Ocular Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What nerves control movement of the globe?

A
  • CN III, IV VI, and extraocular muscles, allowing 240 degree vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MAP directly affects which part of the eye?

A

Aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pupil constriction is controlled by____

A

The PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pupil dilation is controlled by ____

A

The SNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what order should routine ocular testing be performed?

A

STT –> Fluoroscein stain –> Tonometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is triple antibiotic ointment (neo/poly/bac) not recommended in cats?

A

Due to reports of anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

A congenital disease in which there is a decrease in aqueous outflow, leading to an IOP >25mmHg. Increased pressures reduce blood supply to the retina and optic nerve, necessitating prompt tx to preserve vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What breeds are predisposed to glaucoma?

A
  • English/American cockers
  • Siberians
  • Toy poodles
  • Bassets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is glaucoma more common in dogs or cats?

A

Dogs; rarely cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are one or both eyes affected in glaucoma?

A

Bilateral disease, but often one eye is affected first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary glaucoma in dogs?

A

Lens induced uveitis secondary to cataract formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the usual age of onset for glaucoma?

A

Dogs 4-10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what IOP is mannitol indicated to shrink the vitreous humor?

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What medications can be used for glaucoma?

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Drozolomide, Brinzolamide)
  • Beta adrenergic antagonists (Timolol)
  • Prostaglandin analogues (Lantanoprost; not effective in cat, contraindicated in lens luxation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What tell tale sign is seen in uveitis?

A

Aqueous flare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does uveitis have low IOP?

A

Decreased IOP results from decreased aqueous production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Etiology of uvieitis

A
  • Intraocular inflammation is initiated by local tissue injury
  • Damaged tissue and microorganisms release tissue factors and inflammatory mediators that cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is iris bombe?

A

An accumulation of aqueous humor behind the iris causing it to billow forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is uveitis treated?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Mydriatics to dilate pupil and relieve muscle spasms of iris and ciliary body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or false: Anterior lens luxation is an emergency

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false: Posterior lens luxation is an emergency

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What breeds are predisposed to primary lens luxation?

A
  • Terriers
  • Border Collies
  • Brittany Spaniels
  • Aus cattle dogs
  • Shar peis
23
Q

Lantanoprost is contraindicated in _____?

A

Anterior lens luxation

24
Q

Lens luxation can lead to what other problems?

A

Glaucoma due to obstruction of fluid outflow, and uveitis

25
Q

The use of corticosteroids is contraindicated in ___?

A

Any case where the cornea is injured

26
Q

What two signs are a favorable indication of function in proptosis?

A
  • A consensual reflex in the unaffected eye
  • A miotic pupil in the affected eye
27
Q

What is hyphema?

A
  • Blood collection in the anterior chamber of the globe
  • Can lead to glaucoma due to fibrin collection not allowing drainage of aqeuous humor
28
Q

What is one of the leading causes of incurable canine vision loss?

A

SARDS

29
Q

What is SARDS?

A
  • Characterized by acute onset of blindness due to loss of photoreceptor function
  • Majority of dogs also show systemic abnormalities suggestive of hyperadrenocorticism
30
Q

What breeds are predisposed to SARDS?

A
  • Daschunds
  • Chinese pug
  • Min schnauzer
  • Bichon
  • Beagle
  • Brittany
  • Pom
31
Q

What is progressive retinal atrophy?

A
  • A congenital inherited photoreceptor dysplasia seen in many dogs
  • Progresses slowly over years
  • No effective treatment
32
Q

What is retinal detachment?

A
  • Separation of the retina from underlying choroid
  • Anatomically, separation of the photoreceptor layer from the retinal pigment epithelial layer of retina
33
Q

What are the 5 main types of retinal detachment?

A
  • Serous detachment (accumulation of exudates or blood under retina)
  • Traction band detachments (fibrous bands contract and pull retina off)
  • Vitreous degeneration (liqueification of vitreous allows it to seep under retina)
  • Congenital (not a true detachment - failure of embryonic layers to unite - seen in collie eye anomaly)
  • Iatrogenic (after cataract surgery)
34
Q

What does the presence of blood vessels in the cornea always indicate?

A

Ongoing corneal pathology

35
Q

What is the leading cause of complicated corneal ulcers?

A

The use of topical steroid in a patient with a corneal defect

36
Q

What demographic is prone to melting ulcers?

A

Brachycephalics

37
Q

What is a melting ulcer?

A

The cornea is made of collagen and the ulcer produces a collagenase that eats through the cornea

38
Q

How can melting ulcers be treated?

A
  • Serum eye drops can stop collagenic activity
  • NAC
39
Q

What breed is more susceptible to KCS?

A

Burmese

40
Q

What is pannus?

A
  • The superficial vascularization of the cornea with infiltration of granulation tissue
  • Immune mediated disease
41
Q

What is corneal sequestrum?

A
  • Occurs when an area of the cornea has become sequestered and dies
  • Patient usually has a history of corneal injury
42
Q

Surgical treatment of an ulcer is recommended when the depth of the ulcer is ____?

A

> 2/3 normal thickness

43
Q

What is Horner’s?

A
  • Oculosypathetic paresis
  • Secondary to loss of sympathetic innervation to the eye
44
Q

What signs are seen in Horner’s?

A
  • Ptosis
  • Miosis
  • 3rd eyelid protrusion
  • Enophthalmos
45
Q

What are the two classifications of Horner’s?

A
  • Preganglionic: interruption of the nerve between spinal cord and synapse in ganglion
    • Trauma, head/neck surgery, brachial plexus injury, intracranial or thoracic neoplasia
  • Postganglionic; nerve has been interrupted between synapse and eye itself
    • Otitis media/interna, idiopathic
46
Q

Approximately what % of Horner’s in dogs is idiopathic?

A

50%

47
Q

What medication can be utilized to localise a causative lesion of Horner’s?

A
  • Phenylephrine, an alpha 1 adrenergic agonist
  • If lesion is postgalionic, ocular signs will resolve within 5 minutes
  • If lesion is preganglionic, signs will NOT resolve quickly
48
Q

What is buphthalmos?

A

Enlargement of the globe

49
Q

What is panophthalmitis?

A

Inflammation of all structures or tissues of the eye

50
Q

What is epiphora?

A

Watery eyes

51
Q

What is melbomian gland abscess/adenoma (chalazion)?

A

The chronic or acute swelling of one or more melbomian glands along the upper and lower eyelids

52
Q

What is symblepharon?

A

The adhesion of the conjunctiva to the lid and eyeball that occurs in utero

53
Q
A