Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VTS > Reproductive & Neonatal Emergencies > Flashcards

Reproductive & Neonatal Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What is the duration of proestrus?

A

6-11 days (average 9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the duration of estrus?

A

5-9 days with wide variability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the duration of diestrus?

A
  • 56-58 days in the pregnant female
  • 60-100 days in the non pregnant female
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the duration of anestrus?

A
  • In the pregnant female, begins with whelping and ends when proestrus begins
  • Not as easily detectable in non pregnant females (approx 4-5 months)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what order is the reproductive cycle?

A

Proestrus –> Estrus –> Diestrus –> Anestrus –> Proestrus
PEDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What marks proestrus?

A
  • Male is attracted to female but female does not allow mating
  • Estrogen dominates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What marks estrus?

A
  • “Heat”: female allows males to mount
  • Progesterone dominates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What marks diestrus?

A
  • Begins when female no longer allows breeding
  • Progesterone dominant
  • Prolactin increases in latter portion regardless of pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What marks anestrus?

A
  • Surge of LH
  • FSH increases
  • Estrogen fluctuates
  • Progesterone low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the gestation length of dogs?

A

55-72 days (average 63)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the gestation length of cats?

A

62-72 days (average in 64)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many heat cycles per year does the dog have?

A

2 per year, lasting up to 18 days per cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many heat cycles per year does the cat have?

A

1-3 weeks, lasting 1-7 days (seasonally polyestrus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At what gestation date are fetal HB detected?

A

~ day 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

At what gestation date can fetal skeletons be seen on radiographs?

A

~ day 45-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Parturition will begin with 24 hours when plasma progesterone levels are ___?

A

<2ng/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What maintains pregnancy?

A

Progesterone from the corpus luteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What determines the onset of parturition?

A

The fetus. The fetal pituitary gland secretes ACTH which sets off a chain of reactions in which oxytocin is released and causes a positive feedback effect on uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does Stage 1 of parturition entail?

A
  • Changes often go unnoticed
  • Nesting, panting, restlessness
  • Uterine contractions begin (NOT visible)
  • Cervix dilates
  • Lasts 6 - 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A drop in temp of ____ correlates with a drop in progesterone in stage 1 of parturition

A

<100F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does Stage 2 of parturition entail?

A
  • “True labor”
  • Visible contractions
  • Rupture of clear fluid prior to delivery of each neonate
  • May also be green mucoid discharge before, during, and after - “lochia” (indicates placental separation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Once clear fluid has been seen in Stage 2 of labor, what should the time of delivery be for the first fetus?

A

< 1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How frequently should a fetus be birthed during Stage 2 of labor?

A

q10-60 minutes but can extend to 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does Stage 3 of parturition entail?

A
  • Passing the placenta but usually occurs in stage 2
  • Ensure all placentas have passed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is the posterior presentation of fetuses in littered animals normal or abnormal?

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal dystocia?

A

Uterine inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common cause of fetal dystocia?

A

Malposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What problem is most commonly seen with single pup pregnancies?

A

Oversize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does intrauterine fetal death predispose to dystocia?

A

Increases the chance of malpresentation because of failure to rotate and extend head and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is primary uterine inertia?

A
  • Uterus fails to contract with sufficient force due to inherited breed related causes
  • Failure of the muscles to respond to hormonal stimuli, or failure of actual release of hormonal stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is partial primary uterine inertia?

A

Parturition is initiated and 1 or more fetuses is expelled but subsequently fails to deliver remaining fetuses due to myometrial fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is secondary uterine inertia?

A

Uterus fails to contract with sufficient force due to exhaustion, lyte disturbance, hypoglycemia, dehydration

33
Q

When do still birth rates rise?

A

When dystocia is allowed to continue for >4.5-6h from onset of stage 2 in dog

34
Q

Dams should present to ER if:

A
  • Fails to initiate labor at term
  • Fails to progress to stage 2 within 24-36 hours after a drop in T or progesterone
  • Fails to deliver all fetuses in a timely manner (1st fetus should appear within 1 hour of active labor or within 2 hours of intermittent labor)
  • Fetal distress or stillbirths
  • Maternal distress
  • Resting >4 hours between fetuses without contractions
  • Weak/absent contractions for >2 hours
  • Fetus in vulva >15 minutes
35
Q

Why does achondroplasia increase the incidence of dystocia by 50%?

A

The condition causes a reduction in dimension from sacrum to pubic bone and thus reduces the pelvic canal

36
Q

What are other factors that can increase the chance of dystocia?

A
  • Obesity
  • Stress (catecholamine release in the dam can put the fetuses at increased risk by reducing uterine blood flow)
37
Q

What indicates fetal death on radiographs?

A
  • Intrafetal gas
  • Overlapping bones of skull
  • Spinal collapse due to loss of muscular support
38
Q

Why are small/single fetus litters believed to increase the risk of primary uterine intertia?

A

There is not enough hormonal stimulation from the fetus to initate parturition

39
Q

How many doses of oxytocin should be given before c-section is indicated?

A

2 - if the second fails, should go to emergency c-section

40
Q

What can high doses of oxytocin cause?

A
  • Tetanic uterine contractions
  • Impair placental blood flow and fetal oxygen supply
  • Do NOT result in expulsion of fetus
  • Can result in uterine tears and placental separation
41
Q

Why is RSI indicated for c-section?

A
  • Patient is unlikely to be fasted. High aspiration risk
42
Q

Does progesterone increase or decrease the MAC of an inhalent?

A

Decreases

43
Q

Is there an advantage to maintaining the dam on propofol instead of gas?

A

No, it forces the neonates to metabolize rather than exhaling

44
Q

Is blood flow to the uterus autoregulated?

A

No, uterine perfusion depends on BP from the rest of the body. Hypotension is problematic when the patient is put in dorsal

45
Q

What effect does ketamine have on neonates?

A

Major depressant effects

46
Q

Which drugs appear to have minimal transmission into milk?

A
  • Oxymorphone
  • Hydromorphone
  • NSAIDs
47
Q

What is the APGAR scoring system?

A
  • A: appearance
  • P: pulse rate
  • G: grimace
  • A: activity
  • R: respiratory effort
  • 7-10 = not in distress
  • 0-3= severe distress, grave prognosis
48
Q

How should the neonate be rubbed to stimulate breathing?

A

Rubbing should be directed toward genital and umbilical regions to activate a reflex that stimulates breathing

49
Q

Why is doxapram no longer reccommended?

A
  • Increases cerebral oxygen demand
  • Decreases cerebral blood flow
  • Decreases cerebral oxygen delivery
50
Q

Can neonates be given atropine?

A

Avoid - it is unlikely to be of benefit due to neonate lack of full cardiac autonomic development

51
Q

What should the environmental temperature be for neonates?

A

85-90F for the first 5-8 days

52
Q

Why is it important to keep the neonate warm?

A

If hypothermia develops, they generally stop eating due to inability to digest food, and ileus. HR slows and can lead to CV collapse. Resp function can also deteriorate

53
Q

If a type A queen + type B tom have a type B kitten, what can happen?

A

The risk of death is not as high because the mother’s antibodies won’t have as strong of an action

53
Q

If a Type B queen + Type A tom make a Type A or AB kitten, what can happen?

A

The mother’s strong anti-A antibodies will be passed to the kitten in the colustrum and peracute death can occur since the mother’s antibodies will attack the kitten RBC

54
Q

What can tail tip necrosis in a kitten indicate?

A

Feline neonatal isoerythrolysis

55
Q

Why is hypoglycemia common in the neonate?

A
  • Limited glycogen stores
  • Immature liver function
  • Minimal fat
  • Increased glucose demands
56
Q

Pyometra occurs secondary to___?

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

57
Q

When does pyometra generally develop?

A
  • Within 3 months after estrus
  • Progesterone level is high
58
Q

What is the most common microorganism to cause pyometra?

A

E. coli

59
Q

Why can PU/PD develop in pyometra?

A

It is secondary to nephrogenic DI - E. coli blocks the action of ADH on the collecting ducts and interferes with Na and Cl absorption in the loop of Henle

60
Q

Why should cystos be avoided in pyometra?

A

It could release E. coli, which can produce an endotoxin upon bacterial death that can result in endotoxemia –> severe shock reaction and death

61
Q

What is endometritis?

A
  • An infection of the uterus that unlike pyo, occurs post partum when progesterone levels are LOW
  • Clinical signs similar
  • Normal lochia should not be odorous - if so, suspect metritis
  • Often responds well to medical therapy due to the decrease in progesterone production
62
Q

What is galactostasis?

A

Impaction of milk

63
Q

What antibiotics should be avoided in the lactating dam?

A

Chloramphenicol, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines

64
Q

What is uterine torsion?

A

The rotation of the uterus by more than 45 degrees around the long axis

65
Q

What is uterine prolapse?

A
  • The protrusion of the uterus through the cervix
  • Rare
  • More common in cats
66
Q

What is eclampsia?

A
  • When hypocalcemia occurs secondary to pregnancy
  • Uncommon in cats
  • Usually occurs 2-3 weeks post delivery
67
Q

Should a dam be pre-treated with calcium supplements during pregnancy to avoid eclampsia?

A

No, it creates an increased risk of post partum eclampsia because the supplmentation results in reduced PTH activity (regulates calcium levels in blood by increasing levels when they are too low)

68
Q

How can alkalosis lead to eclampsia?

A

Alkalosis increases the protein bound fraction of Ca, thereby decreasing the ionized fraction of Ca available

69
Q

When are clinical signs of eclampsia usually seen?

A

<0.75mmol/L

70
Q

Can Calcium Gluconate go SC?

A

Yes if mixed 50/50 with saline

71
Q

What causes benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

A metabolite of testosterone (5-dihydrotestosterone) reaches the prostate in extremely high concentrations and promotes the accelerated growth of prostate cells

72
Q

What is the most common micororganism to cause bacterial prostatisis?

A

E. coli

73
Q

What antibiotics can cross the blood-prostate barrier?

A
  • Potentiated penicillins
  • Enro
  • TMS
  • 3rd generation cephalosporins
74
Q

What is the most common prostatic neoplasia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

75
Q

What is epididymitis?

A
  • Inflammation of the long coiled tube attached to the upper part of each testicle
  • More common in younger dogs
76
Q

Urethral prolapse is most often seen in what demographic?

A

Young brachycephalics

77
Q

What can cause vaginal prolapse?

A

An exaggerated response of vaginal mucosa to estrogen that is normally present

VTS (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions