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Year 2 NSF > Central Nervous System > Flashcards

Central Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

How does the position of the orbit vary in carnivores and herbivores?

A

Carnivores- positioned rostrally

Herbivores- laterally

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2
Q

How does orbit construction vary between carnivores and herbivores and why?

A

Herbivores orbit is enclosed

Domestic carnivores it is open to allow wider jaw opening

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3
Q

What bones make up a dogs orbit?

A 
Frontal
Lacrimal
Zygomatic
Sphenoid 
Palatine bones 
Completed by orbital ligament
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4
Q

How does enclosed orbits structure vary?

A

The frontal process of the zygomatic bone and zygomatic process of the frontal bone meet and complete orbit

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5
Q

What are the foramina in a dogs eye for?

A

Ophthalmic artery/vein

Cranial nerves- II, III, IV, VI

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6
Q

What lines the orbit?

A

Orbital fascia, three layers

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7
Q

What are the three layers of orbital fascia?

A 
Outer periorbita (encloses eyeball and associated muscles, nerves and vessels)
Fascia bulbi (surrounds globe itself) 
Fascial sheaths (continuous bulbi)
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8
Q

What are all the extra ocular muscles?

A 
Dorsal rectus
Dorsal oblique 
Ventral rectus
Ventral oblique 
Lateral rectus
Medial rectus 
Retractor bulbi
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9
Q

What is the innervation and action of the dorsal rectus?

A

Rotate eye upwards

Innervated by III

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10
Q

What is the innervation and action of the dorsal oblique?

A

Rotate dorsal globe medially and ventrally

Innervated by IV Trochlear

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11
Q

What is the innervation and action of the ventral rectus?

A

Rotate eye downwards

Innervated by III

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12
Q

What is the innervation and action of the ventral oblique?

A

Rotate globe medially and ventrally

Innervated by III- oculomotor

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13
Q

What is the innervation and action of the medial rectus?

A

Rotate globe medially

Innervated by III

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14
Q

What is the innervation and action of the lateral rectus?

A

Rotates globe laterally

Innervated by VI abducens

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15
Q

What is the innervation and action of the retractor bulbi?

A

Retracts globe into orbit

Innervated by VI- abducens

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16
Q

What species do not possess a retractor bulbi?

A

Birds and snakes

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17
Q

What is the name for the dysfunction of one or more extra ocular muscle?

A

Strabismus

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18
Q

What is the name for a strabismus when eyes are pointing to the side, rotated, cross eyed?

A

Ventrolateral strabisimus- pointing to side
Extorsional strabismus- rotated
Medial strabismus- cross eyes

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19
Q

What are the functions of the eyelids?

A

Protect the eyeball
Spread the tear film
Help to remove foreign material
Close to exclude light

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20
Q

What is the name for when they eyelid opens after being born?

A

Palpebral fissure

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21
Q

What are the eyelids made up of?

A

Thin folded skin

Haired skin on the outside and mucous membrane on the inside

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22
Q

What is the lid margin of the eyelid?

A

Transition between skin and conjunctiva

Hairless, upper part posses cilia

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23
Q

What support the lid margins?

A

Tarsal plate

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24
Q

Where do the upper and lower eyelids meet?

A

Medial and lateral canthus

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25
Q

How are the medial and lateral canthus secured to the bone?

A

Canthal/palpebral ligaments

In dogs retractor angli oculi replaces lateral ligament

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26
Q

What muscle causes the closure of the eyelids?

A

Circular orbicularis oculi muscle - facial nerve

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27
Q

What muscles lifts the upper eye lid?

A

Medial levator anguli oculi

Levator palpebrae superiosis- occulomotor

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28
Q

What is the sclera?

A

Whites of the eyes

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29
Q

What sensory innervates the eyelids?

A

Trigeminal
Opthalmic- upper and medial lower
Maxillary lower

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30
Q

Why are brachycephalic breeds prone to exposure keratitis?

A

Unable to close eyes properly

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31
Q

What is entropion and ectropion?

A

Entropion- inward rolling of the eyelids

Ectropion- outward rolling making tear spreading ineffective

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32
Q

What is the conjunctiva of the eye?

A

Thin highly vascular translucent muscled membrane which lines the inside of the eyelids

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33
Q

What are the different regions of the conjunctiva and what do they form?

