Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Tidal volume definition

A

Volume inspired or expired with each normal breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

Volume that can be inspired over and above the tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Volume that can be expired after the expiration of tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is the inspiratory reserve volume used?

A

During exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Residual volume

A

Volume that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the anatomic dead space?

A

Volume of conducting airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Physiologic dead space

A

Volume of the lungs that does not participate in gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Identify the inspiratory capacity.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify the Vital Capacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify the residual volume

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Identify the Functional residual capacity

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Identify the inspiratory capacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Identify the total lung capacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inspiratory capacity definition

A

Sum of tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

Sum of expiratory reserve volume and residual volume (volume remaining in lung after tidal volume is expired)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

A

The volume of air that can be expired in the first second of forced maximal expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) normal ratio?

A

FEV1/FVC = 0.80

FVC is forced vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In obstructive lung disease (asthma, COPD), what is the FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

Decreased (decreased rate of expiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In restrictive lung disease (fibrosis), what is the FEV/FVC ratio? (increased or decreased)

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the formula for vital capacity?

A

IRV+TV+ERV (maximum volume of air that can be expired after a full force inspiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Are the external intercostal and accessory muscles used for respiration during rest?

A

No - Only used during exercise and respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is expiration normally passive or active?

A

Passive - the lung-chest wall is normally elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do the internal intercostal muscles do?

A

Expiration - Pull the ribs downward an inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which cells produce surfactant?

A

Type II alveolar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does surfactant consist of?

A

A phospholipid called DPPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Resistance of the airway is dictated by what law?

A

Poiseuille’s law

Powerful inverse relationship with airway radius (to the 4th power)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Resistance of the airway is dictated by what law?

A

Poiseuille’s law

Powerful inverse relationship with airway radius (to the 4th power)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a major site of airway resistance?

A

Medium-sized bronchi.

Smaller airways don’t contribute because of their parallel arrangement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is isoproterenol’s effect on the airway?

A

Airway dilation via B2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes sickle cell disease

A

Hemoglobin S (Alpha subunits are normal but beta subunits are abnormal)

31
Q

When is the hemoglobin dissociation curve shifted to the right?

A

In peripheral tissues, where affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is decreased (Bohr effect)

32
Q

What causes a right shift in the hemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Acid pH, increased CO2, Increased temperature, Increased 2,3 DPG

33
Q

When is the oxygen dissociation curve left-shifted?

A

In the lungs, allows for higher hemoglobin affinity to oxygen.

34
Q

What is the major form of CO2 in the blood?

A

HCO3- (Bicarbonate)

35
Q

What chemoreceptors detect hypoxemia? (peripheral/central)

A

Peripheral - Aortic and carotid bodies

36
Q

Which chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2? (Central or peripheral)

A

Central

37
Q

What are the two major forces that act on pulmonary compliance?

A

Surface tension (2/3)

Elasticity of lung tissue (1/3)

38
Q

How do you calculate the expiratory reserve volume?

A

Ventilatory capacity minus inspiratory capacity

39
Q

How can LA pressure be estimated?

A

By obtaining capillary wedge pressure (CWP usually 2-3 mmHg higher than LA pressure

40
Q

Gas exchange occurs only at the alveoli? True/false

A

FALSE: Gas exchange happens in alveoli AND terminal airways

41
Q

What are causes for an increased A-a gradient?

A

Shunt, V/Q mismatch, diffusion impairement

42
Q

What is the normal PaO2/FIO2 ratio?

A

Normal - 500
200-300 is acute lung injury
<200 considered ARDS

43
Q

What is the interstitial PO2 concentration

A

40 mmHg

44
Q

How is CO2 carried in the blood (3 ways)?

A
  1. Dissolved CO2 (7%)
  2. Carboxyhemoglobin (23%)
  3. HCO3- (70%)
45
Q

How is HCO3- formed in blood?

