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VTS > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four phases of wound healing?

A
  • Inflammatory
  • Debridement
  • Proliferation
  • Maturation
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2
Q

What is primary closure?

A
  • First intention - complete and immediate closure of wound
  • Appositional healing
  • Occurs shortly after injury (6-8 hours)
  • Utilized in minimally contaminated wounds
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3
Q

What is delayed primary closure?

A
  • Third intention - wound initially managed as an open wound to allow drainage
  • 3-5 days post injury
  • Goal is to close wound before granulation tissue develops
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4
Q

What is second intention healing?

A

Relies on the body’s own contraction and epithelialization for wound healing

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5
Q

What is secondary closure?

A

Closure of wounds after granulation tissue has formed

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6
Q

How does sugar promote wound healing?

A

It is very osmolar and draws lymph into the wound, which keeps the wound moist and provides nutrition. Hyperosmolarity also inhibits bacterial growth

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7
Q

How is honey antibacterial?

A

By dehydrating bacteria through osmosis

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8
Q

Can honey be used in dry/dessicated wounds?

A

No, avoid honey in these wounds because of its osmotic action

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9
Q

What is the rule of 9s in burns?

A
  • Head and neck = 9%
  • Each individual forelimb = 9%
  • Each individual hind limb = 18%
  • Thorax = 18%
  • Abdomen = 18%
  • Tail = 1%
    Total = 100%
    TBSA > 50% carries a poor prognosis
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10
Q

What is a first degree burn?

A
  • Superficial
  • Painful
  • Only epidermis
  • No blistering
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11
Q

What is a second degree burn?

A
  • Partial thickness
  • Affects epidermis and dermis
  • Small vessels of dermis can leak plasma if damaged
  • Blisters common
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12
Q

What is a third degree burn?

A
  • Full thickness
  • Epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
  • Affects adipose tissue
  • Destroys nerve tissues and nociceptors
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13
Q

What is a fourth degree burn?

A

Involves muscle, tendon, bone

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14
Q

How long can it take burns to become visible?

A

Up to 3 days as heat dissipates slowly from skin

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15
Q

Why are burns prone to infection?

A
  • Loss of skin as the protective barrier
  • Bacteria can colonize and proliferate in burns
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16
Q

Why is aloe vera beneficial for burns?

A
  • It has antithrombaxane effects that prevent vasoconstriction and allow blood flow and nutrients to circulate to the area
  • Superficial burns only
17
Q

During what time frame is cold water lavage/immersion beneficial in burns?

A

Within 2 hours

18
Q

Why is silver sulfadiazine beneficial for burns?

A
  • It has bactericidal properties against gram pos, neg, and Candida yeast
  • Partial and full thickness
19
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A
  • A diaphyseal fracture line perpendicular to the long axis of the bone
20
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A
  • A diaphyseal fracture at an angle to the long axis
21
Q

What is a physeal fracture?

A

Occurs along the physis (growth plate)
- Salter 1: Straight. Fx goes straight across growth plate
- Salter 2: Above. Fx extends above or away from growth plate
- Salter 3: Lower. Fx extends below growth plate
- Salter 4: Through. Fx extends through metaphysis, growth plate, and epiphysis
- Salter 5: Rammed. Growth plate has been crushed

22
Q

What external coaptation can be used for a femur or humerus fracture?

A

Only spica

23
Q

What is one reason bandaging a wound facilitates healing?

A

The bandage promotes retention of CO2 which creates an acidic environment and helps to diminish bacterial growth and facilitates oxygen dissociation from Hb which increases the oxygen content available to the wound

24
Q

When is a non adherent dressing chosen over adherent?

A

When a granulation bed is present

25
Q

How does an Ehmer sling provide support?

A

It creates an internal rotation of the hip and stifle in craniodorsal hip lux

26
Q

When is a wet to dry bandage no longer indicated?

A

Once granulation tissue has formed2Q

27
Q

What is the most common bacteria to cause osteitis/osteomyelitis?

A

Stapholocci

28
Q

What is Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy? (HOD)

A
  • Occurs in young, medium to large breed dogs
  • Long bones commonly affected
  • Mottled appearance on rads +/- extraperiostal calcifications
  • Viral vs immune vs Vit C deficiency
29
Q

What is panosteitis?

A
  • Eosinophlic osteitis
  • Self limiting syndrome of young dogs
  • Autoimmune vs virl
  • Shifting leg lameness
  • Mottled bones on rads
30
Q

What can cause an infectious inflammatory joint disease in the dog?

A
  • Ehrlichiosis
  • Lyme
  • RMSF
31
Q

What can cause an infectious inflammatory joint disease in the cat?

A
  • Mycoplasma induced polyarthritis
32
Q

What is non infectious inflammatory joint disease? What are some examples?

A
  • Believed to begin with immune reaction and antibody formation leading to a large inflammatory response
  • Non erosive: Sharpei fever, systemic lupus erythmatosis
  • Erosive: rheumatoid arthritis

VTS (17 decks)

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