DERMATOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

ACNE VULGARIS
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of acne

A

comedones are non-inflammatory lesions and can be open (blackheads) or closed (whiteheads). When the follicle bursts, inflammatory lesions such as papules and pustules may form. Excessive inflammation results in nodules, and cysts

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2
Q

ACNE VULGARIS
Describe the signs of acne

A

MILD
- non-inflamed lesions (open + closed comedones) with few inflammatory lesions

MODERATE
- more widespread
- increased inflammatory papules + pustules

SEVERE
- widespread inflammatory papules pustules, nodules or cysts
- scarring

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3
Q

ACNE VULGARIS
Describe the treatment for mild to moderate acne

A

12 week fixed course of one of the following:
- topical adapalene + topical benzoyl peroxide
- topical tretinoin + topical clindamycin
- topical benzoyl peroxide + topical clindamycin

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4
Q

ACNE
what is the management of moderate to severe acne?

A

1st line = 12 week fixed course of one of the following:
- topical adapalene + topical benzoyl peroxide
- topical tretinoin + topical clindamycin
- topical adapalene + topical benzyl peroxide + oral lymecycline/doxycycline
- topical azelaic acid + oral lymecycline/doxycycline

2nd line = isotretinoin (acutane)

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5
Q

ACNE
what is a complication of long term antibiotic use in acne treatment? How is this managed?

A
  • gram negative folliculitis
  • managed with high dose trimethoprim
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6
Q

ACNE
what can be used as an alternative to oral antibiotics in acne treatment in women?

A

COCP

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7
Q

ACNE
what is the risk of using co-cyprindiol to manage acne?

A

increased VTE risk so used 2nd line and only used for 3 months

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8
Q

ACNE
how does acne management change in pregnancy?

A
  • topical and oral retinoids are contraindicated
  • oral erythromycin is used instead of lymecycline or doxycycline in pregnant and breastfeeding
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9
Q

BCC
what are the risk factors for BCC?

A
  • male
  • UV exposure
  • fair skin
  • xeroderma pigmentosa
  • immunosuppression
  • arsenic exposure
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10
Q

BCC
what is the clinical presentation?

A
  • pearly indurated flesh-coloured papule with rolled border
  • covered in telangiectasia
  • may ulcerate + create central crater
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11
Q

CELLULITIS
how is it classified?

A

Erons classification

CLASS 1 - no systemic signs (outpatient/oral abx)

CLASS 2 - systemically unwell or systemically well but have comorbidity (possible admission)

CLASS 3 - significant systemic upset (admission required)

CLASS 4 - sepsis

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12
Q

CONTACT DERMATITIS
give some examples of common allergens that cause contact dermatitis

A

nickel sulfate
neomycin
formaldehyde
sodium gold thiosulfate

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13
Q

CONTACT DERMATITIS
what is the management for irritant contact dermatitis (ICD)?

A

1st line
- avoidance of irritant
- skin emollients

2nd line
- topical corticosteroids (hydrocortisone, betamethasone)

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14
Q

CONTACT DERMATITIS
what is the management of allergic contact dermatitis (ACD)?

A

1st line
- avoidance of allergen
- topical corticosteroids (hydrocortisone, betamethasone)

2nd line
- topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus, pimecrolimus)

3rd line
- oral corticosteroids (prednisolone, dexamethasone)
- phototherapy (BUVB, PUVA)
- immunosuppressants (azathioprine, ciclosporin)

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15
Q

CUTANEOUS WARTS
what is the pathophysiology?

A

they are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) types 2 and 4

The virus invades the skin through small cuts or abrasions and causes rapid growth of cells on the outer layer of the skin, leading to the formation of a wart

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16
Q

CUTANEOUS WARTS
what are the risk factors?

A
  • use of public showers
  • close contact with a person with warts
  • skin trauma
  • immunosuppression
  • meat handlers
  • Caucasian ethnicity
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17
Q

CUTANEOUS WARTS
what is the management?

A

1st line
- watchful waiting
- topical salicylic acid

2nd line
- cryotherapy (freezing with liquid nitrogen)
- immunotherapy

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18
Q

FOLLICULITIS
what are the risk factors?

A
  • trauma (shaving, hair extraction)
  • topical corticosteroid use
  • diabetes mellitus
  • immunosuppression
  • drug-induced (corticosteroids, androgenic hormones, isoniazid, lithium)
  • hot tub use
    chronic inflammatory skin disease
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19
Q

FOLLICULITIS
what is hot tub folliculitis caused by?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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20
Q

FOLLICULITIS
what is the management?

A

CONSERVATIVE
- use clean sterile razors for shaving
- wear loose clothing
- antibacterial soap
- avoid hot tubs

MEDICAL
- mild = no treatment or topical antibiotics
- moderate bacterial = oral flucloxacillin (s.aureus) or oral ciprofloxacin (pseudomonas)
- moderate viral = oral aciclovir
- moderate fungal = ketoconazole, fluconazole, itraconazole

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21
Q

CUTANEOUS FUNGAL INFECTION (RINGWORM)
what are the risk factors?

A
  • close contact with infected individuals or animals
  • damp, warm environments
  • participation in contact sports
  • shared facilities
  • immunocompromised states
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22
Q

CUTANEOUS FUNGAL INFECTION (RINGWORM)
what is the management?

A

1st line
- topical antifungals (clomitrazole, terbinafine)
- skin care (avoid sharing towels, keep area clean and dry)

2nd line
- oral antifungals (terbinafine, itraconazole, fluconazole)

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23
Q

HEAD LICE
what causes head lice?

A

parasites (Pediculus humanus capitis) cause an infestation called pediculosis capitis

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24
Q

HEAD LICE
what is the management?

A

only treat if living lice are found

1st line:
- medicated lotions/sprays (dimeticone, isopropyl myrisate, cyclomethicone)
- wet combing (over 2 week period, days 1, 5, 9 and 13)
- insecticide (malathion)

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25
Q

HEAD LICE
how should you manage household contacts?

A

only need to be treated if they are also affected and found to have living lice

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26
Q

IMPETIGO
what is the management?

A

non-bullous
- localised = hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic (fusidic acid, mupirocin)
- widespread = topical (fusidic acid or mupirocin) or oral antibiotics (flucloxacillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin)

bullous
- oral antibiotics (flucloxacillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin)

27
Q

LICHEN PLANUS
what is the pathophysiology?

A

immune response leading to T-cell mediated inflammation and keratinocyte apoptosis

28
Q

LICHEN PLANUS
what are the risk factors?

A
  • ages 40-60
  • hep C
  • drugs (thiazide diuretics, beta-blockers, NSAIDS and antimalarials)
  • vaccinations
  • stress
  • family history
29
Q

LICHEN PLANUS
what are the clinical features?

A

SYMPTOMS
- itching
- oral discomfort
- hair loss

SIGNS
- purple, polygonal, flat-topped papules on wrists, ankles and lower back
- wickhams striae (white streaks overlying rash)
- rough thinning nails with grooves
- sore, red patches on vulva
- ring-shaped (annular) purple/white patches on penis

30
Q

LICHEN PLANUS
what is the management?

A

1st line
- topical corticosteroids
- conservative (wash with warm water, emollients, avoid tight clothing)

2nd line
- oral corticosteroids
- topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus)
- phototherapy

31
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
what are the risk factors?

A
  • increasing age
  • family history
  • pale skin (fitzpatrick type I and II)
  • red/blonde/light coloured hair
  • UV exposure
  • precursor lesions (dysplastic naevi)
  • previous skin cancer
  • immunosuppression
  • xeroderma pigementosum
32
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
how do you assess a nevus?

