Resp - Equipment Flashcards

1
Q

Can you outline some indications for which you would consider bronchoscopy

A

Diagnostic uses include:
: The aspiration of sputum or cytology samples for microbiological or pathological
analysis
: Visualization of bronchial tree in airway trauma, for burns or if a lung lesion
(tumour or inhaled foreign body) is suspected
: Aspiration can be assisted by first instilling small volumes (typically 20 mL) of saline
during a bronchial wash (BW) or a more formal broncho-alveolar lavage (BAL)

Therapeutic uses:
: BW may also be used as a therapeutic manoeuvre for lobar collapse via the removal
of mucus plugs or secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe Broncho-alveolar lavage

A

BAL involves instilling 50–200 mL of saline into a target lung segment. As much saline as
possible is aspirated back through the bronchoscope and collected by placing a sample chamber between the bronchoscope suction port and the wall suction. Samples are often for
cytological or immunological analysis, although larger volumes of saline can be used to try and remove particulate matter and debris or in therapeutic lavages such as following smoke
inhalation with contamination of the bronchial tree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main risks associated with bronchoscopy?

A

The main risks include:
Hypoxia, difficulty with ventilation, V/Q mismatch, bronchospasm
Hyperinflation/air trapping/barotraum/pneumothorax
Miscellaneous – high intracranial pressure/bleeding/tachycardia/hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How would you minimize these risks?

A

Pre-oxygenation
Adequate monitoring (oxygen saturation/capnography)
An appropriate-sized endotracheal tube
Appropriate sedation and/or muscle relaxant
Minimizing duration (allow time in between for recruitment)/limiting amount of saline
used for washouts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the indications for chest drain insertion?

A

Pneumothorax
: in any ventilated patient
: tension pneumothorax after initial needle relief
: persistent or recurrent pneumothorax after simple aspiration’

Malignant pleural effusion
Empyema and complicated parapneumonic pleural effusion
Traumatic haemopneumothorax
Post-operative – for example, thoracotomy, oesophagectomy, cardiac surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where should a chest drain be sited?

A

Insertion should be in the ‘safe triangle’ delineated by the anterior border of the latissimus
dorsi, the lateral border of the pectoralis major muscle, a line superior to the horizontal
level of the nipple and with an apex below the axilla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Discuss the pros and cons of the Seldinger vs. an open chest drain.

A

The Seldinger drain has less leakage, a smaller hole, it is adequate for less viscous fluids and
air but is more likely to kink. [1]
An open drain has better pleural access, a bigger hole and drains complex collections or
viscous fluids, such as pus or blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the ultrasound features that would suggest a pneumothorax?

A

Absence of lung sliding
Absence of B lines
Lung point
Stratosphere sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What precautions would you take with the intercostal drain during transfer?

A

The drain should be properly secured.
The bottle should be kept upright at a lower level than insertion site and with an adequate
underwater seal.
You should ensure it is free of kinks.
There needs to be suction tubing open to the air.
Appropriate monitoring is required.
Consider a Heimlich (flutter) valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What information can we get from pulmonary function tests?

A

Lung volumes and capacities
Spirometry (FEV1, FVC values and peak flow)
DLCO (transfer factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How could DLCO help in this situation?

A

Diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO), also known as the ‘transfer
factor’ (TLCO), is a measurement of the ease of transfer for CO molecules from alveolar gas
to the haemoglobin of the red blood cells in the pulmonary circulation. It often is helpful for
evaluating the presence of possible parenchymal lung disease when spirometry and/or lung
volume suggest a reduced vital capacity, RV, and/or total lung capacity. Interpretation can
be complicated if there is reduced alveolar ventilation (VA) such as lung resection,
restrictive lung defects, and so the DLCO:VA (KCO) ratio is often considered too.
A reduced DLCO and a reduced DL-to-VA ratio suggest a true interstitial disease such as
pulmonary fibrosis or pulmonary vascular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is FVC

A

Forced Vital Capacity: “the maximal volume of air exhaled with maximally forced effort from a maximal inspiration, i.e. vital capacity performed with a maximally forced expiratory effort”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is FEV1

A

Forced Vital Capacity: “the maximal volume of air exhaled with maximally forced effort from a maximal inspiration, i.e. vital capacity performed with a maximally forced expiratory effort”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is FRC?

A

functional residual capacity. It is the volume of gas present in the lung at end-expiration during tidal breathing. It is composed of ERV and RV, and is usually 30-35 ml/kg, or 2100-2400ml in a normal-sized person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is RV

A

residual volume. It is defined as “the volume of gas remaining in the lung after maximal exhalation”,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is ERV

A

(expiratory reserve volume) is the volume of gas that can be maximally exhaled from the end-expiratory level during tidal breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is IC (inspiratory capacity)

A

is the maximum volume of gas that can be inspired from FRC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

the volume change between the position of full inspiration and full expiration,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why might DCLO be decreased?

A

-There is a genuine diffusion defect, eg. interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
-The patient is severely anaemic
-There is reduced lung expansion (i.e. a reduced TLC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the current potential uses for an HFNC in intensive care?

A

De novo type 1 respiratory failure e.g. secondary to pneumonia (FLORALI study,)
Post-operative respiratory failure
During bronchoscopy
Pre (and per) oxygenation prior to (or during) intubation
Post-extubation respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the equipment to deliver oxygen via an HFNC consist of?

A

The equipment consists of an air/oxygen blender, an active heated humidifier, a single
heated circuit and the nasal cannula itself. Air/oxygen is delivered at high flows into the
upper airways and generates a degree of continuous positive airway pressure by offering
resistance to expired air.

22
Q

Why is the Flow rate important in HFNC?

A

Conventional devices will have oxygen flows < 15 L/min leading to entrainment of room
air, resulting in variable and lower-than-expected FiO2. HFNC systems generate higher
flow rates, exceeding the patient’s peak inspiratory flow rate in most cases, resulting in a
stable FiO2 that is closer to that intended to be delivered.

23
Q

What do we mean by the term ‘dead space?’

A

Dead space is the part of the respiratory tract that does not contribute to gas exchange. This
can be anatomical (upper airways, trachea, proximal bronchi), where there are no alveoli,
or physiological, where there is a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch.

24
Q

What are the effects of a closed NIV face-mask and HFNC on dead space?

A

NIV interfaces increase anatomical dead space but lung recruitment and reversal of
atelectasis may reduce physiological dead space by improving V/Q mismatch. HFNC
decreases physiological dead space by lung recruitment without additional anatomical
dead space.

25
Q

What is the underlying principle on which capnography works?

A

Carbon dioxide (CO2) absorbs infrared radiation. A beam of infrared light is passed across
the gas sample to fall on a sensor. The presence of CO2 in the gas leads to a reduction
in the amount of light falling on the sensor, which changes the voltage in a circuit.
The amount of infrared rays absorbed is proportional to the concentration of the
infrared-absorbing substance (Beer Lambert law). [1]
Capnography measures the partial pressure of expired (and inspired) CO2, which reflects
the arterial concentration.

26
Q

How big is the difference between end-tidal and arterial PaCO2?

A

In healthy individuals, the difference between arterial blood and expired gas CO2 partial
pressures is very small. In the presence of most forms of lung disease (anything that affects the
ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) matching) and cyanotic congenital heart disease (or a big shunt)
the difference between arterial blood and expired gas increases and can exceed 1 kPa.

27
Q

When should we use continuous waveform capnography in the intensive care unit?

A

We should use continuous waveform capnography for all airway manipulations, including
during tracheostomy.
We should use it for all transfers with artificial airway in situ.

We should use it for all invasively ventilated patients, including those ventilated with
continuous positive airway pressure if via an artificial airway device.

28
Q

What are the indications for tracheostomy?

A

The classic surgical indication is for relief of upper airway obstruction.
Around two thirds of tracheostomies are now performed in intensive care patients, the
majority of which are to facilitate weaning from, or long-term, mechanical ventilation.
A tracheostomy is indicated where there is inability to ‘protect’ the airway (usually
neurological).
It may also be indicated to facilitate ‘airway toilet’ (usually with invasive ventilation or
pressure support) in patients who have inadequate spontaneous secretion clearance.

29
Q

Are there any contraindications to percutaneous tracheostomy?

A

Most are the same as for open surgical procedures, although the percutaneous technique may not be as effective at stopping resulting bleeding, especially if the operator is not a surgeon.

Uncorrected coagulopathy, especially if dual antiplatelet therapies, can increase the
bleeding risk.

Known neck masses, anterior vessels, difficult anatomy or a known head and neck cancer
case are usual indications to at least discuss with a suitable surgeon.

Local infection, inability to palpate landmarks (or visualize with ultrasound), previous tracheostomy and a known difficult upper airway could all be considered as relative
contraindications and at least require some planning as to who performs the procedure
and where.

30
Q

What are the advantages of a Surgical Tracheostomy?

A

-Gold standard for difficult anatomy
-Better control of bleeding
-Fewer intraoperative complications

31
Q

What are the advantages of Percutaneous Trachys

A

-Less postprocedural complications such as accidental decannulation, bleeding and wound infection.
-Less bleeding risk (smaller hole)
-Lower incidence of tracheal stenosis
-Lower incidence of tracheal infection
-The cosmetic effect is better
-No transfer, thus no risks of transfer
-Cheaper
-Faster (10-15 minutes)
-More easily available in the ICU
-Decreases length of stay in ICU

32
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Surgical Trachy?

A

-More postprocedureal complications
-Higher incidence of tracheal stenosis
-Higher incidence of stomal infections
-Expensive; requires the operating theatre to be fully staffed
-Takes longer to organise
-Exposes patients to risk of transfer

33
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Perc Trachy?

A

-Inadequate backup for major complications or difficult anatomy.
-Much of the technique is essentially blind.
-Diathermy is not available in ICU
-Cardiothoracic surgical support is lacking
-Bronchoscopy is required for safety
-The bronchoscope may get damaged
-Disposable percutaneous kits cost more than a bedside surgical tracheostomy
-There is a greater risk of death and cardiac arrest.
-Some intraoperative complications are unique to percutenous technique

34
Q

What is a sub-glottic suction cuffed tracheostomy tube?

A

There is evidence that regular aspiration of secretions from the sub-glottic space can reduce ventilator-associated
pneumonias (VAPs) as part of a bundle of care.

35
Q

What is an adjustable-length (or flange) tracheostomy tube?

A

20 cm long (versus 12–14 cm for standard
tubes). It is used in larger patients. (A National Confidential Enquiry into Patient Outcome and Death (NCEPOD) report suggested should be used in around 30% of
intensive care admissions, based on body mass index).

36
Q

What are fenestrated tracheostomy tubes?

A

They can be used with fenestrated or non-fenestrated inner
cannulae to direct airflow though the larynx. They are used mostly to facilitate speech.

37
Q

What is a HME?

A

The heat and moisture exchange filter is a device for the passive humidification of inspired gas in invasively ventilated patients

38
Q

Are there any contra-indications to HME?

A

-Conditions which demand minimsation of apparatus dead space
-Large volume of secretions or froth
-Large minute volume ( over 10L/min)
-Large air leak, eg. bronchopleural fistula
-Long term ventilation
-Frequent nebulised medications

39
Q

What are some of the safety features of a HME?

