overdose?

A

KINGS COLLEGE HOSPITAL CRITERIA FOR LIVER TRANSPLANT
- pH < 7.3 24 hours after ingestion

or all of the following
- prothrombin time >100 seconds
- creatinine >300umol/L
- grade III or IV encephalopathy

39
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the clinical features of salicylate (aspirin) overdose?

A

SYMPTOMS
- N+V
- abdominal pain
- SOB initially
- sweating later
- tinnitus

SIGNS
- epigastric tenderness
- hyperventilation
- kussmaul breathing
- pyrexia
- severe signs (confusion, seizures, reduced GCS)

40
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the investigations for salicylate (aspirin) overdose?

A
  • salicylate levels (taken at 2hrs post-ingestion if symptomatic or 4hrs if asymptomatic)
  • ABG = respiratory alkalosis followed by metabolic acidosis
  • U&Es = renal failure
  • LFTs + clotting
  • glucose levels
  • ECG
41
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the clinical features of benzodiazepine overdose?

A

SYMPTOMS
- drowsiness (reduced GCS)
- coma

SIGNS
- ataxia
- slurred speech
- respiratory depression

42
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the clinical features of TCA overdose?

A

SYMPTOMS
- dizziness
- dry mouth + eyes
- blurred vision
- urinary retention
- altered mental status
- seizures

SIGNS
- tachycardia
- hypotension
- mydriasis (dilated pupils)
- ataxia
- decreased bowel sounds

43
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the clinical features of beta-blocker overdose?

A

SYMPTOMS
- dizziness
- syncope
- fatigue
- SOB

SIGNS
- bradycardia
- hypotension
- reduced GCS
- features of hypoglycaemia

44
Q

OVERDOSE
what are the clinical features of iron overdose?

A

SYMPTOMS
- abdominal pain
- N+V
- diarrhoea
- dizziness

SIGNS
- abdominal tenderness
- haematemesis
- haematochezia
- tachycardia
- hypotension

45
Q

TOXIC SHOCK SYNDROME
what is the management?

A
  • IV antibiotics (LINEZOLID or CLINDAMYCIN) with (PENICILLIN/CEPHALOSPORIN/VANCOMYCIN)
  • remove focus of infection
  • IV fluid boluses
  • catheterise
  • correct coagulopathy or deranged glucose or electrolytes
  • steroids/IVIG occasionally required
  • Intensive care usually required
46
Q

ANAPHYLAXIS
what is the management for children?

A

IM adrenaline
- <6m = 100-150 micrograms
- 6m - 6yrs = 150 micrograms
- 6-12yrs = 300 micrograms

47
Q

SURGICAL SITE INFECTIONS
what are the most common causative organisms?

A
  • orthopaedic surgery = s.aureus
  • abdominal surgery = e.coli
  • other = pseudomonas aeruginosa
48
Q

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
what is it associated with?

A

gene defect on chromosome 19
it is autosomal dominant inherited

49
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what are the risk factors?

A
  • general anaesthetic
  • substance misuse
  • hypothyroidism
  • impaired mental status
  • homelessness
  • extremes of age