A

ABCDE
A - asymmetry of lesion
B - border irregular
C - colour non-uniform
D - diameter >6 mm
E - evolution: changing shape, size or colour

33
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
what are the different types?

A
  • superficial spreading (most common, horizontal growth)
  • nodular (may ulcerate + bleed, vertical growth)
  • lentigo maligna (seen in elderly, on face)
  • acral lentiginous (palms, soles and nailbed, more common in darker skin)
  • amelanotic (pink, lack pigment)
34
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
what is the diagnostic criteria?

A

MAJOR (2 points each)
- change in size
- irregular shape/border
- irregular colour

MINOR (1 point each)
- largest diameter >7mm
- inflammation
- oozing or crusting
- change in sensation (including itch)

> 3 points = strong concerns about cancer

35
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
how is it staged?

A

AJCC staging system

0 = confined to epidermis, melanoma in situ
1 = breslow thickness <2mm, no nodal involvement/mets
2 = breslow thickness 1-2mm with ulceration, or >2mm with/without ulceration, no nodal involvement/mets
3 = any thickness, involvement of local skin/LN
4 = any thickness, distant mets/LN

36
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
what is the management?

A

EARLY STAGE (0-2)
- excision with adequate margin
- topical imiquimod

STAGE 3
- LN dissection
- radiotherapy
- resection of mets

STAGE 4
- systemic treatments (chemo/immunotherapy)
- radiotherapy
- resection of mets

37
Q

MALIGNANT MELANOMA
where does it tend to spread to?

A

lymph nodes
brain
bones
liver
lung
GI tract

38
Q

PITYRIASIS ROSEA
what is it?

A

inflammatory skin condition of uncertain aetiology, though an association with human herpesviruses 6 and 7

39
Q

PITYRIASIS ROSEA
what is the management?

A
  • emollients
  • topical steroid = mild (hydrocortisone 1%) or moderate (betamethasone valerate 0.025%)
  • antihistamine (chlorphenamine) if itching affects sleep
40
Q

PITYRIASIS VERSICOLOR
what are the risk factors?

A
  • hot and humid climates
  • excessive sweating
  • oily skin
  • immunocompromised
  • age (teenagers + young adults)
41
Q

PITYRIASIS VERSICOLOR
what is the management?

A

1st line
- topical antifungals (ketonazole, selenium sulphide shampoo)
- sun protection

2nd line
- oral antifungals (fluconazole)

42
Q

PSORIASIS
what is the pathophysiology?

A
  • immune-mediated
  • abnormal T-cell activity that stimulates proliferation of keratinocytes
43
Q

PSORIASIS
what are the genetic factors that are strongly associated with psoriasis?

A

HLA-B13
HLA-B17

44
Q

PSORIASIS
what are the risk factors?

A
  • family history
  • obesity
  • smoking and alcohol consumption
  • medications (ACEi, BB, NSAIDs, lithium, hydroxychloroquine, steroid withdrawal, abx)
45
Q

PSORIASIS
what are the nail changes?

A
  • pitting
  • onycholysis
  • subungual hyperkeratosis
  • nail loss
46
Q

PSORIASIS
what is the management?

A

1st line
- patient education
- regular emollients
- topical corticosteroids + vit D for 4 weeks

  • if poor response, continue for 4 more weeks
  • if poor response after 8 weeks, stop corticosteroid + take vit D BD
  • if poor response after 12 weeks, potent topical steroid BD for 4 weeks

2nd line
- short-acting dithranol
- phototherapy

3rd line
- DMARDS (methotrexate, apremilast, ciclosporin)
- biologics (adalimumab, infliximab)

47
Q

SCABIES
what is the pathophysiology?

A
  • infestation with Sarcoptes scabiei
  • type IV hypersensitivity reaction
48
Q

SCABIES
what is the management?

A

1st line
- permethrin 5% cream
- topical crotamiton cream (symptomatic relief)

2nd line
- malathion aqueous 0.5%

49
Q

SCC
what is the pre-cancerous form of SCC?

A

actinic keratosis

50
Q

SCC
what are the invasive forms of SCC?

A
  • cutaneous horn
  • marjolin ulcer
  • keratoacanthoma
51
Q

SCC
what are the risk factors?

A
  • sun exposure and history of sunburns
  • use of tanning beds
  • chronic skin inflammation or injury
  • HPV infection
  • immunosuppression
52
Q

SCC
what are the clinical features?

A

SYMPTOMS
- itchy, tender or painful lesions
- ulcerating lesions
- lesions on sun-exposed areas

SIGNS
- scaly or erythematous lesions
- crusted or indurated lesions
- bleeding lesions
- irregular borders

53
Q

SCC
what is the management?

A
  • surgical excision (wide local or Mohs)
  • agressive cryotherapy
  • topical 5-fluorouracil
  • imiquimod
  • radiotherapy
54
Q

NECROTISING FASCIITIS
what are the different types?

A

it is classified according to causative organism
type 1 = polymicrobial (most common)
type 2 = group A haemolytic strep (s.pyogenes)
type 3 = gas gangrene
type 4 = fungal

55
Q

NECROTISING FASCIITIS
what are the risk factors?

A
  • recent trauma, burns or skin infection
  • increasing age
  • immunosuppressed
  • DM
  • SGLT-2 inhibitors
  • marine exposure
  • close contact with someone with necrotising fasciitis
56
Q

URTICARIA AND ANGIOEDEMA
what is the management?

A
  • 1st line = non-sedating antihistamines (cetirizine, loratadine and fexofenadine)
  • 2nd line = leukotriene receptor antagonists - montelukast, or omalizumab

if symptoms persist a short course of oral corticosteroid can be used in addition to above

SYMPTOMATIC RELIEF
- calamine lotion
- topical menthol 1% aqueous cream
- sedating antihistamines (chlorphenamine) if disturbing sleep

57
Q

GANGRENE
what are the causes of dry gangrene?

A

atherosclerosis
peripheral artery disease
thrombosis
vasculitis
vasospasm

58
Q

GANGRENE
what are the clinical features of dry gangrene?

A

well-demarcated necrotic area without signs of infection

59
Q

GANGRENE
what are the clinical features of wet gangrene?

A

necrotic area is poorly demarcated from surrounding tissue
patients present with fever + sepsis

60
Q

GANGRENE
what is the cause of gas gangrene?

A

clostridium perfringens

61
Q

ONYCHOMYCOSIS
what are the causative organisms?

A
  • dermatophytes (trichophyton rubrum) = most common
  • yeasts (candida)
  • non-dermatophyte moulds
62
Q

ONYCHOMYCOSIS
what is the management?

A
  • asymptomatic = not treatment

limited involvement (<50% nail affected, <2 nails affected, superficial)
- 1st line = topical amorolfine 5% nail lacquer, 6m for hands + 9-12m for feet

extensive dermatophyte infection
- 1st line = oral terbinafine, 6w-3m for hands + 3-6m for feet

extensive candida infection
- 1st line = oral itraconazole, ‘pulsed’ weekly therapy

63
Q

ROSACEA
what are the clinical features?

A
  • typically affects nose, cheeks + forehead
  • flushing is often 1st symptom
  • telangiectasia
  • later develops into persistent erythema with papules + pustules
  • rhinophyma
  • ocular involvement (blepharitis)
  • sunlight may exacerbate symptoms
64
Q

ROSACEA
what is the management?

A

CONSERVATIVE
- high factor sun cream
- camouflage cream to conceal redness

SYMPTOM CONTROL
- flushing = topical brimonidine gel or oral propranolol
- telangiectasia = laser therapy
- papules/pustules
- mild-moderate = 1st line - ivermectin (other options = topical metronidazole, topical azelaic acid)
- mod-severe = topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline