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Year 2 NSF > Reproductive and Endocrine > Flashcards

Reproductive and Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A 
Weight gain with no change in appetite
Poor exercise intolerance
Thinning of coat- bilateral hair loss, flaky skin
Decreased heart rate 
Mental dullness
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2
Q

Explain the following clinical signs of hypothyroidism: thinning of coat, decreased HR, mental dullness

A

Thinning of skin- thryoid hormone required for normal growth and development
Decreased HR- thyroid promotes responsiveness to sympathetic nervous system
Mental dullness- thyroid promotes axonal conductivity

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3
Q

What are the common clinical signs of hyperthyroid disease?

A

Increased appetite and weight loss
Hyperthermia
Excitable, irritable, aggressive, increased HR

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4
Q

Explain the clinical signs of hyperthyroidism?

A

Increased appetite/weight loss- increased metabolic rate

Excitable, irritable, aggressive- increased responsiveness to sympathetic nervous system

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5
Q

What blood tests are used to help diagnosis of hyper/hypoparathyroidism?

A

Testing for total and free T4
Endogenous canine TSH
Thyroglobulin autoantibodies
Hyperthyroidism- high serum T4 (total)

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6
Q

How can hyperthyroidism be treated?

A

Remove thyroid- surgery of radioactive iodine

Surgical thyroidectomy- upfront cost vs ongoing treatment- risk of damage to parathyroids

Radioactive iodine- destroys thyroid follicles, half life 8 days, serum T3/4 normalises after 1-2 weeks expensive

Effects of removing thyroid tissue- hypothyroidism, bilateral disease

Dietary restriction of iodine- only suitable for house cats

Thioureylenes- carbimazole metabolises into methimazole, inhibits synthesis of T3/4, orally administered

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7
Q

How can hypothyroidism be treated?

A

Thyroid hormone replacement
Oral administration absorbed from GI tract
Levothyroxine is T4
Liothyroxine is T3

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8
Q

How does the free amount of free hormone vary in treated animals with hypothyroidism?

A

Plasma protein binding of T3/4 varies

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9
Q

What are the adverse effects of treatment of hypothyroidism?

A

Hyperthyroidism, increased BMR, cardiovascular stimulant

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10
Q

What test results would you expect from an hypothyroid animal?

A

Endogenous TSH would be increased

T4 low- but not very sensitive

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11
Q

What do glucocorticoids do?

A

Promote gluconeogenesis in the liver, increases lipolysis, increases catabolism of proteins, inhibits growth, inhibits immune response

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12
Q

What is the common name for hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Cushings syndrome

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13
Q

What are the clinical signs of hyperadrenocorticism?

A 
Hypergylcaemia (not above renal threshold)
Tissue wasting
Muscle weakness
Pot belly
Hair loss
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14
Q

What are the causes of Cushings disease (hyperadrenocorticism)?

A

Functional adrenal tumour (ACTH decreased, unaffected size shrinks)

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15
Q

What is hypoadrenocorticism and what are the clinical signs?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism- cannot produce enough cortisol and aldosterone
Clinical signs- hyperkalaemia (cardia arrhythmias), hypertraemia (circulatory collapse)

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16
Q

What blood tests are used for adrenal disorder diagnosis?

A

ACTH stimulation test- basal blood cortisol, take blood cortisol 30-60 mins after synthetic ACTH- in normal animals this stimulates basal cortisol
Dexamethozone suppression test- basal blood cortisol taken falling injection of synthetic glucocorticoid, normal animals clear suppression of basal cortisol

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17
Q

What is Addisons disease and how is it treated?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism- can be primary, secondary of latrogenic (sudden withdrawal of prolonged glucocorticoids)
Treated by replacement therapy- glucocorticoids and or mineralocorticoids

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18
Q

How can over-production of hormones of the adrenal cortex be treated?

A

Adrenal steroid inhibitors- trilostane
Dopamine receptor agonists- horses only
Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonists

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19
Q

What is the mode of action of trilostane, the route of administration and adverse effects?

