Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

Definition secondary amenorrhea

A

Absence menses 6 months

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2
Q

1st 2 labs to order if pt presents with secondary amenorrhea?

A

TSH

Prolactin

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3
Q

Most common type of endometrial CA

A

Adenocarcinoma

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4
Q

Lynch syndrome at risk for what?

A

Uterine CA and colon CA

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5
Q

1st 2nd and 3rd line tx for endometriosis?

A

1-NSAIDS, OCPs
2- GnRH agonist (leuprolide)
3-surgery

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6
Q

Using GnRH agonists for fibroids?

A

Can use to shrink the fibroid but as soon as you stop the medication it will regrow. Don’t use for more than 1 year due to risk of bone loss.

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7
Q

Atypical Glandular cells on PAP

A

if over age 35 needs an endometrial bx to r/o uterine ca

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8
Q

vaginal/vulvar CA usually what type?

A

Squamous

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9
Q

Primary vs secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Primary: no pathology, usually occurs 1 yr after menarche
Secondary: due to pathology, occurs several years after menarche

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10
Q

Diagnostic test to confirm menopause

A

FSH (elevated)

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11
Q

Most common cause of mastitis or breast abscess?

A

Staph, usually during breastfeeding

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12
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

Inflammation of the liver capsule from PID causing RUQ pain

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13
Q

Labs to evaluate fertility/ovulation

A

Luteal phase progesterone level (7d before menstruation). Less than 3, anovulatory. More than 3, recent ovulation.
If anovulatory, check TSH and FSH.
FSH: done on day 3 of menses. 2-10 is normal. Less than 2 is hypogonadism. More than 30 is premature ovarian failure.

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14
Q

Naegele rule

A

LMP -3 months + 7 days

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15
Q

Rh negative tx

A

Give rhogam at 28 weeks

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16
Q

Missed abortion

A

Os: closed

Products of conception: in the uterus

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17
Q

Inevitable abortion

A

Os: dilated and active bleeding

Products of conception in the uterus

18
Q

Incomplete abortion

A

Os: dilated

Products of conception in the cervical canal

19
Q

Complete abortion

A

Os: closed

Products of conception have been expelled

20
Q

Threatened abortion

A

Vaginal bleeding and viable pregnancy. Unknown cause.

21
Q

Tx abortion

A

Rh negative pts need Rhogam shot

Monitor or D&C or misoprostol if missed, invevitable, incomplete

22
Q

Placental abruption risk factors

A

Trauma

Cocaine use

23
Q

Sx placental abruption

A

3rd trimester bleeding with painful contractions

24
Q

Complications shoulder dystocia

A

brachial plexus injury
clavicle fracture
asphyxia (occurs if provider cannot clear shoulder in 5 minutes

25
Q

Risk factors ectopic pregnancy

A

Pregnancy with IUD in place
H/o prior ectopic
PID

26
Q

When is an IUP visible on US (with what level of HCG?)

A

2,000

27
Q

What is a normal rise in HCG?

A

doubling every 2-3 days

28
Q

3 complications of gestational DM

A

shoulder dystocia
preeclampsia
macrosomia

29
Q

DX gestation DM

A

Fasting glucose > 95
1 hr post prandial > 140
2 hr >120

30
Q

US: snowstorm pattern

A

molar pregnancy

31
Q

Suspect what in a patient with preeclampsia under 20 weeks?

A

Molar pregnancy

32
Q

ecclampsia definition

A

preeclampsia with seizure

33
Q

HEELP syndrome

A

Hemolysis
Elevated liver enzymes
Low platelets

34
Q

What BP reading do pregnant pts require tx?

A

160/110: treat with methyldopa or labetolol

35
Q

Placenta previa definition

A

Placenta covering the os

36
Q

Presentation of placenta previa?

A

Painless 2nd or 3rd trimester bleeding

37
Q

Tx placenta previa?

A

Majority resolve by 26 week US

If not, repeat US at 35 weeks. If still not resolved, C section at 38 weeks

38
Q

Definition post partum hemorrhage

A

More than 500mL blood loss

39
Q

Endometrial strip greater than 5mm

A

Suspicious for Uterine CA, needs endometrial bx

40
Q

Chlamydia tx during pregnancy

A

Azithromycin. Do not use Doxy.

41
Q

When is Quad screening done?

A

15-20 weeks

42
Q

When is Rhogam given?

A

28 weeks