Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A-Level Psychology > Research Methods > Flashcards

Research Methods Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Psychology flashcards Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

Population

A

A group of people who are the focus of the researcher’s interests, from which a smaller sample is drawn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sample

A

A group of people who take part in a research investigation. The sample is drawn from a target investigation and is presumed to be representative of the population, i.e. it stands ‘fairly’ for the population being studied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a Sampling techniques

A

The method used to select people from the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bias in sampling

A

In the context of sampling, when certain groups are over-or under-represented within the sample selected. For instance, there may be too many younger people or too many people of one ethnic origin in a sample. This limits the extent of which generalizations can be make to the target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Generalization

A

The extent to which findings and conclusions from a particular investigation can be broadly applied to the population. This is possible if the sample of participants is representative of the target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an experimental method

A

Involves the manipulation of an IV to measure the effect on the DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Types of experimental methods

A
  • lab
  • field
  • natural
  • quasi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the aim

A

A general statement of what the researcher intends to investigate
The purpose of the study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a hypothesis

A

A clear, precise, testable statement that states the relationship between the variables to be investigated
- stated at the outset of any study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the types of hypotheses

A
  • experimental
  • alternative
  • directional
  • non-directional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a directional hypothesis

A

States the direction of the difference of relationship
- states how the IV will effect the DV
- only use if there is enough background research to predict the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a non-directional hypothesis

A

Does not state the direction of the difference of relationship
- will only say that there will be a difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an experimental hypothesis

A

When an experimental method will be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an alternative hypothesis

A

When a non-experimental method will be used
- observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the general formula for writing a hypothesis

A

There will be a significant difference in (DV) between (IV CONDITION 1) and (IV CONDITION 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why do you need both a hypothesis and a null hypothesis

A

So that at the end you are able to accept and reject one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why do you operationalize the variables in a hypothesis

A
  • usually what is being tested in not easy to define
  • operationalizing variables allows them to be as measurable as possible
    • give exact values
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an independent variable

A

The part of the investigation that is manipulated by the researcher so that the effect on the DV can be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the dependant variable

A

The variable that is being measured by the researcher
- an effect of the DV should be caused by the change in the IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is operationalisation

A

Clearly defining variables in terms of how they can be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the formula for a null hypothesis

A

There will be no significant difference in the (DV) between the (2 IVs), and that any difference seen is DUE TO CHANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are extraneous variables

A

Any variable, other than the IV, that may effect the DV if it is not controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a confounding variable

A

A kind of EV that varies systematically with the IV
- if there is a change in the DV it is due to the IV or confounding variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are demand characteristics

A

Any cue from the researcher/ research situation that may be interpreted by participants as revealing the purpose of the investigation
- may lead to participants changing their behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are investigator effects

A

Any effect of the investigator’s behavior of the research outcome
- anything from the design of the study
- to the interaction with the participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is randomization

A

The use of chance methods to control for the effects of bias when designing materials and deciding the order of experimental conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is standardization

A

Using exactly the same formalised procedures and instructions for all participants in a research study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the two types of extraneous variables

A
  • participant variables
  • situational variables
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are participant variables

A

Any individual differences between participants that may effect the DV
- age
- personality
- gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are situational variables

A

Any features of the experimental situation that may effect the DV
- noise
- time of day
- weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a pilot study

A

A small-scale version of an investigation that takes place before the real investigation happens
- check that procedures, materials, measurements work
- allow the researcher to make changes or modifications if necessary (method or procedure)
- uses a smaller sample group that would actually be used in the real investigation (target population)

  • NOT carried out to test ethical issues
  • pilot study must be ethical before being carried out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a single blind procedure

A

Any information that might create expectations is not revealed into the end of the study to control for the confounding effects of demand characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a double blind procedure

A

Neither the participants nor the researcher who conducts the study is aware of the aims of the investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a control group

A

Allows you to set a base line for the investigation
- comparison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an experimental design

A

The different ways in which participants can be organized in relation to the experimental conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the different types of experimental designs

A
  • independent group
  • repeated measures
  • matched pairs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an independent group design

A
  • when two separate groups of participants experience two different conditions of the experiment
  • one group in the experimental group and the other is the control group
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is repeated measures

A

All participants take part in all conditions of the experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the matched pairs design

A

Pairs of participants are first matched on some variables that may effect the DV
- one member of the pair is assigned to condition A and the other to condition B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is random allocation

A

An attempt to control for participant variables in an independent groups design which ensures that each participant has the same chance of being in one condition as any other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is counterbalancing

A

An attempt to control for the effects of order in a repeated measures design
- half the participants experience the conditions in one order and the other half in the opposite order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a lab experiment

A

An experiment that takes place in a controlled environment within which the researcher manipulates the IV and records the effect on the DV, which maintaining strict control of extraneous variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is field experiments

A

An experiment that takes place in a natural setting within which the researcher manipulates the IV and records the effect on the DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are natural experiments

A

An experiment where the change in the IV is not brought about by the researcher but would have happened even if the researcher had not been there. The researcher records the effects on a DV they have decided on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a quasi-experiment

A

A study that is almost an experiment but lacks bey ingredients. The IV has not been determined by anyone - the variables simply exist, such as being old or young.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are ethical issues

A

Theses arise when a conflict exists between the rights of participants in research studies and the goals of research to produce authentic, valid and worthwhile data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the BPS code of ethics

A

A quasi-legal document produced bu the British Psychology Society (BPS) that instructs psychologists in the UK about what behavior is and is not acceptable when dealing with participants. The code is built around four major principles: respect, competence, responsibility and integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the disadvantages of repeated groups/measures

A
  • each participant has to do at least two tasks
  • the order of theses tasks may be significant ORDER EFFECT
  • can create BOREDOM which could deteriorate performance
  • could IMPROVE performance
  • demand characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Advantages of repeated measures/groups

A
  • the participant variables are controlled
  • fewer participants needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Disadvantages of independent measures/groups

A
  • not the same participant variables
    - confounding variables
    - reduces validity
  • uses random allocation
    Individual differences between participants reduces internal validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Advantages of independent measures/groups

A
  • the order doesn’t effect the investigation
  • avoids order effect
  • less chance of demand characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Advantages of matched pairs

A
  • participants are only in one condition
  • less chance of demand characteristics
  • avoids order effect
  • minimizes participant variables
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Disadvantages of matched pairs

A
  • participants can never be matched perfectly
  • pre test may be required to help with matching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are order effects

A

The effect that the order of an investigation is carried out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Strengths of lab experiments

A
  • easy to control variables
  • have a high internal validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Limitations of lab experiments

A
  • people know there in an experiment
  • demand characteristics
  • act unnaturally
  • in a place there not familiar with
  • might lack generalizability
  • low external validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Strength of field experiments

A
  • people behave more naturally
  • higher mundane realism
  • produce more valid and authentic behavior
  • high external validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Limitations of field experiments

A
  • lost control of some factors
  • extraneous variables
  • ethical issues
  • cannot consent
  • invasion of privacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Strength of natural experiments

A
  • natural behavior
  • high external validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Limitations of natural experiments

A
  • take a long time
  • hard to repeat
  • might have other factors
  • reduce generalizability
  • less cause and effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Strengths of quasi experiments

A
  • controlled conditions
  • share some strengths with lab experiments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Limitations of quasi experiments

A
  • confounding variables
  • they cannot claim the IV has caused any observed change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Description of random sampling

A
  • all members of the target population have an equal chance to be selected
  • obtain a complete list of all the members in the target population
  • all names are assigned a number
  • using a lottery method the sample group is selected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Strengths of random sampling

A
  • potentially unbiased
  • extraneous variables should be equally divided between the different groups
  • increasing internal validity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Limitations of random sampling

A
  • can be biased
  • all of one group may be picked when there are others in the target population (age, gender…)
  • some groups might not be represented
  • the sample might not represent the target population fairly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Description of opportunity sampling

A

Researcher asks whoever is around at the time of their study if they are willing and available to take part in their investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Strengths of opportunity sampling

A
  • convenient
  • method is much less costly as you do not need a list of members
  • this allows for researchers to complete investigations quicker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Limitations of opportunity sampling

A

Two forms of bias
- the sample is unrepresentative of the target population
- specific area meaning it cannot be generalized
- the researcher has complete control over who they pick which could lead to researcher bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Description of volunteer sampling

A
  • involves participants selecting themselves to be a part of the investigation
  • the researcher may place an advert in the newspaper or willing participants may raise there hand when asked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Advantaged of volunteer sampling

A
  • easy
  • it requires minimal input allowing it to be completed faster
  • the researcher ends up with participants who are more engaged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Limitations of volunteer sampling

A
  • volunteer bias
  • asking for volunteers may attract certain people
  • this can lead to the results not being generalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Description of systematic sampling

A
  • every nth member of the target population is selected
  • n = size of target population / sample size
  • a sampling frame and sampling system is used
  • they then work through the list to get their sample groups
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Strengths of systematic sampling

A
  • objective
  • once the selection system has been established the researcher has no influence over who is chosen
  • allows for no bias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Limitations of systematic sampling

A
  • this method takes a long time
  • participants may refuse to take part, resulting in volunteer sampling
  • same limitations as random sampling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Description of stratified sampling

A
  • the researcher identifies the different strata making up the population
  • the proportions are then worked out
  • the participants from each stratum as then found using random sapling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is a strata

A

A sub groups of the population
- age
- gender
- hair colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Strengths of stratified sampling

A
  • produces a representative sample because it is designed to accurately reflect the composition of the population
  • this allows the results to be generalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Limitations of stratified sampling

A
  • if the researcher doesn’t know the stratas they can’t use this sampling
  • the identified strata cannot reflect all the ways that people are different
  • complete representation of the target population is not possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is validity

A

How accurate something is
- accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is internal validity

A

Whether or not the extraneous variables are causing the change in the dependent variable
- yes = low internal validity
- no = high internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is external validity

A

How well the results of the study can be generalized outside the study itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is ecological validity

A

Do the findings really represent other situational places and condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is mundane realism

A

Is the task like a real life task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are some of the 1990 BPS ethical guidelines

A
  • informed consent
  • deception
  • right to withdraw
  • protection from harm
  • privacy
  • confidentiality
  • debriefing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are ethics

A

Conforming to accepted professional standards of conduct
- what you can and cannot do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is informed consent

A
  • participants have been told the aims of the investigation before hand
  • allows them to make informed choices
  • told their rights (RTW…)
  • parental consent (-16)
  • no payment can be made if it can induce risk taking behavior
  • safeguarding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are demand characteristics

A
  • when participants might change their behavior after being told what they are doing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is retrospective consent

A

Asking the participants if they can use their results after the investigation has happened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is presumptuous consent

A

As a group of people simular to the ones you want to study and use their answers to presume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is prior-general consent

A

Giving the participants a list of studies that they might do and get them to pick the ones they are happy to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is right to withdraw

A
  • participants need to know they can withdraw at any time
  • still must be payed in full
  • may be done retrospectively by refusing permission for their data to be used
  • must use language that participants are able to understand (young children, second language)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are the different types of consent

A
  • informed consent
  • retrospective consent
  • presumptuous consent
  • prior-general consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is consent

A

When participants are allowing for something to happen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is deception

A

Deliberately misleading or withholding information from participants

  • allowed but should be avoided
  • must have strong medical or scientific justification
  • have to talk to a disinterested colleague or ethics committee before doing anything involving deception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Solutions for using deception

A
  • use prior-general consent (must contain a deception investigation)
  • use presumptuous consent
  • give participants the right to withdraw
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is protection from harm of participants

A
  • should be protected from physical or mental harm
  • no more then they would experience in daily life
  • participants should be asked about health factors/risks
  • must be able to contact investigators at a later date
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is confidentiality

A

Our rights written in law under the Data Protection Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is privacy

A

Participants have the right to control information about themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Confidentiality in investigations

A
  • when you collect data is has to remain private
  • anonymity
    • use initials
    • lock results away
  • legislations should be adhered to
  • if confidentiality cannot be guaranteed participants should be made aware
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Privacy in investigations

A
  • can only carry out observations in public places unless you have been given permission before
  • results have to be confidential: invasion of privacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is debriefing

A
  • tell participants the real purpose of you investigation
  • participants leave in the same state that they arrived
  • must allow participants to ask questions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Giving advice and colleagues in investigations

A
  • your duty to inform participants if they need help
  • do not give advice if not your field
  • must provide counseling if required afterwards
  • watch other psychologists
    • if they break codes
    • tell them what they might need to do
    • encourage them to rethink
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is an incentive to take part

A

Something that a participant is given to make them do the investigation
- participants shouldn’t be bribed or promised rewards
- money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a pilot study

A

A small scale version of an investigation that takes place before the real investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the aim of a pilot study

A

Allows the researchers to make changes or modifications if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What type of studies can pilot studies be used for

A

All type of experimental methods
- experiments
- questionnaires
- interviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is a single blind procedure

A

Participants aren’t told the aim of the investigation
- what condition they are in
- if there are other conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the advantage of single bind procedures

A

Any information that might create expectations is not revealed until the end of the investigation
- participant bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is the disadvantage of single blind procedures

A

The researcher knows what is happening
- demand characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is a double blind procedure

A

Neither the participants nor the researcher is aware of the aims of the investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the control group

A

The baseline group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the purpose of having a control group

A

Allows for comparison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What does a large difference between the experimental group and control group show

A

The cause of the effect was the independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the different type of observation

A
  • naturalistic
  • controlled
  • covert
  • overt
  • participant
  • non-participant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is naturalistic observation

A

Watching and recording behaviour in the setting within which it would normally occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is controlled observation

A

Watching and recording behaviour within a structured environment
- some variables are managed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is covert observation

A

Participants behaviour is watching and recorded without their knowledge and consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is overt observation

A

Participants behaviour is watched and recorded with their knowledge and consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is participant observation

A

The researcher becomes a member of the group whose behaviour their watching and recording

120
Q

What is non-participant observation

A

The researcher remains outside of the group whose behaviour they are watching and recording

121
Q

What are the limitations of observations

A
  • observer bias. They can interpret the information they are given
  • cannot demonstrate causal relationships. Can be used to detect cause and effect relationships
122
Q

Strengths of naturalistic observation

A
  • high external validity
  • findings can be generalised
123
Q

Weaknesses of naturalistic observation

A
  • hard to replicate: lack of control
  • hard to find patterns: confounding/extraneous variables
124
Q

Strengths of controlled observation

A
  • less chance of confounding and extraneous variables
  • replication of observations is easier
125
Q

Weaknesses of controlled observation

A
  • produces findings that might not easily be applied to everyday life
126
Q

Strengths of covert observation

A
  • removes chance of demand characteristics
  • increased internal validity
127
Q

What are the weaknesses of covert observation

A
  • questionable ethics
128
Q

Strengths of overt observation

A
  • more ethically acceptable
129
Q

Weaknesses of overt observation

A
  • demand characteristics
  • participants may change their behaviour
130
Q

Strengths of participant observation

A
  • increased inside into the lives of the participants
  • increased external validity
131
Q

Weaknesses of participant observation

A

Researcher may lose objectivity
- may have created relationships
- may change their findings

132
Q

Strengths of non-participant observation

A
  • maintains objective data
  • less chance of them adopting a local lifestyle
133
Q

Weaknesses of non-participant observation

A
  • may lose insight into the participants lifestyle
134
Q

What is a behavioural category

A

When a target behaviour is broken up into components that are observable and measurable
- operationalised

135
Q

What is event sampling

A

A target behaviour or event is first established then the researcher records this event every time it occurs

136
Q

What is time sampling

A

A target individual or group is first established then the researcher records their behaviour in a fixed time frame
- every 60 seconds

137
Q

What is unstructured observation

A
  • writing down everything you see
  • rich in detail
138
Q

When is unstructured observation appropriate

A

When observations are small in scale and involve few participants

139
Q

What is an example of unstructured observation

A

Observing the interaction between a couple and a therapist in a relationship counselling session

140
Q

What is structured observation

A
  • when there is too much going on for the researcher to record it all
  • simplifies the behaviours into behavioural catagories
141
Q

Strengths of time sampling

A
  • reduces the number of observations that have to be made
  • gives the researcher more time to record the behaviour
142
Q

What type of data is produced with structured observation

A

Quantitative data

143
Q

What type of data is produced with unstructured observation

A

Qualitative data

144
Q

Strengths of unstructured observation

A
  • rich and depth in detail
145
Q

What do behavioural categories have to be

A

Non require further interpretation
- observerable
- measurable
- self evident

146
Q

What is observer bias

A

When the researchers expectations, opinions or prejudices influence what they observe or record
- happens when the observer is aware of the aim of the investigation

147
Q

How can you minimize observer bias

A
  • double blind techniques
  • use multiple observers
  • standardised procedure
148
Q

What is Inter observer reliability

A

The extent to which there is agreement between two or more observers involved in observations of a behaviour
- measured by correlating the observations
- checks for consistency

149
Q

How do you do Inter observer reliability

A
  • both observers watch the same people using the same checklist
  • correlate the number of observations for the observers for each category
  • 80% agreement = reliable
150
Q

What is the general rule for inter observer realisability

A

(Total number of agreements) / ( total number of disagreements) > 80%

151
Q

What are self-report techniques

A

Any method where a person is asked to state or explain their own feelings, opinions, behaviours or experiences related to a topic

152
Q

What is a questionnaire

A

A set of written questions used to assess a persons thoughts or experiences

153
Q

Strengths of questionnaires

A
  • cost effective
  • dont need the researcher present
  • data is usefully straight forward to analyse
  • statistical analyses and comparisons
154
Q

Weaknesses of questionnaires

A
  • demand characteristics
  • social desirability
  • response bias ( same end of a rating scale)
  • acquiescence bias (regardless of context always choose yes)
155
Q

What is a closed question

A
  • fixed number of responses
156
Q

Example of closed questions

A
  • two options ( yes, no)
  • scale from 1 - 10
157
Q

What are open questions

A

Does not have a fixed range of answers
- produces lots of detail

158
Q

Pros of open questions

A
  • produce qualitative data
  • wide range of different responses
159
Q

Cons of open questions

A
  • answers can be difficult to analyse
160
Q

Pros of closed questions

A
  • easy to analyse
  • data can be turned in quantitative data
161
Q

Cons of closed questions

A
  • may lack depth and detail
162
Q

What are likely scale questions

A

Responses indicate their agreement with a statement using a scale of usually 5 points

163
Q

What are rating scale questions

A

Participants identify a value that represents their strength of feeling about a particular topic

164
Q

What are fixed choice option questions

A
  • includes a list of possible options
  • participants indicate those that apply to them
165
Q

What are features of good questions

A
  • no overuse of jargon
  • be neutral
  • avoid double barrelled question
  • avoid double negatives
  • CLARITY
166
Q

What is jargon

A

Technical terms

167
Q

What is an interview

A

A live encounter where one person asks a set of questions to assess an interviewee’s thoughts or experiences
- pre set questions
- thought up as you go

168
Q

What are structured interviews

A

Made up of pre determined questions

169
Q

What are un-structured interviews

A

No set question
- interactions are free flowing

170
Q

What are semi-structured interviews

A

Contain both a list of questions and follow up questions

171
Q

Strengths of structured interviews

A

Easy to replicate because of standardised format
- reduced differences between interviewers
- less interviewer bias

172
Q

Weaknesses of structured interviews

A

Limited richness of data collected
- further questions cannot be asked

173
Q

Strengths of unstructured interviews

A

More flexibility
- researcher can change the questions
- allows participant to talk about what they want

174
Q

Weaknesses of unstructured interviews

A

Interviewer bias
- drawing firm conclusions can be difficult to make

175
Q

What is interviewer bias

A

When the interviewers beliefs of opinions affect the questions they ask
- can happen consciously or unconsciously

176
Q

Which type of interview does interviewer bias usually occur in

A

Unstructured interviews

177
Q

Ways to prevent interviewer bias

A
  • use structured interviews
  • standardised script and list of instructions
178
Q

What is correlation

A

A statistical technique measuring the relationship between two or more co-variables
- looks at the relationship not cause and effect

179
Q

What is a co-variable

A

The variable investigated within a correlation

180
Q

What is the difference between correlations and experiments

A
  • no manipulation (two DV’s)
  • no cause and effect
181
Q

What is a positive correlation

A

Positive relationship between two variables
- +ve gradient

182
Q

What is a negative correlation

A

Negative relationship between two variables
- -ve gradient

183
Q

What is no correlation

A

No relationship between two variables

184
Q

What are intervening variables

A

Know as the ‘third variable problem’/‘mediator variable’
- factors playing a role between 2 other co-variables
- cannot be observed

185
Q

Strengths of correlations

A
  • can be used as a starting point for research
    - preliminary tool for research
    - precise measure of how two variables are related
  • quick and economical to carry out
    - no controlled environment
    - can use secondary data
186
Q

Weaknesses of correlations

A

Correlations dont prove cause and effect
- lack of experimental manipulation
- interviewer bias

187
Q

What are the different types of data

A
  • qualitative
  • quantitative
  • primary
  • secondary
  • meta-analysis
188
Q

What is qualitative data

A

Expressed in words rather than numbers or statistics
- written description of thoughts, feelings and opinions

189
Q

Examples of qualitative data

A
  • unstructured observations
  • counselling
  • interview
  • diary entry
190
Q

What is quantitative data

A

Expressed numerically

191
Q

How is quantitative data represented

A
  • graphs
  • charts
  • …
192
Q

What is primary data

A

Data collected by the researcher for the purpose of the investigation

193
Q

What is secondary data

A

Data that has been collected by someone else
- data that already exists

194
Q

Examples of secondary data

A
  • journal articles
  • books
  • websites
195
Q

Strengths of qualitative data

A
  • more richness in data
  • gives pps chance to fully report their feelings, thoughts or opinions
  • external validity
196
Q

Weaknesses of qualitative data

A
  • difficult to analyse
  • hard to summarise statistically
  • conclusions can rely of subjective interpretations
197
Q

Strengths of quantitative data

A
  • easy to analyse
  • conclusions are made from objective interpretations
198
Q

Weaknesses of quantitative data

A
  • lack of richness of data
  • dont allow pps to fully say what they want to
  • low external validity
199
Q

Strengths of primary data

A
  • authentic data for the investigation taking place
  • questionnaire/interview can be designed for the pps
200
Q

Weaknesses of primary data

A
  • requires time and effort
201
Q

Strengths of secondary data

A
  • inexpensive
  • desired information may already exist
202
Q

Weaknesses of secondary data

A
  • substantial variation in the quality and accuracy of secondary data
  • challenges the validity
203
Q

What is meta-analysis

A

A form of research method that uses secondary data
- pools together similar data and draws a conclusion from it

204
Q

Strengths of meta-analysis

A
  • larger, more varied sample
  • results can be generalised across larger populations
  • increased validity
205
Q

Weaknesses of meta-analysis

A
  • publication bias
  • might not select all relevant studies
  • conclusions only represent some of the relevant data
206
Q

What are the measures of central tendency

A
  • mean
  • median
  • mode
207
Q

What are descriptive statistics

A

The use of graphs, tables and summary statistics to identify trends and analyse sets of data

208
Q

Examples of descriptive statistics

A
  • mean
  • median
  • mode
209
Q

What are measures of dispersion

A
  • range
  • standard deviation
210
Q

What does standard deviation tell you

A

How far the score deviate from the mean

211
Q

What does a large standard deviation mean

A

Not all pps were effected by the IV in the same way

212
Q

What does a low standard deviation tell us

A

The data is tightly clustered around the mean
- pps respond in a similar way

213
Q

Limitations for both mean and standard deviation

A

Can be distorted by a single extreme value

214
Q

What are the different ways to present quantitative data

A
  • line graph
  • scattergraph
  • histogram
  • bar chart
215
Q

When are bar charts used

A
  • data is in categories
  • discrete data
  • bars are separated
216
Q

When are histograms used

A
  • bars touch
  • data is continuous
  • shows the frequency on y-axis
217
Q

What is a scatter gram used for

A
  • correlations
  • show associations between co-variables
218
Q

What is normal distribution

A

A bell-shape curve showing where pps fall in an investigation
- symmetrical

219
Q

Where is the mean, median and mode in normal distribution

A

All in the center

220
Q

What is skewed distribution

A

When the distribution appears to lean to one side or the other

221
Q

Which direction is a positive skew of distribution

A

Towards the left
- mode highest part
- mean lowest part

222
Q

Which direction does a negative skew of distribution go

A

Towards the right
- mode highest part
- mean lowest part

223
Q

What is a peer review

A

The assessments of scientific work by others who are specialists in the same field
- ensure that any research intended for publication is of high quality

224
Q

What are the main aims of peer review

A
  • to allocate research funds
  • to validate the quality and relevance of research
  • to suggest amendments of improvements
225
Q

Why is anonymity a problem in peer reviews

A
  • experts remain anonymous
  • can use this to criticise rival researchers
  • as competing for research funds
226
Q

Why is publication bias a problem in peer review

A
  • only want to publish significant findings
  • prefer to publish positive findings
  • creates a false impression of the current state of psychology
227
Q

Why is burying groundbreaking research a problem in peer review

A
  • wish to maintain the status quo within specific scientific fields
  • especially critical of research that contradicts their own view
  • established scientists more likely to be chosen
  • slowing down the rate of change in particular fields
228
Q

Weaknesses of peer review

A
  • anonymity
  • publication bias
  • burying groundbreaking research
229
Q

What are case studies

A

An in depth investigation, description and analysis of a single individual, group, institution or event

230
Q

What is content analysis

A

A research technique that enables the indirect study of behaviour by examining communications that people produce
- in texts, emails, TV, film and other media

231
Q

What is coding

A

The initial stage of content analysis
- the content is split into different categories
- words, sentences, phrases

232
Q

What is thematic analysis

A

Type of content analysis
- results are qualitative
- general themes are used

233
Q

Strengths of case studies

A
  • offer rich, detailed insights of unusual forms of behaviour
  • help contribute to our insight typical functioning
  • can generate hypotheses for future studies
234
Q

Weaknesses of case studies

A
  • harder to generalise findings
  • subjective interpretations
  • evidence can lack validity
235
Q

Strengths of content analysis

A
  • can circumnavigate many ethical issues as already in public domain
  • high external validity
  • can produce both qualitative and quantitative data
236
Q

Weaknesses of content analysis

A
  • people are studies indirectly
  • data is analysed outside of its original context
  • can lack objectivity
237
Q

What is reliability

A

A measure of consistency

238
Q

Ways to assess/test reliability

A
  • test retest
  • Inter observer reliability
  • measuring reliability
239
Q

What is the test-retest

A
  • giving the same test to the same people on different occasions
  • if reliable results should be the same or very similar
  • must be sufficient time between each test
240
Q

How can you improve reliability in questionaries

A
  • remove complex or ambiguous question as they can be interpreted differently
  • replace open questions with closes, fixed-choice questions
241
Q

How to improve reliability in interviews

A
  • use the same interviewer each time
  • pre set questions
  • structured interview
242
Q

How to improve reliability in observations

A
  • behavioural categories are operationalised
243
Q

How to improve reliability in experiments

A
  • use standardised procedures
244
Q

What is validity

A

The extent to which an observed effect is genuine
- does it measure what it is supposed to measure
- can it be generalised

245
Q

What are the different types of validity

A
  • internal
  • external
  • temporal
  • face
  • concurrent
  • ecological
246
Q

What is internal validity

A

Whether the effects observed in an experiment are du to the manipulation of the IV and not other factors

247
Q

What is external validity

A

Relates to factos outside of the investigation
- can it be generalised to other settings
- other populations
- other people
- other times

248
Q

What is ecological validity

A

The extent to which findings from a research study can be generalised to other settings and situations
- type of external validity

249
Q

What is temporal validity

A

The extent to which findings from a research study can be generalised to other historical times and eras
- type of external validity

250
Q

What is face validity

A

A basic form of validity in which a measure is scrutinised to determine whether is appears to measure what it is supposed to measure

251
Q

What is concurrent validity

A

The extent to which a psychological measure relates to an existing similar measure
- does a test match up to a pre existing one

252
Q

How to improve validity in experiments

A
  • control groups
  • standardised procedures
  • single/double-blind procedures
253
Q

How to improve validity in questionaries

A
  • use of a lie scale
  • anonymity
254
Q

Ways to improve validity in qualitative research

A
  • use differnt sources
  • interpretive validity
255
Q

What are the different types of statistical tests for repeated measures/ matched pairs

A
  • sign test
  • Wilcoxon
  • related t test
256
Q

What are the different statistical tests for independant groups

A
  • chi square
  • Mann-Whitney
  • unrelated t test
257
Q

What are the statistical tests for correlations

A
  • chi-square
  • spearman’s rho
  • pearson’s moment
258
Q

What are the three things you use to choose a statistical test

A
  • test of difference or significance
  • experimental design
  • level of measurement
259
Q