A

-Transparent outer casing, to better inspect the filter material
-Standardised connectors to ventilation equipment
-Antibacterial filter material in some models
-Small volume, to minimise apparatus dead space
-Single use item

40
Q

What are some of the complications of a HME

A
  • The inspissation of secretions
  • Difficulty aspirating thickened secretions
  • The incrustation of endotracheal tubes with thick secretions, with increasing peak airway pressures
  • Possibility of undetected circuit disconnection, or airway obstruction
  • Increased airway resistance with an aging filter
  • Colonisation of filter with respiratory pathogens (but this is an unproven allegation)
41
Q

What is a Passy-Muir Valve?

A

is very simply a one-way valve which is fitted on to the end of a cuff-down tracheostomy tube, in order to allow speech

42
Q

What are some of the indications for the use of a Passy-Muir valve?

A

-Enabling speech in a tracheostomy patient
-Enabling forceful expectoration of upper airway secretions in a tracheostomy patient
-Decreasing the risk of aspiration in a patient with a cuff-down tracheostomy

43
Q

What are some of the complications for the use of a Passy-Muir valve?

A

-The valve may block
-If the upper airway fails, you wont be able to exhale
-A good cough can dislodge the valve, sending it across the room
-Work of breathing may increase
-A small amount of apparatus dead space is added

44
Q

What are some of the contraindications for the use of a Passy-Muir valve?

A

-Inflated (or foam filled) tracheostomy cuff (you wont be able to exhale)
-Absence of a cuff leak with tracheostomy cuff deflated (you wont be able to exhale)
-Thick uncontrolled tracheal secretions (you will clog the valve)
-Thick uncontrolled oral secretions (you need to swallow those, or they will get inhaled)
-Severe respiratory weakness (you will not be able to overcome the valve resistance to inspiration)
-Unconsciousness (You cant deflate the cuff in these people)
-Gas trapping with autoPEEP (the valve will increase PEEP)

45
Q

What are some of the advantages of a flanged tracheostomy tube?

A

-The tube has a curved portion and a straight portion, which allows the flange to be adjusted to the appropriate pretracheal tissue thickness.
-Adjustable flange allows adjustment of tracheostomy length to any length of patient neck
-It is suitable for patients with up to 50mm of pretracheal tissue
Soft tube allows a degree of flexibility, especially when warmed to body temperature.
-The tubing is reinforced, which prevents kinking
-The material is MRI-friendly
-High volume, low pressure cuff
-Radio-opaque tubing allows visualisation of position on CXR (but there is no “blue line” like with ETTs
-Some of these are designed for percutaneous insertion

46
Q

What is a pulse oximeter?

A

Device that non-invasively measures oxygen saturation of a patients blood?

47
Q

How does Pulse oximetry work?

A

Uses infra-light and detects the quantity of light absorbed by haemoglobin species. as oxy and deoxyhaemoglobin absorb different wavelengths it as able to quantify the concentration of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin can be determined from their absorption of the two wavelengths. It is also able to detect pulsatile trace to quantify saturations from arterial blood. It is also calibrated to make correction for ambient light

48
Q

What are some of the limitations of Pulse oximetry?

A

-Inevitable difference with ABG oximetry due to processign artifact
-Inabiulity to detect PO2 or discriminate between haemoglobin species e.g carboxyhaemoglobin
-Spurious results in the presence of carboxyhaemoglobin and methaemoglobin
-Errors to detect pulse with poor perfusion, nonpulsatile ECMO flow or patient movement
-Increasing inaccuracy in the extrapolated range of calibration values (low oxygen saturation, below 50%)

49
Q

Describe a Mapleson’s circuit?

A

Breathing circuit with different grades depending on the position of the gas inlet, valve location, reservoir bag, and presence of corrugated tubing. The most commonly used is the Mapleson C or waters circuit. This breathing circuit has the gas inlet, valve location close to the patient, lacks corrugated tubing and has a reservoir bag

50
Q

What is a guedel?

A

A Rigid tube offers a bite-resistant passage for air from the lips to the posterior pharynx keeping the epiglottis off the posterior pharyngeal wall.

51
Q
A