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ACVIM General Boards - 2022 > Infectious > Flashcards

Infectious Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of bacteria is Ehrlichia?

A

Intracellular

Gram-negative

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2
Q

How is Ehrlichia transmitted in the vector (tick)?

A

Trans-stadial transmission

Pathogen remains with vector from one life stage to another (but not from parent to eggs).

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3
Q

Who causes canine monocytic ehrlichiosis

A

E. canis

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4
Q

Which tick carries E. canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineous (Brown dog tick)

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5
Q

Who causes Canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

E. ewingii

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6
Q

What tick carries E. ewingii (Canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis)?

A

Amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)

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7
Q

Who causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis

A

E. chaffeensis

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8
Q

True or false: Ehrlichia, Anaplasma and Neorickettsia are in the same family?

A

True

Rickettsiae is a separate family

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9
Q

What dog breed is more susceptible to E. canis with a worse prognosis?

A

German Shepherds

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10
Q

What is the pathogenesis of E. canis? (Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis)

A
  1. Organism multiplies within vacules in monocytes - lyse cells
  2. Immune-mediated mechanism
  3. Presence of spleen contributes to severity of disease
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11
Q

What are the phases of the disease for canine monocytic ehrlichiosis (E. canis)?

A
  1. Acute 8-20 days after infection, may resolve spontaneously.
  2. Subclinical - Organisms sequestered in spleen
  3. Chronic phase
    • Can see pancytopenia from BM involvement
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12
Q

What are some secondary opportunistic infections with E. canis (canine monocytic ehrlichiosis)?

A
  1. Viral papillomatosis
  2. Protozoal infections
  3. Bacterial UTIs
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13
Q

What is a protein electrophoresis finding of E. canis?

A

Sometimes can have a monoclonal gammopathy => misdiagnosis of lymphocytic leukemia or multiple myeloma

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14
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction can you see with E. canis?

A

Type III hypersensitivity (Immune complex deposition) and protein losing nephropathy (glomerulonephritis)

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15
Q

What are some clinical signs of E. canis (canine monocytic ehrlichiosis)?

A

Fever, lethargy, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, anterior uveitis, neurologic CS

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16
Q

What are CBC findings of E. canis?

A

Thrombocytopenia!
Occasional mild leukopenia
Pancytopenia in chronic phase
Morulae in circulating monocytes

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17
Q

What are common chemistry findings of E. canis?

A
  1. Hyperglobulinemia (polyclonal most common, but can be monoclonal) with hypoalbuminemia.
  2. ALT/ALP elevations
  3. Azotemia if PLN
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18
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic for Ehrlichia canis?

A

IFA (there is cross-reactivity)

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19
Q

What is the consensus treatment for E. canis?

A

Doxycycline 10mg/kg Q24h x 28d

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20
Q

Does Ehrlichia ewingii (Canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis) have a chronic phase?

A

NO

Only E. canis

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21
Q

What are symptoms for E. ewingii (Canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis)?

A

Usually NONE
Fever
Anorexia
Neutrophilic Polyarthritis

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22
Q

True or false: Dogs can be reservoir host for E. ewingii (canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis)

A

TRUE

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23
Q

What is the pathogen for human monocytic ehrlichiosis and what tick carries it?

A
  1. Ehrlichia chaffensis

2. Amblyomma americanum (lone star tick)

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24
Q

Diagnosis for E. ewingii is limited to:

A

ELISA, western blot, PCR

Can do IFA for E. canis only

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25
Q

What organism causes granulocytic anaplasmosis?

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

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26
Q

What tick carries Anaplasma phagocytophilum (granulocytic anaplasmosis)

A

Ixodes ricinuspersulcatus complex

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27
Q

What cells are affected by Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Neutrophils and eosinophils

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28
Q

What organism causes THROMBOCYTOTROPIC ANAPLASMOSIS?

A

Anaplasma platys - Aka….Canine Cyclical Thrombocytopenia

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29
Q

What cells does Anaplasma platys infect?

A

Platelets

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30
Q

What is A. phagocytophilum effect on neutrophils?

A

delays neutrophil apoptosis => allows longer survival periods within the neutrophil.

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31
Q

What is the most common symptoms with A. phagocytophilum?

A

No clinical signs

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32
Q

What is the most common CBC finding with A. phagocytophilum?

A

Thrombocytopenia in 90% of canine cases (+/- other cytopenias

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33
Q

What tick carries Anaplasma platys

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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34
Q

What kind of organism is Babesia spp.

A

Intracellular protozoan

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35
Q

What cells does babesia spp infect?

A

RBC

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36
Q

What babesia cell stage is observed within RBC?

A

Merozoites

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37
Q

What type of immune response does babesia cause?

A

Induces immune-mediated destruction of erythrocytes

Anti-erythrocyte antibodies may develop as well (self-antigen), contributing to IMHA

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38
Q

What kind of organism is Cytauxzoon?

A

Apicomplexan protozoal

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39
Q

What does Cytauxzoon use to invade cells?

A

apical complex

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40
Q

What are the vectors for Cytauxzoon?

A

Lone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum)

American dog tick (Dermacentor variabilis)

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41
Q

How does Cytauxzoon live in the blood?

A

Monocytes - Schizont

Erythrocytic - Piroplasm

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42
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Cytauxzoon?

A

Schizogenous phase - FAT monocytes with schizonts > block blood vessels > microvascular hypoxia, SIRS/sepsis, DIC, organ failure

Piroplasm phase - RBC hemolysis

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43
Q

What is the treatment for Cytauxzoon?

A

Atovaquone and azithromycin

GIVE WITH FOOD - increased oral bioavailability for atovaquone

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44
Q

Is Cytauxzoon zoonotic?

A

NO - has not been known to infect people

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45
Q

Hepatozoonosis:

Is it zoonotic?
Does it affect the liver?

A

NO and rarely lol

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46
Q

How is Hepatozoon transmitted to the dog?

A

Ingestion of an infected tick (not from tick bite)

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47
Q

What is the life cycle of Hepatozoon americanum?

A

Sporozoites infect monocytes; Then monocytes go to the muscle; pyogranuloma forms in the muscle (Onion-skin cysts). Burst and release gamonts

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48
Q

What is the life cycle of Hepatozoon canis?

A

Does not invade the muscle like H americanum.

Dog ingests infected tick, micromerozoites invade neutrophils and and monocytes.

Transplacental transmission

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49
Q

Facts about feline Hepatozoonosis (Hepatozoon felis)

A
  • Usually asymptomatic

* Usually cats with FIV/FeLV

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50
Q

What causes salmon poisoning?

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

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51
Q

What kind of microorganism is Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A

Gram-negative coccobacillary organism

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52
Q

Describe the life cycle of Neorickettsia helminthoeca (salmon poisoning)

A

Vector is Nanophyetus salmincola - a trematode that infects snail, fish, then mammal

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53
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A
  1. Dog ingests fish with infected trematode
  2. Adult fluke innoculates dog with Neorickettsia
  3. Rickettsial organisms replicate initially in the epithelial cells of the intestinal villi or intestinal
    lymphoid tissue then enter the blood stream and spread to the lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, thymus, liver, lungs, and brain
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54
Q

What is the vector of Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A

Nanophyetus salmincola - A trematode/fluke

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55
Q

How do you diagnose Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A
  1. Fecal - May see Nanophyetus salmincola eggs.
  2. Lymph node cytology - reactivity and histiocytic hyperplasia; Intracytoplasmic rickettsial organisms within histiocytes.
  3. PCR
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56
Q

What is the treatment for Neorickettsia helminthoeca (Salmon poisoning disease)

A

Doxycycline for Neorickettsia

Praziquantel for Nanophyetus salmincola fluke

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57
Q

What is the geographic distribution of Neorickettsia helminthoeca (salmon poisoning)

A

Pacific northwest

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58
Q

Where does R. Rickettsii replicate in the host?

A

Endothelial cells

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59
Q

What is the mechanism for thrombocytopenia in rocky mountain spotted fever? (R. Rickettsii)

A
  1. Immune-mediated destruction

2. Coagulatory consumption

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60
Q

Which organism has been known to cause SIADH? What electrolyte disturbance does SIADH cause?

A

R. Rickettsii

Hyponatremia

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61
Q

What is the broad pathogenesis of RMSF?

A
  1. Vasculitis, increased vascular permeability
  2. Thrombocytopenia, hemorrhage, DIC
  3. Edema (brain, lung)
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62
Q

How do you confirm a RMSF diagnosis?

A

Fourfold increase in IgG seroreactivity
or Positive IgM seroreativity.

There is 5-15% seroreactivity in healthy dogs across the Atlantic

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63
Q

What babesia species can cause red biliary syndrome?

A

B. canis rossi

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64
Q

What is red biliary syndrome regarding B. canis rossi?