A

Palpebral conjunctiva
Nicitating conjunctiva
Bulbar conjunctiva
Forms conjunctival sac

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34
Q

What part of the tear film does the conjunctiva produces and with what cells?

A

Contains lots of goblet cells which produce mucus portion of tear film

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35
Q

What is underneath the stratified squamous of conjunctiva?

A

CALT

Conjunctiva associated lymphoid tissue

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36
Q

What is the nicitating membrane?

A

Relfection of the conjunctiva containing T shaped cartilage

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37
Q

What part of the tear film does the nicitating membrane produce?

A

Produces a lot of the aqueous portion of the tear film

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38
Q

Where do tears empty on the bulbar aspect?

A

Conjunctival sac

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39
Q

What lines the conjunctival sac?

A

The preocular tear film

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40
Q

What are the three portions of the tear film?

A

Lipid, mucin and aqueous

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41
Q

What produces the lipid portion of the tear film?

A

Meiobomian glands- reduces evaporation

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42
Q

What produces the mucin portion of the tear film?

A

Goblet cells- stabilises

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43
Q

What produces the aqueous portion of the tear film?

A

Lacrimal gland and third eyelid- lube protection and nutrition

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44
Q

What controls tear secretion?

A

Autonomic control of lacrimal nerve (ophthalmic)

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45
Q

How is the tear film distributed?

A

Blinking

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46
Q

How do tears drain?

A

most drain into nasolacrimal system

Excess collect in lower conjunctival sac and blinking pumps them towards lacrimal punctate

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47
Q

Where are lacrimal punctate present?

A

Upper and lower eyelids

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48
Q

How d the lacrimal punctate pump tears into lacrimal sac?

A

Muscle encircles them which constrict the canaliculi during blinking- pumping into lacrimal canaliculi and lacrimal sac, empties into nasolacrimal duct

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49
Q

What are the three layers of the globe itself?

A

fibrous layer
Uvea
Neural

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50
Q

What is the function of the fibrous layer?

A

Supports the eyeball shape

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51
Q

What is the function of the Uvea?

A

Provides nutrition to the structures of the eye and acts to alter light transmission

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52
Q

How is the globe internally divided?

A

Anterior and posterior segments by position of the lens

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53
Q

How is the anterior segment divided?

A

Anterior/posterior by the iris

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54
Q

What is at the back of the anterior segment of the anterior segment?

A

The lens

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55
Q

What is the cornea?

A

Curved rostral surface of the eyeball which transmits and refracts light

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56
Q

What makes up the cornea?

A

Anterior epithelium which is squamous at the outside and columnar at base, linked to middle stroma by fine fibrils

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57
Q

What is the stroma and what is it made up of?

A

Main body of the cornea- consists of carefully arranged collagen fibrils with some keratocytes and a a ground substance of proteoglycans and GAGs

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58
Q

How is the cornea clear?

A

The arrangements of fibrils with the lack of corneal blood vessels give the cornea its clarity

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59
Q

What underlies the stroma?

A

The descemets membrane produced by the endothelium

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60
Q

What is the name for where the sclera meets the cornea?

A

Corneoscleral limbus

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61
Q

What is the name of the perforated zone where the optic nerve exits the eyeball?

A

Lamina cribosa

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62
Q

Why can the sclera sometimes appear blue and yellow?

A

Blue- where the sclera is thin

Yellow- hyperbillirubinaemia

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63
Q

How does the sclera receive blood?

A

The sclera has a superficial vascular plexus which anatomises with the anterior ciliary arteries and drains through the venous plexus in the mid sclera

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64
Q

What us the outer layer of the sclera called?

A

The episclera is a highly vascular fibroelastic tissue

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65
Q

What is on top of the episclera?

A

The bulbar conjunctiva

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66
Q

How is corneal injury repaired?

A

Stem cells in the limbus are recruited

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67
Q

What does the uvea consist of?

A

The iris the ciliary body forming the anterior urea and the choroid forming the posterior uvea

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68
Q

What is the most rostral part of the uvea?

A

The iris which forms a ring (the pupil)

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69
Q

What is the iris and what does it do?

A

A sphincter which constricts and dilates to vary the amount of light

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70
Q

What are the two zones of the iris?

