Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

Definition secondary amenorrhea

A

Absence menses 6 months

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2
Q

1st 2 labs to order if pt presents with secondary amenorrhea?

A

TSH

Prolactin

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3
Q

Most common type of endometrial CA

A

Adenocarcinoma

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4
Q

Lynch syndrome at risk for what?

A

Uterine CA and colon CA

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5
Q

1st 2nd and 3rd line tx for endometriosis?

A

1-NSAIDS, OCPs
2- GnRH agonist (leuprolide)
3-surgery

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6
Q

Using GnRH agonists for fibroids?

A

Can use to shrink the fibroid but as soon as you stop the medication it will regrow. Don’t use for more than 1 year due to risk of bone loss.

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7
Q

Atypical Glandular cells on PAP

A

if over age 35 needs an endometrial bx to r/o uterine ca

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8
Q

vaginal/vulvar CA usually what type?

A

Squamous

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9
Q

Primary vs secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Primary: no pathology, usually occurs 1 yr after menarche
Secondary: due to pathology, occurs several years after menarche

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10
Q

Diagnostic test to confirm menopause

A

FSH (elevated)

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11
Q

Most common cause of mastitis or breast abscess?

A

Staph, usually during breastfeeding

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12
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

Inflammation of the liver capsule from PID causing RUQ pain

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13
Q

Labs to evaluate fertility/ovulation

A

Luteal phase progesterone level (7d before menstruation). Less than 3, anovulatory. More than 3, recent ovulation.
If anovulatory, check TSH and FSH.
FSH: done on day 3 of menses. 2-10 is normal. Less than 2 is hypogonadism. More than 30 is premature ovarian failure.

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14
Q

Naegele rule

A

LMP -3 months + 7 days

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15
Q

Rh negative tx

A

Give rhogam at 28 weeks

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16
Q

Missed abortion

A

Os: closed

Products of conception: in the uterus

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17
Q

Inevitable abortion

A

Os: dilated and active bleeding

Products of conception in the uterus

18
Q

Incomplete abortion

A

Os: dilated

Products of conception in the cervical canal

19
Q

Complete abortion

A

Os: closed

Products of conception have been expelled

20
Q

Threatened abortion

A

Vaginal bleeding and viable pregnancy. Unknown cause.

21
Q

Tx abortion

A

Rh negative pts need Rhogam shot

Monitor or D&C or misoprostol if missed, invevitable, incomplete

22
Q

Placental abruption risk factors

A

Trauma

Cocaine use

23
Q

Sx placental abruption

A

3rd trimester bleeding with painful contractions

24
Q

Complications shoulder dystocia

A

brachial plexus injury
clavicle fracture
asphyxia (occurs if provider cannot clear shoulder in 5 minutes

25
Risk factors ectopic pregnancy
Pregnancy with IUD in place H/o prior ectopic PID
26
When is an IUP visible on US (with what level of HCG?)
2,000
27
What is a normal rise in HCG?
doubling every 2-3 days
28
3 complications of gestational DM
shoulder dystocia preeclampsia macrosomia
29
DX gestation DM
Fasting glucose > 95 1 hr post prandial > 140 2 hr >120
30
US: snowstorm pattern
molar pregnancy
31
Suspect what in a patient with preeclampsia under 20 weeks?
Molar pregnancy
32
ecclampsia definition
preeclampsia with seizure
33
HEELP syndrome
Hemolysis Elevated liver enzymes Low platelets
34
What BP reading do pregnant pts require tx?
160/110: treat with methyldopa or labetolol
35
Placenta previa definition
Placenta covering the os
36
Presentation of placenta previa?
Painless 2nd or 3rd trimester bleeding
37
Tx placenta previa?
Majority resolve by 26 week US | If not, repeat US at 35 weeks. If still not resolved, C section at 38 weeks
38
Definition post partum hemorrhage
More than 500mL blood loss
39
Endometrial strip greater than 5mm
Suspicious for Uterine CA, needs endometrial bx
40
Chlamydia tx during pregnancy
Azithromycin. Do not use Doxy.
41
When is Quad screening done?
15-20 weeks
42
When is Rhogam given?
28 weeks