A

Severe intravascular hemolysis AND
hemoconcentration.

Hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria (in some combination) and elevated HCT due to fluid shifts into extracellular spaces

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65
Q

How do you treat Babesia spp. (Other than B. gibsoni)?

A

Imidocarb diproprionate

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66
Q

How do you treat Babesia gibsoni?

A

Combination with azithromycin and atovaquone

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67
Q

In addition to Doxy, what drug do you ned to treat a patient with Neorickettsia helminthoeca?

A

Praziquantel for trematode vector (Nanophyetus salmonicola)

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68
Q

Which would be most specific for the diagnosis of toxoplasma in a cats with clinical signs?

a. Oocysts in feces
b. IgM > 1:64 in CSF
c. IgG > 1:64 in serum
d. Blood culture

A

b. IgM > 1:64 in CSF

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69
Q

What is the most accurate way to diagnose ocular or CNS toxoplasmosis in cats?

A

The combination of T. gondii–specific antibody

detection in aqueous humor or CSF and organism DNA amplification by PCR

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70
Q

Which one is acid fast and which one isn’t?

a. Nocardia
b. Actinomyces

A

a. Nocardia - Acid fast

b. Actinomyces - Non-acid fast

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71
Q

What is the most common cause of pyothorax in cats?

A

Pasteurella

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72
Q

What is the most common cause of diskospondilytis?

A

Staph aureus

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73
Q

You have a cat with FIV. Four weeks ago, she gave birth to kittens who tested positive for FIV. What should you do with the kittens?

A

Isolate the kittens and test them again in 6 months.

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74
Q

Horses and dogs are reservoirs for humans for which pathogen?

A

Staph aureus

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75
Q

Which tick carries anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Ixodes spp. (co-transmitted with borrelia)

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76
Q

Which virus causes myocarditis in dogs, cerebellar hypoplasia in cats and diarrhea in pigs?

A

Parvovirus

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77
Q

How is rabies diagnosed?

A

IFA on the brainstem or cerebellum

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78
Q

How is cryptococcus diagnosed?

A

Latex agglutination test - Detects capsular antigen

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79
Q

How does leptospirosis cause azotemia?

A

Interstitial nephritis, renal swelling, and vasculitis => decreased renal perfusion

Lepto also invades renal tubular cells

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80
Q

How is the MAT test for lepto performed?

A

The patient’s serum is incubated with a suspension of live leptospires and evaluated by dark-field microscopy for agglutination

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81
Q

How is Hepatozoon americanum diagnosed?

A

Muscle biopsy

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82
Q

What percentage of cats with coronavirus develop FIP?

A

1/10

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83
Q

Where does the feline coronavirus replicate? Where does the FIP virus replicate?

A

Feline coronavirus - Enterocytes

FIP - Macrophages

84
Q

What is the pathogenesis of FIP?

A

Infected monocytes attach to vascular endothelium

Virus attracts complement - Release of vasoactive amines and vasculitis

Major damage by antibody dependent enhancement

85
Q

Which cats with coronavirus DO NOT get FIP?

A

The ones that DO NOT mount humoral response

86
Q

What are the clinical findings for most uncomplicated Feline coronavirus infections?

A

Most subclinical, some develop URI, diarrhea and vomiting

87
Q

What is the acute form of FIP?

88
Q

What is the chronic form of FIP?

A

Non-effusive

89
Q

What are signs of chronic FIP (non-effusive)?

A

Ocular - Iritis, uveitis and keratitic precipitates

Neurologic (25-33%) of cats - Ataxia, HYDROCEPHALUS

Intestinal granulomas less common

90
Q

What is the gold-standard for diagnosing FIP?

A

Immunohistochemistry of lesions (pyogranuloma, area of vasculitis)

91
Q

What are the potential outcomes with FeLV infection?

A
  1. Effective CMI eliminates virus completely
  2. Transient viremia (<3 weeks)- Virus spreads to lymph nodes, thimus, spleen etc. Virus is shed. Potentially cleared by immune response
  3. Bone marrow infection - Persistent viremia (>3 weeks). Incorporation into hosts’ DNA. Cannot be cleared at this stage
92
Q

What does the FeLV ELISA test for?

A

p27 antigen (FeLV core protein) - indicates viremic cat

93
Q

How is Mycoplasma hemofelis transmitted?

A

Fleas and flea dirt

94
Q

Can Mycoplasma haemofelis be opportunistic?

A

Yes - 40-50% of cats with mycoplasma have FeLV

95
Q

How is mycoplasma hemofelis different from mycoplasma hemominutum?

A

M. hemominutum usually doesn’t cause clinical signs (unless the cat has FeLV)

96
Q

How is FIV transmitted?

97
Q

What is the target cell for FIV?

A

Primarily CD4+ T lymphocytes

Can also use CD8, B cells, macrophages, dendritics

98
Q

What does the FIV ELISA test for?

A

ANTIBODIES to p24 core protein or gp40 transmembrane protein

99
Q

What cats will have a false positive for FIV?

A

Vaccinated cats

Kittens <6 months of age (maternal antibodies)

100
Q

How is a positive FIV test confirmed?

A

Western Blot

101
Q

How is FeLV transmitted?

A

Salivary secretions - Licking, grooming, shared water and food dishes

102
Q

What does E. canis look like on flow cytometry?

A

CD8+ T cell leukemia

103
Q

Treatment of tritrichomonas in cats?

A

Ronidazole

104
Q

What is the mechanism behind botulism toxin?

A

Inhibition of Ach release from presynaptic membrane

105
Q

When should you treat salmonella?

A

When clinically necessary due to signs

106
Q

For what organsim do you see morulae in neutrophils?

107
Q

Which cat is most likely to have toxoplasma?

  1. Cat with high IgM and FIV
  2. Cat that ingested contaminated meat 12 hours ago
  3. Cat with diarrhea
  4. Cat with increased but stable IgG titers
A
  1. Cat with high IgM and FIV
108
Q

What percentage of hospitalized patients develop nosocomial infections?

109
Q

Who sheds toxoplasma oocytes?

A

Cats that ingest bradyzoites in tissues of prey.

Bradyzoites infect enterocytes and undergo sexual reproduction

110
Q

What tick transmits lyme disease?

111
Q

What does the Lyme ELISA test for?

A

Antibodies for C6

112
Q

What type of gromerulonephritis does lyme disease cause?

A

Membranoproliferative GN

113
Q

What organism transmits Leishmaniasis?

A

Sand flies

114
Q

What are the clinical signs of leishmaniasis?

A

Fever
Weight loss
Cutaneous lesions
Immune complex disease (e.g. nephrotic syndrome)

115
Q

How do you treat leishmaniasis?

A 
Meglumine antimoniate (antimoniate drugs)
Allopurinol
116
Q

Is Brucella zoonotic?

117
Q

How is brucella diagnosed?

A

Rapid slide agglutination test

118
Q

What is the treatment of brucella?

A

Doxy + aminoglycoside (castrate)

119
Q

What tick carries Anaplasma phagocytophylum?

A

Ixodes spp

120
Q

How can blastomycosis be transmitted?

A

Inhalation of spores

Direct inoculation on skin with trauma

121
Q

What contributes to the virulence of blastomycosis?

A

Dependent on BAD-1 (Blastomyces adhesion-1)

Inhibits immune response (suppress TNF-a and CD4+ lymphocytes)

122
Q

How is blastomycosis diagnosed?

A 
Cytology or histopath
Urine antigen (elisa)
123
Q

What is the canine influenza variant?

A

H3N8 (originated from racing grayhounds)

124
Q

What type of virus is FIV?

A

Lentivirus, retrovirus

125
Q

What is the best test to detect rabies?

A

Direct fluorescence assay on brainstem/cerebellum

126
Q

What is the MOA of rifampin?

A

Inhibits B-subunit of bacterial RNA polymerase

127
Q

What is the MOA of doxycycline?

A

Inhibits 30S ribosomal subunit - inhibits protein synthesis

128
Q

What is the MOA of TMS?

A

Inhibits folic acid metabolism

Affects purine/DNA synthesis

129
Q

What is dermatophilus congolensis?

A

Gram + bacteria - Causes rain scald (horses, people, dogs)

130
Q

What are dermatophytic mycetomas?

A

PERSIANS predisposed. Microsporum canis causing coalescing SQ granulomas.

AKA granulomatous dermatitis; Majocchi’s granuloma; pseudomycetomas

131
Q

What percentage of dogs with E. canis have thrombocytopenia?

132
Q

Which organisms have morulae?

A

Monocytes - E. canis, E. chaffensis

Granulocytes - A. phagocytophilum, E. ewengii

133
Q

What part of the intestinal villi does parvo attack?

A

Crypt (more pathogenic viruses attack crypts)

134
Q

What part of the intestinal

135
Q

What part of intestinal villi does coronavirus infect?

A

Tip of villi

136
Q

What part of intestinal villi does rotavirus infect?

A

top 1/3 of villi

137
Q

Which intestinal organisms infect:

a. Villi
b. Crypts
c. Both

A

a. Villi - Rotavirus, coronavirus, giardia, cryptosporidium, enteropathogenic E. Coli
b. Crypts - Parvovirus, helicobacter
c. Both - Salmonella, campylobacter

138
Q

What kind of virus is canine hepatitis virus?

A

Adenoviridae

139
Q

What kind of virus is distemper?

A

Paramyxoviridae; morbilivirus

140
Q

What is the family of parvovirus and panleukopenia virus?

A

Parvoviridae

141
Q

What is the family/genus of rabies virus?

A

Rhabdoviridae/lyssavirus

142
Q

What is the family of rotavirus?

A

Reoviridae

143
Q

What is phaeohyphomycosis?

A

Fungal infection caused by many species of dark, melanin-pigmented dematiaceous fungi

144
Q

What is the treatment for phaeohyphomycosis?

A

Pigmented fungi are poorly responsive to medical therapy.

SURGICAL RESECTION is tx of choice

Itraconazole can be tried if non-surgical

145
Q

Does babesia cause intra- or extravascular hemolysis?

A

Intravascular - When merozoites are released, the RBC will burst. Also complement mediated (Ag on RBC surface)

Extravascular - There is some (Ag on surface of cell)

146
Q

Is lyme zoonotic?

A

Yes, but most go through a tick vector

147
Q

What is sporotrichosis? How is it transmitted?

A

Dimorphic, cigar-shaped fungus. Inoculated by punctur

148
Q

How do you treat sporotrichosis?

A

Itraconazole

Dogs - Can do supersaturated sln of potassium iodide with food (30 days post resolution)

149
Q

What is the difference between E. canis and A. phagocytophylum?

A

E. canis - Monocytic. Can be chronic (e.g. BM involvement). Can have monoclonal gammopathy

A. phagocytophylum - Granulocytic. Acute presentation (although most dogs show no signs)

150
Q

What is the definitive way to diagnose FIP?

A

Histopath - The use of IHC or IFA on diseased tissue is typically the gold-standard for definitive
diagnosis of FIP

151
Q

How do you effectively treat cryptosporidium?

A

Azithromycin

Tylosin

152
Q

What is the treatment for nocardia? (filamentous, acid-fast)

153
Q

What are the causes for distempter-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Virus-antibody complexes on platelet surface - first

Direct infection of megakaryocytes - later

154
Q

How do cats transplacentally infect the kittens with toxoplasma?

A

Tachyzoite stage infects fetus

155
Q

What is the most sensitive test for bartonella?

156
Q

What stage of Cytauxzoon lives in macrophages?

A

Schizonts - Live in macrophages and occlude blood vessels

157
Q

Why is amphotericin B lipid-encapsulated less nephrotoxic when compared to the deoxycholate amphotericin B?

A

Decreased nephrotoxicity results from a reduced rate of transfer of amphotericin B to mammalian cell membranes and increased drug clearance from the blood by the mononuclear phagocyte system

158
Q

Which one is less nephrotoxic?

Lipid-encapsulated amphotericin B
Amphoterixin B deoxycholate

A

Lipid-encapsulated amphotericin B is LESS nephrotoxic

159
Q

How does FIP cause abdominal effusion?

A

Production of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) - Increased vascular permeability

Also complex deposition (Type III HS) around small venules

160
Q

What is the most consistent clinicopathological finding of Hepatozoon americanum?

A

SEVERE neutrophilia

Also periosteal bone reaction

161
Q

What does the FeLV ELISA test for?

A

p27 antigen

162
Q

What lungworms can you detect with a Baermann?

A

Aelurostrongilus sp

Crenosoma sp

163
Q

What tick carries hepatozoon americanum?

A

Amblyomma maculatum

164
Q

How do you treat mycobacteria?

A

Enrofloxacin, rifampin, azythromycin

165
Q

Cats with FIV and UTI - How do you treat UTI?

A

Always use a cidal drug

166
Q

How is Neospora transmitted in the dog?

A

Ingest tissue cyst or transplacentally

167
Q

What is the most common sign of lyme disease?

A

Polyarthropathy

168
Q

How you treat mycoplasma in a cat?

A

Fluoroquinolone and doxycycline

169
Q

How do you treat salmon poisoning?

A

Doxycycline

170
Q

Which of the following are zoonotic? (Pythium, Staph aureous, sarcocystis, histoplasma)

A

Staph aureous

171
Q

What is the best way to diagnose leptospirosis 5 days after exposure?

A

PCR - Do MAT after 7-10 days

172
Q

Highested specificity test for Bartonella?

A

Culture

serology has highest sensitivity

173
Q

What stage of babesia causes hemolysis?

merozoite, ookinete, sporozoite, trophozoite

174
Q

Most sensitive bloodwork abnormality for Hepatozoonosis americanum?

A

High CK (pyogranulomatous inflammation from tissue phase)

175
Q

In addition to doxycycline, what drug do you need to treat a patient with Neorickettsia
helmintheca?

A

Praziquantel

176
Q

Young cat with acute, hemolytic anemia with epicellular RBC parasites? How would you
treat this cat?

A

Doxy

+/- quinolone

177
Q

Dog with pleural effusion, elevated temperature (104.5). On cytology of pleural fluid, you
see non-acid fast filamentous organism. Aerobic culture is negative. What is the most
likely cause?

A

Actinomyces

178
Q

Most common cause of pyothorax in cat?

A

Pasteurella

179
Q

3 year old dog with large bowel diarrhea. On rectal scrapings you see small (2-4 um)
organisms inside macrophages. What is the diagnosis?

A

Histoplasma

180
Q

Horses and dogs are a reservoir for humans for which of the following?

a. Staph auerus
b. Pythium
c. Blasto
d. Sarcocystis

A

Staph aureus

181
Q

What tick carries Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

182
Q

How do you diagnose Rabies?

A

IFA on brainstem, cerebellum

183
Q

How can you definitely diagnosed hepatozoon americanum?

A

Muscle biopsy

184
Q

When can spontaneous remission be seen with Tritrichomonas foetus?

A

In 2 years

185
Q

Regarding treatment of prostatitis - What drug qualities do you need?

pKa (high/low)
Protein binding (high/low)
A 
Low pKa (weak base) allowing non-ionic form of
the drug to cross lipid prostatic membrane

Low protein binding

186
Q

What is the most likely bacteria to cause prostatitis?

187
Q

What abx are recommended for the treatment of prostatitis?

A

TMS, chloramphenicol, fluoroquinolones

188
Q

What bacteria is not susceptible to clavamox?

A

Enterococci

189
Q

In what percentage of healthy dogs can salmonella be found?

190
Q

What part of the small intestine does salmonella have predilection for?

A

Invades ileal epithelium and causes mucosa sloughing/secretory d+.

191
Q

What kind of immune response is expected with leishmania?

A

Cell mediated immunity via Th1 CD4 cells

192
Q

Cats are more likely to have (male/female) heartworm infections?

A

Male - more likely to miss antigen

193
Q

What tick carries E. canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineous

194
Q

What tick carries E. ewengii?

A

Amblyoma americanum

195
Q

How is the organism transmitted within ticks?

Ehrlichia anaplasma, neorickettsia

Rickettsia

A

Ehrlichia anaplasma, neorickettsia - transtadial

Rickettsia - Transovarial

196
Q

What is the host of anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

Deer, rodents

197
Q

What drug has been shown to decrease the burden of Trypanosoma cruzi infection?

A

Benznidazole

198
Q

What are the common clinical signs of Trypanosoma cruzi infection?

A

Cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia, occasional neurologic disease and laryngeal paralysi

199
Q

Which breed is commonly affected by Babesia gibsoni?

A

American pit bull terriers

200
Q

Which antifungal crosses BBB?

A

Fluconazole

Voriconazole (to a lesser extent)

201
Q

What is the most efficacious treatment for cryptococcus?

A

Amphotericin B

202
Q

How is coccidiodes acquired?

A

Inhalation

203
Q

For coccidioidomycosis, is antigen or antibody testing recommended?

204
Q

What does the urine antigen test for blasto detect?

A

gallactomannan

205
Q

As opposed to dogs, what group of cats are overrepresented in cases of upper respiratory tract aspergillosis?

A

Brachycephalic cats

206
Q

What fungal organism can be highly zoonotic from infected patients to humans?

A

Sporothrix – cat scratches

207
Q

Which form of sporothrix is most common in cats?

A

Disseminated

dogs - cutaneous, cutaneolympatic

ACVIM General Boards - 2022 (16 decks)

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