A

The centrally papillary zone and the peripheral ciliary zone separated by the collarette

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71
Q

What kind of muscle constricts the iris and what innervates it?

A

The constrictor muscle is smooth muscle sphincter- oculomotor nerve

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72
Q

What kind of muscle dilates the iris?

A

Single smooth muscle layer extending from the sphincter to the periphery of the iris

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73
Q

What is posterior to the iris?

A

The ciliary body

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74
Q

What is the ciliary body made up of?

A

The ciliary process, the ciliary body angle, and forms part of the iridocorneal angle

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75
Q

What is the function of the ciliary body?

A

Produces aqueous humour, involved in its drainage, anchors the zonnular fibres which anchor the lens

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76
Q

What covers the ciliary body?

A

Two layers of epithelium, inner non-pigmented and outer pigmented

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77
Q

What forms the blood: aqueous barrier and how?

A

The non-pigmented epithelium via tight junctions between the cells

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78
Q

How is the ciliary body divided?

A

Pars plicate and posterior pars plana

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79
Q

What is the pars plicata made up of?

A

Consists of many ciliary processes which increase the SA for aqueous production

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80
Q

What suspends the lens?

A

The zonular fibres

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81
Q

What is the most anterior part of the ciliary body?

A

Iridocorneal angle

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82
Q

What is the iridocorneal angle made up of?

A

Where the root of the iris, the anterior ciliary body and the corneoscleral junction meet

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83
Q

What happens at the iridocorneal angle

A

Main site of aqueous humour

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84
Q

What is the choroid?

A

The uveal layer between the sclera and retina

Heavily vascular and pigmented and consists of several layers

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85
Q

What are the layers of the choroid?

A

Suprachoroidea, large vessel layer, medium vessel later, choriocapillaris

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86
Q

What are the functions of the different layers of the choroid?

A

Suprachoroidea- transition between sclera and choroid
Large vessel layer- contains venous plexus, mainly consisting of veins, cools the eye
Medium vessel layer- contains tapetum lucidum (cats eye) increases night vision
Choriocapillaris- innermost later, supply the retina

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87
Q

What is the corneal response to injury and the end result?

A

The keratocytes are capable of transforming fibroblasts to replace collagen in an injury, the resulting scar tissue lacks the organisation and hence the clarity

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88
Q

What does the anterior segment contain?

A

Aqueous humour

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89
Q

What is aqueous humour?

A

An ultra filtrate of plasma which is produced by the ciliary body

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90
Q

What is the function of the aqueous humour?

A

Provides nutritional needs of the lens and cornea

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91
Q

How does the contents of aqueous humour vary?

A

Varies on the needs and substances in the blood

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92
Q

Why is the aqueous humour so important?

A

For the lens and cornea and necessary for intraocular pressure

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93
Q

What happens is production of aqueous humour is in excess of drainage?

A

Glaucoma

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94
Q

What are the three processes aqueous humour is produced?

A

Diffusion
Ultrafiltration- hydrostatic pressure
Active secretion- active transport by non-pigmented ciliary epithelium

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95
Q

How does bicarbonate enter the aqueous humour?

A

Via carbonic anhydrase reaction in the ciliary body

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96
Q

How can bicarbonate provide a treatment of glaucoma?

A

Affects Na movement and therefore water transport

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97
Q

Describe the circulation of aqueous humour

A

Circulates from the posterior chamber to the anterior and circulates within anterior due to temperature differences, drains out anterior chamber via the iridocorneal angle

98
Q

What in the iridocorneal angle does humour drain out of?

A

Pectinate ligament and ciliary cleft

99
Q

What is vitreous humour and what does it do?

A

Hydrogel that transmits light, fills the posterior segment of the globe, and gives support
Provides storage of nutrients and waste products for the retina

100
Q

What sits on the the anterior face of the vitreous?

A

The lens

101
Q

What sites behind the iris?

A

The lens

102
Q

Describe the structure of the lens?

A

An acellular capsule, a cortex of lens fibres and a central nucleus

103
Q

Where do zonular fibres run from and to?

A

From the ciliary process to the lens capsule

104
Q

What is nuclear sclerosis?

A

The central nucleus of the lens becoming larger, denser and stiffer with age

105
Q

How does the lens obtain nutrients and remove waste products?

A

Aqueous humour

106
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Deposition of lens protein or accumulation of vacuoles due to changes in aqueous humour

107
Q

What is the fundus?

A

The posterior segment which is viewed with an ophthalmoscope

108
Q

What are the visible structures of the fundus?

A

Optic disc, the retina, RPE, choroids and sometimes the sclera

109
Q

What is the outermost layer of the retina and what is the innermost made of?

A

Outermost is the RPE

Innermost is aeons of the ganglion cells

110
Q

When do the axons from the retina become myelinated?

A

After the optical disc

111
Q

What are Cone and rod photoreceptors for?

A

Cone- enable colour and sharp activity

Rod-enable shape and motion

112
Q

Where are cones most numerous in the retina?

A

Centralis

113
Q

What is the function of the retinal pigment?

A

Phagocytoses spent photoreceptor segments
Plays key role in vitamin A metabolism
Moves metabolites in and out the retina

114
Q

What is a tapetal and where is it found?

A

Shiny coloured region or pigmented

Found in fundus

115
Q

What is the name for a retina which receives direct blood flow?

A

Holangiotic

116
Q

What is a merangiotic retina and what species have one?

A

Blood vessels and myelinated course medially and laterally from the optical disc
Rabbits

117
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

A chemical that diffuses from the presynaptic from the pre-synaptic membrane to post synaptic membrane

118
Q

What is the general effect of the following neurotransmitters: Monoamines, Serotonin, Dopamine?

A

Monoamines- stress
Happiness- Serotonin
Movement- Dopamine

119
Q

What triggers exocytosis of neurotransmitter?

A

Influx of calcium ions in the presynaptic membrane

120
Q

What are the types of calcium channels in the pre-synaptic membrane?

A

L-type (long acting)
T-type (transient, low threshold, short period)
N-type

121
Q

How are neurotransmitters inactivated?

A

Enzyme breakdown and/or reuptake into synapse or glia

122
Q

Describe how acetyl choline functions as a neurotransmitter and removed?

A 
Vesicles contain acetyl choline
Fuse with presynaptic membrane
Acts on ion channels in post synaptic membrane 
Acetyl choline esterase breaks it down
Moves back into presynaptic membrane 
Re-produced and packaged into vesicles
123
Q

What blocks acetyl choline?

A

Neostigmine

124
Q

What are the three main monoamines?

A

Dopamine, Noradrenaline, adrenaline

125
Q

How are monoamines produced?

A

Tyrosine convertes to L-DOPA, precursor for domaine, noradrenaline and adrenaline

126
Q

What is tryptophan?

A

Precursor for serotonin

127
Q

How do monoamines function as neurotransmitters?

A

Binds to receptors on post-synaptic membrane
Monoamine uptake transporters moves them back into presynaptic membrane
Oxidises then repackaged and reformed in vesicle

128
Q

What are the main exitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters of the brain?

A

Glutamate is exitatory

GABA in inhibitor

129
Q

What is the action of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Reduces the chance of threshold

130
Q

What is the difference between inotropic and metabotropic receptors?

A

Inotropic- fast ligand gated receptors

Metabotropic- slower G-protein coupled

131
Q

How can transmitters be inotropic and G-protein coupled receptors?

A

Can be exitatory for one and inhibitory for another

132
Q

What is the action of a neuropeptide?

A

Produced at the top of the neutron and transported all the way down to the presynaptic membrane

133
Q

What is the fastest type of synapse?

A

Electrical synapse

134
Q

What are the two types of summation?

A

Temporal- time summation- several impulses from one neurone

Spatial- two neurons fire to reach threshold

135
Q

What is negative summation?

A

One neurone and neurotransmitter cancels the other

136
Q

What are astrocytes?

A

‘Clean up’ neurotransmitters, take them up and ‘detoxify them’ mainly GABA and glutamate

137
Q

What is nociception?

A

Pain

138
Q

What is a polynomial nociceptor?

A

A bare nerve ending that detects pain

139
Q

How are polynomial nociceptors activated?

A

Mechanical ion channels with movement

Chemical ion channels with chemicals

140
Q

What are TRP channels?

A

Transient receptor potential channels

141
Q

What stimuli do TRP channels detect?

A

Acid, hot, cold, bumps, inflammation

142
Q

What is the definition of nociception?

A

Sensing a stimulus which would be expected to invoke pain

143
Q

Order the nerve fibres from fastest to slowest: C-fibres, A-delta, A, alpha, A beta?

A

A alpha
A beta
A delta
C-fibres- unmylinated

144
Q

What is unusual about primary nociceptor afferents?

A

Often superficial
Lighter myelination
Thinner
Different NaV channels

145
Q

What is the pain gate?

A

When pain can be prevented in fight and flight

146
Q

What are the two ascending pain pathways?

A

Ventrolateral and Spinocervicular

147
Q

What are the two pathways which make up the ventrolateral ascending pathway?

A

Spinothalamic tract

Spinoreticular tract

148
Q

Describe the pathway of the spinothelmic tract and what pain does it detect?

A

Spine directly to thalamus- pin prick and thermal stimuli

149
Q

What is the overall spinoreticular tract and what type of pain does it detect?

A

Spine to reticular formation (then thalamus)

Detects true pain

150
Q

Which ascending pathway has a direct contact with the vomit centre?

A

Spinoreticular

151
Q

What does the spinocervical tract detect, describe its pathway?

A

Detects touch, pin prick, fleas
Tract ascends in lateral funiculus
At C2 it synapses, crosses spinal cord to thalamus sub nuclei
Passes through medial lemniscus in the midbrain

152
Q

What is the triple lewis response?

A

Pain oedema and flare from several branches of the sensory nerve and one action potential causing several responses

153
Q

What is an example of referred pain?

A

Heart attack in the arm

154
Q

Where is the cerebellum found?

A

Sits caudal to the cerebral hemispheres and dorsal to the brain stem

155
Q

What does arbor vitae mean?

A

Tree of life

156
Q

What is the main over all function of the cerebellum?

A

Compares intended movement with the movement which actually overs and minimises the difference

157
Q

What is immediately ventral to the cerebellum?

A

The 4th ventricle

158
Q

What are the three lobes of the cerebellum?

A

Rostral (anterior), Caudal (posterior) and flucculonodular

159
Q

What is found in between the two lateral hemispheres of the cerebellum?

A

A narrow central vermis

160
Q

Describe the structure of the grey and white matter in the cerebellum

A

Grey folded into many folia

White forms a tree appearance

161
Q

What does the white matter of the cerebellum consist of?

A

Purkinje cell axons which synapse on deep cerebellar nuclei of grey matter

162
Q

Describe the pathway of grey matter

A

Grey matter communicates with other CNS structures bilaterally with three stalks of white matter called peduncles

163
Q

How many peduncles are there and what are they called?

A

6 in total 3 each side

Rostral, middle, caudal

164
Q

What structure do the cerebellar peduncles contribute to?

A

Form the roof of the 4th ventricle

165
Q

What do the caudal cerebral peduncles contain?

A

Afferent fibres carrying sensory information from vestibular organs and proprioceptors to the cerebellum

166
Q

What do the middle cerebral peduncles contain?

A

Afferent fibres brining information on intended movements originating in the motor cortex and travelling via the pontine nuclei to the cerebellum

167
Q

What do the rostral cerebral peduncles contain?

A

Efferent fibres, cross to form an X at the caudal colliculus to run it the contralateral red nucleus in the midbrain and the thalamus from the cerebellum

168
Q

What is the generic function of the rostral, middle and caudal peduncle?

A

Middle- shared information about where the whole body is
Rostral- plans movements
Causal- share information about balance and proprioception

169
Q

What does the size and shape of the cerebellum correlate too?

A

The type of movement and posture of the animal

170
Q

What movements do animals with a well developed spin-cerebellum and small cerebral hemispheres rely on?

A

Animals who rely on axial muscles and symmetrical or absent limb movements

171
Q

What do animals with tails have present on their cerebellums?

A

A large lobule on the rostral end of the cerebellar called the lingula

172
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Coordination, refinement and correction of movement

173
Q

What are the two main sets of afferent axons in the cerebellum?

A

Mossy and climbing fibres

174
Q

How do the afferent axons travel?

A

Via the caudal and missile cerebellar peduncles

175
Q

What do most fibres carry input from?

A

Motor nuclei in in the pons

176
Q

What do climbing fibres carry input from?

A

Vestibular organs and proprioceptor

177
Q

What do both fibres cause in the cerebellum?