A
  1. CO2 is transformed to HCO3- in the RBC
  2. H+ is buffered by Hb, exchanging for O2
  3. HCO3 exchanges for Cl so the former can be carried in the blood
46
Q

What do you see with Cheyne-Stokes breathing?

A

Periodic over and underventilation

47
Q

What pathogens cause most feline upper respiratory infections (URI)?

A

Feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1) and feline calicivirus (FCV) cause approximately 80% of all URIs in cats.

48
Q

What dogs (head conformation) are usually affected with lymphoplasmacytic rhinitis?

A

Dolichocephalics and mesaticephalics

49
Q

What is the treatment of LPR?

A

Extremely frustrating to treat.

Efficacy with low-dose immunomodulating abx (doxy or azythromycin) and NSAID (piroxicam). Antifungal medications (itraconazole) have shown benefit.

50
Q

What immune response dominates eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?

A

Helper T cell type 2 (TH2) immune response with increase in CD4+ T cells

51
Q

What type of immune response is eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy characterized by?

CD4 or CD8
Th1 or Th2

A

CD4 and Th2

52
Q

What is Paragonimus kellecoti transmitted by?

A

Crayfish

53
Q

How does paragonimus migrate to the lungs?

A

Ingested > goes into peritoneum > pleura > Adult goes into bronchioles

54
Q

Where do adults of Filaroides hirthi reside?

A

Alveoli and terminal bronchioles

55
Q

Where do adult Aleurostrongylus abstrussus worms reside?

A

Bronchioles

56
Q

Where do Oslerus osleri reside in the airways?

A

Distal trachea and and proximal bronchi

57
Q

What is the nasal worm of dogs?

A

Eucoleus boehmi

58
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica compromises the host’s normal respiratory defense mechanisms in what way?

A

Secretion of exotoxins disrupts mucocilliary apparatus

59
Q

What is the natural infection reservoir for Yersinia pestis?

A

Rodents (fleas on the rodents)

60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of theophylline?

A

Methylxantine:

Phosphodiesterase III and IV inhibitor (increased cAMP)

Adenosine inhibitor

Increased catecholamine release

Inhibits prostaglandin

61
Q

What is hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

Periostial proliferative disease secondary to infectious or neoplastic disease in thoracic (or abdominal) cavity

62
Q

What are treatments for hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

Surgical removal of mass, tx of infection and/or unilateral vagotomy

63
Q

What are 5 mechanisms on how PTE leads to respiratory failure?

A
  1. High V/Q mismatch
  2. Vasoconstriction/bronchoconstriction (PLT degranulation)
  3. Decreased surfactant protection
  4. Pulmonary edema
  5. Ischemic necrosis
64
Q

What are histopathological changes observed in bronchiectasis?

A
  1. Dilation of the airways
  2. Airway lumen filled with neutrophilic/MOs mucus
  3. Reserve cell hyperplasia/squamous metaplasia with inflammation
  4. Loss of fibromuscular tissues
  5. Peribronchial fibrosis
65
Q

The pneumotaxic center inhibits what?

A

Inspiration

66
Q

Dogs with pyruvate kinase deficiency have (high/low) 2,3 DGP?

A

High

67
Q

How is Oslerus osleri diagnosed?

A

Baermann or BAL cytology

68
Q

What organism can be found on a BAL that is secondary to oral contamination?

A

Simonsiella spp.

69
Q

What is the most common isolate of community acquired pneumonia in cats?

A

Streptococcus

70
Q

Where are the J receptors located?

A

Alveoli

71
Q

What breeds are predisposed to congenital laryngeal paralysis?

A

Bouvier de Flandres, Siberian Huskies, Bull Terriers, German Shepherd Dogs, Dalmatian, Rottweilers

72
Q

What are the three components of Kartagener’s syndrome?

A
  1. Situs inversus;
  2. Bronchiectasis;
  3. Chronic rhinosinusitis

Associated with primary ciliary diskenisia

73
Q

How is bradykinin metabolized?

A

In the lungs by ACE