Resp Formative Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

Volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after normal respiration.

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2
Q

What is Functional Residual capacity?

A

Volume left in lungs after normal expiration.

ERV + RV

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3
Q

What is residual volume?

A

The volume of air that cannot be voluntarily expired.

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4
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The maximum volume of air that can be voluntarily exhaled following a maximum inspiration

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5
Q

Why does air flow into the lungs during inspiration?

A

The external intercostal and diaphragm muscles contract and thoracic volume increases.

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6
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

The volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs during each breath.

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7
Q

How do you calculate alveolar ventilation?

A

(Tidal Vol - Dead space) x Respiratory rate.

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8
Q

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in mixed venous blood?

A

40mmhg (5.3kPa)

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9
Q

Which condition will reduce the Arterial partial pressure of oxygen?

A

Emphysema - oxygen conc. in solution will be reduced

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10
Q

What sedative is not safe to use on individuals with chronic lung disease?

A

Nitrous oxide - it blunts the peripheral chemoreceptor response to falling oxygen and patients are on hypoxic drive so they have no means of controlling ventilation.

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11
Q

What happens to arterial PCO2 levels in individuals with chronic lung disease?

A

Arterial PCO2 levels are elevated due to poor alveolar ventilation.

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12
Q

Why are patients with chronic lung disease said to be on hypoxic drive?

A

Chronic elevation of PCO2 has blunted central response to CO2. Too they rely on peripheral receptors.

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13
Q

What is shunt?

A

When perfusion exceeds ventilation in L/min.

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14
Q

In what direction would an asthma attack shift the haemoglobin oxygen binging curve?

A

RIGHT

Broncho-constriction will decrease ventilation meaning PCO2 will rise, pH will fall.

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15
Q

In what direction will hypothermia shift the haemoglobin oxygen binding curve?

A

LEFT

Decrease in body temp makes it difficult to offload oxygen to peripheral tissues. Want to keep core ventilated/warm.

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16
Q

In what direction will the presence of foetal haemoglobin shift the haemoglobin oxygen binding curve?

A

LEFT

It has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin so wants to keep it more.

17
Q

In what direction will respiratory alkalosis shift the haemoglobin oxygen binding curve?

A

LEFT

Decrease in H+ means a decrease in PCO2. Doesn’t need to release oxygen to balance it out.

18
Q

In what direction does voluntary hyperventilation shift the haemoglobin oxygen binding curve?

A

LEFT

Decreases PCO2

19
Q

Which vertebral bodies does the head of the 9th rib articulate with?

A

T8 and T9

The one ABOVE and its OWN.

20
Q

Where does the cardiac notch appear?

A

Left lung anterior border.

21
Q

What pleura do lung fissures contain?

A

Visceral

22
Q

Which lung has an eparterial broncos in its hilum?

A

Right - as it has 3 lobes.

23
Q

What would be the most appropriate investigation if a patient with known squamous carcinoma of lung is admitted with abdominal pain, constipation and confusion?

A

Serum calcium - squamous carcinoma is associated with hypercalcaemia due to parathyroid hormone related protein.

24
Q

What would be the most appropriate investigation if a patient with peripheral spiculated opacity on chest x-ray and enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is admitted?

A

Fine Needle Aspiration lymph node - sample I needed for pathology to diagnose what type of cancer it is.

25
Q

What is an obese man who has excessive daytime somnolence, snoring and napping as well as 10 desaturations per hour on overnight oximetry classification on the Obstructive Sleep Apnoea scale?

A

Mild - 5 - 15 desaturations per hour

26
Q

What organism is most likely to cause lobar pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

27
Q

What are the blood gas values most likely to be if a patient with exacerbation of asthma is too tired to speak or do a peak flow?

A

pH will be decreased e.g 7.22 - acidosis

PaO2 will be decreased e.g 7.8 - hypoxia

PaCO2 will be increased e.g 8.6 - hypercapnia

28
Q

What treatment should a newly diagnosed asthmatic who is waking up at night because of asthma receive?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids (night time waking) and inhaled beta-2-agonist.

29
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a previously fit 19 yr old who has a sudden onset of severe right sided chest paining breathlessness whilst walking up stairs? The symptoms are still present an hour later.

A

Primary pneumothorax

30
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a 32yr old man recovering from a bad attack of pneumonia, who develops riggers, persistently poor appetite and increasing SOB on exertion?

A

Empyema thoracis- is a collection of pus in pleural space and is a complication of pneumonia. Antibiotics haven’t helped so must be a deep seated infection.

31
Q

What is acute interstitial pneumonitis?

A

Rare, rapidly progressive lung disease presenting with acute breathlessness and dry cough.

32
Q

What is aspiration pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia caused by inhaling food/liquids into the lungs.

33
Q

What is giant pulmonary bulla?

A

Seen in chronic emphysema.

Big air pocket within the lung tissue.

34
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for 62yr old male smoker who has coughed up blood 4 times in the last month, lost his appetite and lost 1 stone in weight?

A

Lung Cancer

35
Q

What clinical signs would you look for if you suspect lung cancer?

A

Hands- finger clubbing
Abdomen - hepatomegaly
Neck- lymphadenopathy, tracheal deviation, SVC obstruction

36
Q

What are the clinical signs in patient with left lower lobe pneumonia/consolidation?

A
Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Fever
Cyanosis
Reduced expansion of affected side of chest
Dullness to percussion at base
Bronchial breathing at base
Crackles
Increased vocal resonance.
37
Q

What organisms may cause pneumonia in a young previously healthy individual?

A
Chlamydia psittaci
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Staph. aureus
Haemophilus influenza
38
Q

What investigations would aid the diagnosis of pneumonia?

A
CXR
Sputum culture
Mycoplasma IgM
Full Blood Count
Blood culture
Atypical serology
Legionella urinary antigen
Pneumoccocal urinary antigen