A

They exited the cerebellar cortex and deep nuclei

178
Q

How do deep nuclei increase motor function?

A

Deep nuclei have excitatory output from the upper motor neurone tracts

179
Q

How is output of the cerebellum modulated?

A

Modulated by the inhibition from the purkinje cell axons from the cerebellar cortex

180
Q

Where do corrective signals of the cerebellum travel?

A

Via the thalamus and brain stem upper motor neurone nuclei

181
Q

What does the flucculondular coordinate?

A

Coordinates balance and eye movements in response to vestibular and visual systems

182
Q

Where does the output of the fluccondular go and what does it influence?

A

Goes directly to vestibular nuclei in the brain stem

Influences the vestibulospinal tract- motor nuclei for CN III, IV, VI for extraocular muscles and CN XI for neck

183
Q

Where is the spinocerecellum?

A

Medial cerebellum extensors into vermis

184
Q

What does the spinocerebellum coordinate, where does the output go?

A

Coordinates muscle tone and movement in response to vestibular, visual, auditory and proprioceptive input
Output via deep cerebellar nuclei to upper motor neurone nuclei

185
Q

What does the cerebrocerebrum coordinate and what is its output?

A

Coordinates planning of limb movements
Input from motor and somatosensory cortices via the corticopontine cerebellar system
Output to motor cortex via thalamus

186
Q

What is ataxia and what would cause it?

A

Ataxia is an uncoordinated gait and poor balance

Inability of the vestibulo and spinocerebellum to coordinate balance and movement

187
Q

What would a lesion in the vestibulocerebellum cause?

A

Swaying and falling to the side

188
Q

How does a neonates brain develop?

A

The number of neurones doesn’t increase but myelination increases and dendrites increase in number and number of synapses increase

189
Q

What is developmental learning?

A

Development of synapses due to the external environment

190
Q

What processes are involved in brain maturation?

A

Mitosis, apoptosis of neurones, development and pruning of synapses

191
Q

What are sensitive periods of development?

A

Certain times during development in which the nervous system is affected by developmental learning
These periods vary in species

192
Q

What is an example of a sensitive period of development?

A

Socialisation periods- if first contact occurs after this the animal will respond with fear

193
Q

What is fully developed after sexual maturity?

A

The sensory and motor cortices are fully developed

194
Q

What is the definition of learning?

A

The acquisition of abilities or knowledge and is displayed in change in behaviour which occurs as a consequence of experience

195
Q

What is required to translate learning into a change in performance?

A

Motivation

196
Q

What are the two types of memories?

A

Declarative (facts), Procedural (how to)

197
Q

What are the two stages of memory?

A

Short and long term memory

198
Q

How long does short term memory last if not consolidated to LTM?

A

Seconds to hours

199
Q

How long does LTM last?

A

Days to years

200
Q

What does memory formation require?

A

Neural changes called memory traces

201
Q

What is the difference between STM and LTM?

A

STM memory traces are electrical only

LTM involves a physical change- formation of new synapses, growth of dendrites

202
Q

Which regions of the brain are needed for memory traces?

A

Hippocampus- consolidation of LTM

Cerebellum- storage of procedure

203
Q

How is a LTM made?

A

Formation of a memory if attention is paid to the sensory experience leading to a STM
If STM is practiced it leads to LTM

204
Q

Why is forgetting a LTM described as transient?

A

Sometimes the brain doesn’t find it (spongebob movie)

205
Q

What orchestrates the comparison of current sensory data and stored knowledge?

A

Prefrontal cortex

206
Q

What are the two types of non-associative learning?

A

Habituation and sensitisation

207
Q

How do habitation and sensitisation differ?

A

Habitations natural response to stimuli reduces over time

Sensitisation of the natural response to stimuli increases over time

208
Q

What causes either habitation or sensitisation to occur?

A

Depends on the context and the physiological and emotional state of the animal

209
Q

What are the two types of associative learning?

A

Operant conditioning and classical conditioning

210
Q

How does associative learning differ to non-associative?

A

Associative is more complex and require STM processing before learning is stored in LTM

211
Q

How does operant and classical conditioning differ?

A

Operant- animal learns to associate behaviour with outcome

Classical- animal learns to associate two stimuli that produce a desirable behaviour

212
Q

What is an example of operant and classical conditioning?

A

Operant- result of ones actions- barking for biscuits

Classical- pairs a conditioned stimulus such as a clicker with unconditioned stimulus treat

213
Q

What is cognitive dysfunction syndrome?

A

The loss of cognition- ability to think and process information, manipulating knowledge through learning memory and planning

214
Q

What are the signs of cognitive dysfunction syndrome?

A

DISHA
Disorientation, interaction and social behaviour changes, sleep wake cycle alterations, house soiling and activity level changes

215
Q

What are the neuropathological changes of CCD?

A

Brain atrophy, senile plaques, oxidative damage, neurofibrillary tangles

216
Q

What happens from brain atrophy?

A

Widening of sulci, thinning of gyri, dilation of ventricles

217
Q

What are senile plaques?

A

Abnormal accumulation of proteins with and around neurones, impairs synaptic function

218
Q

What is oxidative damage?

A

Oxidative damage to proteins, lipids and nucleotides in neurones affect their functions

219
Q

What is a common sign of CCD?

A

An aggressive animal that was previously non-aggressive

220
Q

Where is the hypothalamus found?

A

Sits in the diencephalon

221
Q

What is the hypothalamus vaigly made of?

A

Collection of nucleuses

222
Q

What are the key functions of the hypothalamus?

A 
Regulation of hormones 
Fight or flight response
Arousal
Sleep-wake cycle- circadian rhythm 
Regulation of blood volume and thirst 
Regulation of appetite
223
Q

What nuceli are found in the middle/caudal region of the hypothalamus?

A 
Lateral hypothalamic area (LHA)
Dorsomedial hypothalamus  (DMH)
Ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
Arcuate nucleus (ARC)
224
Q

What nuclei are found in the rostral hypothalamus?

A 
Paraventricular nucleus (PVN)
Superoptic nucleus (SON)
Superchiasmatic nucleus SCN)
225
Q

What is the function of the LHA, DMH, VMH, ARC?

A

LHA- feeding, drinking, arousal, fight or flight, circadian
DMH- Feeding, cardiovascular control
VMH- Feeding, drinking, activity
ARC- feeding

226
Q

What is the function of the PVN, SON, SCN?

A

PVN- Feeding, drinking, parturition, cardiovascular control
SON- Drinking
SCN- circadian rhythm

227
Q

What releases hypothalamus hormones?

A

Posterior pituitary

228
Q

How is the hypothalamus involved in the fight or flight response?

A

Cardiovascular control- changes in blood volume, osmolarity, temperature

229
Q

How is the hypothalamus involved in the sleep response?

A

Superchiasmatic nucleus- eye had ganglion in SCN- sends a wake sleep signal, releases melatonin from the pineal gland

230
Q

What disease is caused if the SCN is compromised?

A

Narcolepsy

231
Q

How is an animal woken up?

A

The SCN sends a neuropeptide signal to dorsal hypothalamus which relates hypocretin to wake up

232
Q

What does the hypothalamus cause if temp rises and falls?

A

Temp down- thermogenesis, shivering, adipocyte thermogenesis

Temp up- Switch off thermogenesis, vasodilation, sweating, panting

233
Q

How is osmolarity regulated by the hypothalamus?

A

Super optic nucleus releases vasopressin from posterior causing water retention

234
Q

What nucleus of the hypothalamus is associates with regulation of feeding?

A

Paraventricular nucleus

235
Q

What is satiety and appetite?

A

Satiety- eaten enough

Appetite- needs to eat

236
Q

What hormones affect which centres and cause appetite and anorexia?

A

Leptin to satiety centre

Ghrelin goes to appetite centre

237
Q

What is leptin, where is it produced, what does it cause?

A

Leptin is a cytokine produced by the obese gene in fat cells, acts on hypothalamus to regulate eating- decreases fat tissue

238
Q

How does leptin cause inhibit of feeding behaviour?

A

Induces pro-opiomelanocortin and release of melanocyte stimulating hormone, binds to melanocortin, inhibits feeding behaviour

Leptin acts on the ARC which either stimulates of inhibits feeding via the LHA and PVN

239
Q

What is the lipostat theory?

A

Leptin regulation of long term control of appetite

240
Q

What is the glucostat theory?

A

Short term appetite regulation- glucose rises, hunger falls and opposite
Detected in PVN

Year 2 NSF (16 decks)

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