What does a statistical test determine

A

Which hypothesis is true
- which you accept
- which you decline

260
Q

What is the normal level of significance used

A

0.05/5%

261
Q

How is level of significance written

A

P<=0.05

262
Q

What does a significant level of 0.05 mean

A

There is up to 5% chance that the results were due to chance

263
Q

What is the critical value in stat testing

A

The value that is used to compare the calculated value with

264
Q

What is the calculated value

A

The value you work out

265
Q

What is the critical value in a sign test

A

The number of least occurring signs
- positive or negative
- equal are ignored

266
Q

What things are needed to know what table of critical values to use

A
  • one or two-tailed test
  • number of participants/degrees of freedom
  • level of significane
267
Q

When is a level of significance of 0.01 or 1% used

A
  • human cost
  • drug trials
268
Q

What is a type 1 error

A

Rejecting a true null hypothesis
- false positive

269
Q

What is a type 2 error

A

Accepting a false null hypothesis
- false negative

270
Q

What level of significance causes type 1 errors

A
  • lenient levels
  • 0.1/10%
271
Q

What level of significance causes type 2 errors

A
  • strict levels
  • 0.01/1%
272
Q

What are the different parts of a scientific report

A
  • abstract
  • introduction
  • method
  • results
  • discussion
  • references
    (- appendix)
273
Q

What is in the abstract

A

The key details of the research report in a brief summary
- aims and hypotheses
- method/procedure
- results
- conclusion

274
Q

What is in the introduction of a scientific report

A

Literature review
- past research on similar topics
- aim and hypothesis of current investigation

275
Q

What is in the method of a scientific report

A

Description of what the researchers did to allow for replicability
- design
- sample method/size
- materials/apparatus
- procedure: briefing, standardised instructions, debriefing
- ethics

276
Q

What is in the results of a scientific report

A

Summarises the key findings
- descriptive statistics (tables, graphs, charts)
- inferential statistics (statistical test, calculated/critical value, level of significance)
- raw data
- qualitative methids

277
Q

What is in the discussion of a scientific report

A

Summary of the results
- verbal form
- explanation in terms of psychological theories

278
Q

What is the referencing of a scientific report

A

List of sources referred to or quoted in the article
- Harvard referencing

279
Q

What are the features of science

A
  • paradigms and paradigm shifts
  • theory construction and hypothesis testing
  • falsifiability
  • replicability
  • objectivity and empirical method
280
Q

What is an empirical method

A

Approached that are based on gathering evidence through direct observation and experience

281
Q

What is a paradigm

A

Set of shared assumptions and agreed methods which in a scientific disipline

282
Q

What is a paradigm shift

A
  • results of a scientific revolution
  • significant change in the dominant theory within a scientific disipline
283
Q

What is falsifiability

A
  • a science must be falsifiable
  • possibility of something being proved wrong
284
Q

What is theory construction

A
  • developing an explanation for something
  • systematically gathering evidence
  • organising into coherent theories
285
Q

What are the two different types of theory construction

A
286
Q

What is a parametric test

A

All tests done with interval data

287
Q

What are non-parametric tests

A

All tests done with nominal or ordinal data

288
Q

What is the formula when writing the results of a statistical test
- if you accept the null/experimental hypothesis

A

For a … tailed test, when p<… and N = … , the CV is …
To be significant the OV must be …
OV is … than CV. So there is (more or less than …%) probability the results were due to chance so
Accept (null/experimental) hypothesis. Reject (null/experimental) hypothesis

289
Q

What is the hypothetico-deductive model

A

Questions -> hypothesis -> test -> theory -> questions …
Cycle repeats over and over again

290
Q

What are the two different models of the scientific process

A
  • inductive
  • deductive
291
Q

What is the inductive model of the scientific process

A
  • goes from particular to general
  • aims to develop a theory
  • Issac Newton: law of gravity
  • only explains existing data (what you already think is true)
292
Q

What is the deductive model of the scientific process

A
  • from general to particular
  • starts with theory then tests it
  • Darwin: theory of evolution
293
Q

What is the order of steps for the inductive model of the scientific process

A
  • observation
  • observe a pattern
  • theory/general conclusion
294
Q

What is the order of steps for the deductive model of the scientific process

A
  • existing theory
  • falsifiable hypothesis
  • test the hypothesis
  • analyse and test the data
  • accept or reject null hypothesis
295
Q

What is ordinal data

A

Ranking
- scores on a rating scale
- scores on a test if not of equal difficulty

296
Q

What is nominal data

A

Most basic level
- categories

297
Q

What is interval data

A

Exact measurements
- objective units

A-Level Psychology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions