Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What does an Axon do?

A

carries nerve impulses Away from the cell body

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2
Q

What does a Dendrite do?

A

carries nerve impulses towarD the body

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3
Q

What does the somatic NS do?

A

Controls superficial sensations and voluntary movements

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4
Q

What does the autonomic NS do?

A

Maintains visceral organ function

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5
Q

What does the somatic afferent NS do?

A

Responsible for sensing pain, temperature, and pressure

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6
Q

What does the somatic efferent NS do?

A
  • Responsible for motor function
  • Terminates at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle
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7
Q

What does the autonomic afferent NS do?

A
  • Involved in sensations of smell and taste
  • Identification of distension or ischemia within tissues of organs
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8
Q

What does the autonomic efferent NS do?

A

Innervates cardiac muscles, and muscles of pharynx and larynx

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9
Q

What chemicals are released from vesicles in terminal ends of axons to activate or inhibit other impulses in dendrites of connecting neurons?

A
  • Acetycholine
  • Epinephrine
  • Serotonin
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10
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in dogs?

A

L6-L7

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11
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in cats?

A

Variable: between L6 - sacrum

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12
Q

What are the actions of the 12 cranial nerves?

A
  1. Sensory
  2. Sensory
  3. Motor
  4. Motor
  5. Mixed
  6. Motor
  7. Mixed
  8. Sensory
  9. Mixed
  10. Mixed
  11. Motor
  12. Motor
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13
Q

What do the UMN and LMN do?

A
  • Form a two neuron circuit that transmits motor impulses
  • Both required for normal voluntary movement
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14
Q

What is an UMN?

A

Originates the cerebral cortex and travels down to the brainstem or spinal cord

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15
Q

What a LMN?

A

Begins in the spinal cord and innervates muscles and glands throughout the body

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16
Q

What are the 4 main PNS emergencies that can be seen?

A

All involve disruption of LMN communication with muscles
1. MG
2. Polyradic
3. Tick paralysis
4. Botulism

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17
Q

What is MG?

A
  • The result of antibodies generated against the neurotransmitter acetylcholine’s receptors on a muscle’s surface at the neuromuscular junction
  • Seen in both dogs and cats
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18
Q

What is the most commonly recognized polyneuropathy in dogs in North America?

A

Coonhound paralysis

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19
Q

What is polyradiculoneuritis?

A
  • Suspected to be an immune mediate acute inflammation of multiple nerve roots and peripheral nerves in dogs
  • Seen in both dogs and cats
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20
Q

What is botulism?

A
  • A rapidly ascending motor paralysis
  • Clostridium botulinum Type C
  • Found in decomposing animal tissue
  • Toxin prevents release of acetycholine at the neuromuscular junction, disrupting signals from LMN to the muscle
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21
Q

Where are the nerves of the SNS located?

A

T1-L4-5

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22
Q

C1-C5 neurolocalization

A

UMN signs to front and hind limbs

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23
Q

C6-T2 neurolocalization

A
  • LMN signs to FL
  • UMN deficits to HL
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24
Q

T3-L3 neurolocalization

A
  • Normal thoracic limbs
  • UMN deficits to rear limb
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25
Q

L4-S3 neurolocalization

A
  • No deficits to thoracic limbs
  • LMN deficits to pelvic limbs
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26
Q

What are signs of UMN disease?

A
  • Increased muscle tone and nerve reflexes
  • Lack of muscle atrophy
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27
Q

What are signs of LMN disease?

A
  • Decreased muscle tone and nerve reflexes
  • Muscle atrophy
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28
Q

What is the major determining factor of ICP?

A

The collective volume of intracranial contents

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29
Q

Schiff-Sherington posture indicates a legion in what area?

A

T2-L4

30
Q

At what age does idiopathic epilepsy usually present?

A

6 months - 5 years

31
Q

What breeds have a genetic predisposition to epilepsy?

A
  • Aus shepherds
  • Beagles
  • Belgian shepherds
  • Border collies
  • GSD
  • Standard poodle
  • Goldens
  • Labs
  • Shelties
  • Vislas
32
Q

How is keppra metabolized?

A

Extrahepatic hydrolysis, mostly excreted unchanged by the kidneys

33
Q

What is KBr’s MOA?

A

GABA receptor agonist

34
Q

What BW changes can be seen with KBr adminstration?

A

False elevation of Cl

35
Q

Why is KBr contraindicated in cats?

A

Potentially fatal pneumonitis

36
Q

Why is it important to maintain a normal MAP in TBI patients?

A

TBI patients can lose the ability to autoregulate blood flow to their brain

37
Q

What can hypercapnia lead to?

A

Vasodilation = increased ICP

38
Q

What can hypocapnia lead to?

A

Vasoconstriction = decreased ICP

39
Q

What clinical signs are seen as ICP rises?

A
  • Compression alters PLRS
  • Initially, disinhibition of LMN results in miosis
  • As herniation occurs, pressure on LMN results in loss of function and mydriasis - pupils dilate and become non responsive
  • Brain herniates through foramen magnum and causes decerebrate rigidity
40
Q

What are spinal cord discs composed of?

A
  • An outer fibrous material, the annulus fibrosus
  • The AF is thinnest dorsally, just ventral to the spinal cord
  • A jelly like inner material, the nucleus pulposus
41
Q

What is the most common location for disc rupture?

A

T13-L1

42
Q

What is spinal shock?

A

The loss of muscle tone and segmental spinal reflexes caudal to a severe cord injury
- Suspect with sudden return of reflexes

43
Q

What breeds are predisposed to FCE?

A
  • Shelties and miniature schnauzers
44
Q

What diseases are associated with ischemic CVA?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Idiopathic hyperlipoproteinemia (schnauzers)
  • Neoplasma
  • PLE/PLN
  • Cushings
  • HWD
  • DM
  • Sepsis
45
Q

The presence of a brain hematoma initiates what?

A

Edema and neuroal damage in the surrounding parenchyma

46
Q

What microorganism causes tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani (gram pos anaerobic)

47
Q

What occurs in tetanus?

A
  • The toxin affects grey matter of brainstem and spinal cord
  • Alterations to inhibitory pathways within the CNS leads to unopposed excitatory action and excess acetylcholine
  • This results in rigidity of muscles
48
Q

How does rabies reach the CNS?

A
  • Virus replicates at the site of inoculation
  • It then travels up the peripheral nerves to reach the CNS
  • From there, spreads outwards via peripheral nerves to reach salivary glands and other organs
49
Q

What is the incubation time of rabies?

A

Variable: 3 weeks to 6 months

50
Q

When does death from rabies occur?

A

Within 7 days of the onset of CNS signs (both forms)

51
Q

What does the vestibular system include?

A

Parts of the inner ear and brain that process sensory info with controlling balance and eye movement

52
Q

What are the 3 major disease processes of vestibular disease?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Inner ear
  • Central
53
Q

What type of nystagmus does idiopathic vestibular disease display?

A

Horizontal

54
Q

How does inner ear disease cause facial paresis and/or Horner’s?

A

CN VII (facial) and sympathetic innervation to the eye travel through the petrous temporal bone surrounding the tympanic bulla

55
Q

How do nasopharyngeal polyps cause vestibular disease?

A

They block the eustachian tube that drains the middle ear

56
Q

What kind of nystagmus is seen with central vestibular disease?

A

Vertical

57
Q

What does the peripheral vestibular system comprise of?

A

Inner ear sensors and vestibular cochlear nerve (CNVIII)

58
Q

How does tick neurotoxin exert its effect?

A

The toxin interferes with the depolarization/acetylcholine release mechanism in the presynaptic nerve terminal

59
Q

Cats appear resistant to which tick neurotoxins?

A
  • Dermacentor
  • Amyblomma
60
Q

Where is D. variabilis found?

A

Wide distribution over eastern 2/3 of country + CA + OR

61
Q

Where is D. andersoni found?

A

Only from the Cascades to the Rocky mountains

62
Q

Where is A. americanum found?

A

Southern US distribution from TX & MO to Atlantic coast

63
Q

Where is A. maculatum found?

A

Atlantic and Gulf of Mexico seaboards

64
Q

Coonhound paralysis results in __?

A

Flaccid LMN tetraparesis that occurs over 4-5 days. Tail wag remains intact. No drugs have been effective in improving clinical signs

65
Q

What is a brachial plexus injury?

A

Traumatically induced neuropathies of C6-T2 ventral spinal nerve rami

66
Q

What is seen with cranial BPI?

A
  • C6-C7
  • Difficulty advancing limb at shoulder
  • Shoulder instability
  • Can usually bear weight and correct knuckling
67
Q

What is seen with caudal BPI?

A
  • C8-T2
  • Inability to bear weight on thoracic limb
  • Loss of carpal extension
  • Proximal lesions can lead to Horner’s
  • Hopping/knuckling/reflexes will be weak or absent
68
Q

What is seen with complete BPI?

A
  • Features of both cranial and caudal
  • Analgesia to entire limb
69
Q

What are the clinical signs of Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Miosis (constricted pupil)
  • Ptosis (eyelid drooping)
  • Enophthalmos (retraction of globe)
  • Protruding nictitans (elevated 3rd eyelid)
70
Q
A