A

MOA- synthetic steroid analogue, competitive inhibitor that inhibits corticosteroid synthesis
Lipid soluble- oral administration
Adverse effects- Hypoadrenocorticism, electrolyte abnormalities, inhibits progesterone synthesis

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20
Q

What is cushings diseased treated with?

A

Dopamine receptor agonists- pergolide

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21
Q

What are mineralocorticoid receptor agonists used to treat?

A

Not endocrine- used as diuretic- spironolactone

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22
Q

What is used for mineralocorticoid receptor agonists?

A

Aldosterone (native)- not available pharmacologically v short half life
Desoxycortone pivalate

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23
Q

What are glucocorticoid receptor agonists often used to treat?

A

Anti-inflammatories

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24
Q

What is the absorption, distribution and elimination of (pharmokinetcis) of glucocorticoids?

A

Absorption- absorbed by the GI tract, mucous membranes and skin
Distribution- transported bound to plasma proteins
Elimination- Duration of acting, short, intermediate and long (1/2 hour - 72 hours

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25
Q

What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids?

A

Toxic effects following long term high doses

Latrogenic hypo/hyperadrenocorticism

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26
Q

What are the clinical signs of parturient hypocalcaemia?

A

Skeletal muscle weakness, tremors, ataxic, recumbency, head tucked into flank, hypothermia, bloat, constipation, urine retention, dystocia, dilated pupils

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27
Q

Why is hypocalcaemia more common in older animals?

A

There is less bone remodelling so cannot react quickly to homeostatic mechanisms involving calcium

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28
Q

When does hypocalcaemia occur in sheep and bitches?

A

Sheep 3-4 weeks before parturition due to bone production

Bitches during peak lactation

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29
Q

How can kidneys disturb normal functioning parathyroid gland?

A

In chronic renal disease phosphate is retained leading to hyperphosphatemia which leads to hyperparathyroidism:

Hyperphosphataemia forms complex with ionised Ca2+ ions causing hypocalcaemia and release of PTH
Increased phosphorus reduces activation of vitamin D which activates calciferol which prevents inhibition of PTH

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30
Q

Why does hyperparathyroidism cause bone demineralisation?

A

PTH increases calcium mobilisation

This causes bone demineralisation

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31
Q

What blood tests can be used for disturbances of calcium metabolism?

A

Total serum calcium= Ionised calcium and protein bound calcium
Normally 50:50
PTH can also be measured
Primary hyperparathyroidism increases PTH, increased blood calcium
Primary hypoparathyroidism decreases PTH/blood calcium

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32
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary- problem with parathyroid- functional tumour

Secondary- nutritional/renal

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33
Q

What drugs can be used that affect calcium metabolism?

A

Calcium replacement with calcium salts

Vitamin D preperations

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34
Q

What are the 4 calcium salts that are used?

A 
Calcium Gluconate
Calcium Carbonate
Calcium Chloride 
Calcium Borogluconate 
IV or oral administration
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35
Q

What needs to be considered with oral administration of calcium?

A

Absorbed from the small intestine
Vit D3, PTH, acidic PH facilitate absorption
Dietary fibre, phytates, steatorrhea and araemia interfere with absorption

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36
Q

How can calcium balance be improved long term?

A

increased dietary calcium and administering with vitamin D3

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37
Q

What are the potential adverse effects of administering calcium?

A

Hypercalcaemia- particular detrimental with cardia/renal disease
Rapid IV- effects on the heart- Arrest and arrhythmias

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38
Q

How does vitamin D3 help phosphorus and calcium metabolism and what can they treat?

A

Range of hormones that alter metabolism

Latrogenic hypoPTHism following thyriodectomy and immune mediated hypoPTHism
Renal secondary hyperPTHism

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39
Q

How is Vit D3 administered and what are its adverse effects?

A 
Oral administration- good GI absorption
Protein bound but vit D binding globulin
Excreted in feces
Adverse effects- 
Narrow therapeutic index
Hypercalcaemia
Nephrocalcinosis 
Hyperphosphataemia
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40
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and 2 diabetes and which affects which species more?

A

Type 1- due to inadequate insulin secretion, more common in dogs
Type 2- due to abnormal target responsiveness more common in cats

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41
Q

What are common clinical signs of diabetic animals and explain them?

A

Weight loss- decreased protein synthesis/without glucose muscles breakdown for protein use for energy

Polydipsia and Polyuria- renal threshold is exceeded so glucose is not reabsorbed water follows, ECF decreases plasma osmolarity increases, hypothalamus stimulated thirst

Ketoacidosis- Liver uses B-oxidation to breakdown fatty acids excess acetyl CoA forms ketone bodies, large amount makes animal ill

CNS signs- levels of glucose in CSF directly proportional to blood sugar, high glucose in CSF draws water out of neurones causing dehydration and cell damage

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42
Q

What blood tests can be used for diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

A

Hyperglycaemia
Glycosurai
Fructosamine- formed from glucose and serum proteins binding, reflects average of 1-3 weeks
Hyperlipiaemia- milk like blood plasma

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43
Q

How is insulin deficiency treated?

A

Insulin replacement
Insulin receptor agonists
Diet also needs to be managed

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44
Q

What are the adverse effects of exogenous insulin?

A

Hypoglycaemia- if severe treat with IV glucose infusion

Insulin resistance

45
Q

What is the treatment of overdose of insulin?

A

Feed and give IV glucose

If doesn’t respond give glucagon

46
Q

How do insulin formations vary?

A

According to species, concentration of zinc and size of Zinc crystals

47
Q

What are antidiabetic agents other than insulin?

A

Sulphonureas- stimulates insulin release from B cells can induce hypoglycaemia

48
Q

What is the aim of the diet to go along with treatment of diabetes?

A

Designes to maximise to the effect of exogenous insulin and minimise postprandial hyperglycaemia

49
Q

Where do the ovaries of a bitch sit relative to kidneys?

A

Sit caudal to kidneys

50
Q

Which ligament is in the free edge of the broad ligament and passes through the inguinal canal?

A

Round ligament

51
Q

Which ligament of the bitch reproductives system is divided into mesovarium, mesosalpinx and mesometrium?

A

Broad ligament

52
Q

What does the mesometrium, mesovarium and mesosalpinx of the broad ligament attach to and from?

A

Mesometrium- body wall to uterine horns
Mesosalpinx- body wall to uterine tubule
Mesovarium- body wall to ovary

53
Q

Which two ligament of the bitch repro attach directly to ovary?

A

Suspensory and ovarian ligaments

54
Q

What does the ovarian ligament contain?

A

Ovarian artery and vein

55
Q

Which of the ovarian and suspensory ligaments are tight and loose?

A

Suspensory is tight

Ovarian loose

56
Q

What does the ovarian ligament hold?

A

Holds the oviduct (continuation of the horn) close to ovary

57
Q

What are the three types of uteri found in mammals and briefly describe them?

A

Simplex- one bid body no uterine horns
Bicornuate- poorly to moderately developed uterine horns (mare to cow)
Duplex- two car

58
Q

Which animals have simplex, bicornuate and duplex uteri?

A

Simplex- primates
Bicornuate- mares, cows, bitch, queen, sow
Duplex- marsupials, some rabbits

59
Q

Which of the following animals are not bicornuate and don’t have a single cervix: Cow, Mare, Sow, Bitch, Queen, Ewe?

A

None

All bicornuate and have single cervix

60
Q

How does the topographical anatomy of the repro tract in cows and mares differ?

A

Mare dorsal ovaries

Cow ventral ovaries

61
Q

In which species doe the corpus luteum not protrude from the ovaries?

A

Mares

62
Q

Describe the structure and function of follicles?

A

Thin walled and fluid filled
Granulosa cells synthesis oestrogen
Dominant follicle produces lots of oestrogen and inhibin which inhibits FSH and surpasses further development of new follicles

63
Q

Describe the appearance and structure of corpus lutea?

A

Filled with luteal cells
Sometimes central cavity
Grey yellow with yellow cut surface

64
Q

Compare and contract cows and mares ovaries?

A

Cows- smaller, CL protrudes, ovulates from different places, extensive infundibulum
Mare- larger, kidney shaped, CL doesn’t protrude, distinct ovulatory fossa, small infundibulum

65
Q

How can CL and follicles be identified on ultrasound?

A

Follicles are fluid filled spaces

CL are grannular

66
Q

What makes up the oviduct and what are there functions?

A

Infundibulum- funnel shaped opening at ovarian end
Ampulla- large diameter, ciliated, site of fertilisatino
Isthmus- small diameter, thicker muscular wall, sperm stored

67
Q

Why is the mare infundibulum able to be less extensive?

A

Most species ovulate at a random point so need extensive infundibulum to capture oocyte, mare always ovulated from a single ovulation fossa so doesn’t need extensive

68
Q

What is the ovarian bursa?

A

Peritoneal sac encapsulating ovary in bitchez

69
Q

What layers is the uterine tissue made up of?

A

Perimetrium
Myometrium
Endometrium- mucosa and submucosa

70
Q

Which species have diffuse placentas and how are they structured?

A

Endometrial folds throughout the uterus contribute to maternal placenta

71
Q

How does sheep and cows attach to amniotic sac?

A

They have distinct maternal caruncles

72
Q

Describe the structure of the cervix

A

Thick walled and non-compliant

Cervical canal surrounded by folds or rings

73
Q

In what animals does the cervix act as a barrier to sperm transport and how does the cervix isolate the conceptus during pregnancy?

A

Barrier to sperm transport in Ewe, Cow, Bitch, Queen

During pregnancy progesterone makes mucus viscous which ‘glues’ folds together

74
Q

Describe the differing cervix structures of the Queen and bitch, Cow and ewe, Mare and Sow

A

Queen and Bitch- Small and smooth
Cow and Ewe- Distinct protrusions called cervical rings
Mare- no cervical rings but longitudinal folds are continuous with endometrial folds
Sow has interdigitating prominences

75
Q

Why might a catheter be introduced through a cervix?

A

AI, Embryo transfer, Treating uterine infections

76
Q

What is the name of the inner/outer sac in pregnancy?

A

Inner- Amnion

Outer- Chorioallantois- formed by fusion go inner allantois and outer chorion

77
Q

What is the function of the placenta?

A

Provides an interface for metabolic exchange between dam and foetus
Transitional endocrine gland producing hormones to- maintain pregnancy
Stimulation of maternal mammary growth
Promotion of foetal growth

78
Q

What are the functions of the amniotic membranes and fluid and the allantoic membranes and fluid?

A

Amniotic membranes and fluid- enclose foetus, hydrostatic protection, mucous at the end to form lubricant

Allantoic membranes and fluid- early collection of urine, hydrostatic protection

79
Q

What is the allantochorion?

A

The foetal contribution to the placenta and will provide the surface for attachment to the endometrium of the dam

80
Q

What is the name for the functional part of the foetal placenta?

A

Chorionic villus- small finger like protrusions that protrude towards the uterine endometrium- increase SA

81
Q

How are placentas classified?

A

According to the distribution of the chorionic villi on their surfaces and their microscopic anatomy

82
Q

What are the 3 categories of placenta and which species has which?

A

Diffuse- horses and pigs
Ruminats- Cotyledonary
Carnivores- Zonary

83
Q

What is the difference between cow and sheep cotyledonary placenta?

A

Cows have convex caruncle attaching to chorionic tissue

Sheep hace concave caruncle attaching to chorionic tissue

84
Q

Which species placentas are epitheliochorial and endotheliochorial?

A

Epitheliochorial- sheep, cow, pig, mare

Endotheliochorial- dogs and cats

85
Q

Why do dogs and cats have a pigmented zone?

A

Maternal haemorrhage and necrosis- normal

86
Q

How many umbilical blood vessels are there?

A

Two umbilical arteries

1 umbilical vein- bifurcates in ruminants

87
Q

What is the function of the umbilical arteries, umbilical vein and urachus?

A

Arteries- left and right- internal iliac arteries to foetal maternal blood
Vein- foetal-maternal blood exhange
Urachus- bladder to allantoic cavity

88
Q

What do the blood vessels/urachus eventually become?

A

Umbilical artery- round/lateral ligaments of the bladder
Umbilical vein- round ligament of the liver
Urachus- median ligament of bladder

89
Q

What are the two basic models of penile anatomy?

A

Musculocavernous

Fibroelastic

90
Q

What three parts does the penis consist of?

A

Base root- attaches to ischial arch
Shaft- main proportion
Glans penis- specialtes distil end

91
Q

What is a musculocavernous penis dependent on for an erection?

A

Large corporal sinusoids that fill with blood

92
Q

Which species have mucsulocavernous peni?

A

Dogs and horses

93
Q

How is a dogs bulbs glandis unique?

A

Allows dogs to face in opposite directions

94
Q

What changes occur in musculocavernous peni that allows an erection?

A 
Elevates arterial blood inflow
Dilation of corporal sinusoids 
Restricted venous outflow
Elevated intrapenile pressure
Penis increases in diameter
95
Q

What muscles are associated with the pelvic urethra and penis and what are their functions?

A

Urethralis- striated, surrounds pelvic urethra moves semen into urethra
Bulbospongiosus- overlaps root of penis extends down caudal and ventral surfaces, covers bulbourethral glands
Ischiocavernosus- paired, short muscles in the root of the penis inset laterally above sigmoid flexure and connect penis to ischial arch
Retractor penis- smooth muscle- attach dorsally to coccygeal vertebrae and ventrally to ventrolateral sides of penis, Moves penis into sheath

96
Q

Describe the mechanism of ejaculation?

A

Sensory intromission
Sensory stimulation of glans penis (temp and pressure_
Sudden powerful contractions of urethralis, bulbospongiosus and ishiocavernous
Expulsion of semen

97
Q

What categorises a penis as fibro-elastic?

A

Limited erectile tissue cased in non-expandable dense tunica albuginea
Characterised by a sigmoid flexure

98
Q

What is different about a fibro-elastic penis erection?

A

Erections is stiffening without a significant change in diameter

99
Q

How is the sigmoid flexure maintained?

A

Maintained by a pair of retractor penis muscles which attach dorsally to coccygeal vertebrae and ventrally to the venters-lateral sides of the penis

100
Q

What is different about a boars sigmoid flexure?

A

Pre-scrotal

101
Q

Compare the glans penis in the boar, stallion, bull, ram and tom cat?

A

Boar- no glans, the free end terminates in spiral (locks into sows cervix
Stallion- urethral process is sunk into a deep fossa glandis
Bull- tapers to a point
Ram- similar to bull but has worm-like urethral process
Tom cat- cornfield spines to help stimulate reflex ovulation, disappear in neutered animals

102
Q

What are calculi and what problem can they cause?

A

Calculi (stones) from the bladder can get caught in the penile urethra and the animal may be unable to pass urine and rupture the penis

103
Q

Where are the common pinch points affected by calculi in the following species: Dogs, Bulls, Rams?

A

Dogs- base of the os penis
Bulls- proximal end of the sigmoid flexure/ischial arch
Rams- vermiform appendage

104
Q

Describe the different appearance of scrotums in different species?

A

Bull and small ruminants- long, pendulous marked neck
Stallion- globular with poorly defined neck
Boar- subanal, lying close against caudal surface thighs

105
Q

What are the three ligaments of the testis?

A

Proper ligament
Ligament of the tail of the epididymis
Scrotal ligament

106
Q

Where is sperm stored in the testis?

A

Sperm stored in tail of epididymis

107
Q

What is the function of the pampiniform plexus?

A

Countercurrent heat exchanger

108
Q

What is the function of the accessory sex glands?

A

Produce seminal plasma- non cellular fluid portion of semen (packed lunch)
Small in immature animals/castrated before puberty
Post-pubertal castration leads to atrophy of glandular component

109
Q

What are the 4 accessory sex glands?

A

Ampulla- enlargements of ductus deferens that open directly into pelvic urethra
Vesicular glands/seminal vesicles- paired glands dorso-cranial to pelvic urethra
Prostate- between junctions ofpelvic urethra and bladder
Bulbourethral glands- paired glands either side of pelvic urethra near ischial arch

Year 2 NSF (16 decks)

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