Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology HL - IB > Reproduction > Flashcards

Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

What is sexual reproduction?

A

Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of gametes (sperm and egg) from two parents, resulting in offspring with genetic contributions from both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is asexual reproduction?

A

Asexual reproduction is a process where a single organism produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself, without the involvement of gametes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main advantages of asexual reproduction?

A

Asexual reproduction allows for rapid population growth and the production of genetically identical offspring that are well-adapted to stable environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does sexual reproduction contribute to genetic variation?

A

Sexual reproduction creates offspring with new gene combinations through the mixing of parental genes, leading to increased genetic diversity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is genetic variation important for adaptation?

A

Genetic variation provides a population with a broader range of traits, enhancing the ability to adapt to changing environments and survive challenges such as diseases or climate shifts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is one common method of asexual reproduction?

A

Common methods of asexual reproduction include binary fission (in bacteria), budding (in yeast), and vegetative propagation (in plants).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is one example of an organism that reproduces sexually?

A

Many animals, including humans, reproduce sexually by combining genetic material from two parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the rate of reproduction differ between sexual and asexual methods?

A

Asexual reproduction typically allows for faster population growth since it does not require finding a mate, while sexual reproduction may result in slower growth due to mating processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What role does environmental stability play in the choice between sexual and asexual reproduction?

A

In stable environments, asexual reproduction may be favored for its efficiency, while sexual reproduction may be advantageous in changing environments to enhance adaptability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can some organisms switch between sexual and asexual reproduction?

A

Yes, some organisms, such as certain plants and fungi, can switch between sexual and asexual reproduction depending on environmental conditions and resource availability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is meiosis?

A

Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, producing four genetically diverse gametes from a single diploid cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does meiosis contribute to genetic variation?

A

Meiosis breaks up parental combinations of alleles through processes such as independent assortment and crossing over, resulting in gametes with new genetic combinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the significance of crossing over during meiosis?

A

Crossing over allows for the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, increasing genetic diversity among offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is fertilization?

A

Fertilization, also known as the fusion of gametes, is the process where male and female gametes combine to form a diploid zygote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does fertilization contribute to genetic variation?

A

Fertilization combines alleles from two parents, producing offspring with unique genetic combinations distinct from either parent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are gametes?

A

Gametes are specialized reproductive cells (sperm and eggs) that carry half the genetic information necessary for sexual reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the outcome of meiosis in terms of chromosome number?

A

Meiosis reduces the chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid (n), ensuring that offspring have the correct chromosome number when gametes fuse during fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is it important for meiosis to occur before fertilization?

A

Meiosis ensures that gametes contain only one set of chromosomes, allowing for the restoration of the diploid chromosome number upon fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is independent assortment in meiosis?

A

Independent assortment refers to the random distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes during meiosis, contributing to genetic diversity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do mutations affect genetic variation during meiosis?

A

Mutations can introduce new alleles into a population, and when combined with the processes of meiosis and fertilization, they further enhance genetic diversity among offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the primary difference between male and female gametes?

A

The male gamete (sperm) is smaller and typically has less food reserves compared to the larger female gamete (egg or ovum).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is the male gamete designed to travel?

A

The male gamete is streamlined for mobility, allowing it to swim and reach the female gamete for fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do the numbers of gametes produced differ between males and females?

A

Males typically produce a large number of sperm (millions per ejaculation), while females produce a limited number of eggs (usually one per menstrual cycle).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the significance of the large number of sperm produced by males?

A

Producing many sperm increases the chances of successful fertilization, as only a few sperm may reach the egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does the reproductive strategy of males differ from that of females?

A

Males often adopt a strategy focused on quantity, maximizing opportunities for fertilization, while females typically invest more in fewer offspring, emphasizing quality and parental care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an example of a reproductive strategy in males?

A

Males may engage in competition with other males for access to females or display traits that attract females, such as bright colors or elaborate courtship behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do females typically choose mates?

A

Females often exhibit selective mating preferences based on traits that indicate genetic fitness, health, or resource availability in potential mates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What role does parental investment play in sexual reproduction?

A

Females generally invest more in parental care (e.g., gestation, nursing), while males may invest less time and resources after fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does sexual dimorphism relate to reproductive strategies?

A

Sexual dimorphism refers to differences in size, appearance, or behavior between males and females that often reflect their differing reproductive strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can environmental factors influence reproductive strategies in males and females?

A

Yes, environmental conditions such as resource availability, population density, and predation pressure can shape reproductive strategies and behaviors in both sexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the primary structures of the male reproductive system?

A

The primary structures include the testes, epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, urethra, and penis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the testes?

A

The testes produce sperm and testosterone, the male sex hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What role does the epididymis play in the male reproductive system?

A

The epididymis stores and matures sperm produced in the testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the function of the vas deferens?

A

The vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do seminal vesicles contribute to reproduction?

A

Seminal vesicles produce a fluid that nourishes sperm and forms part of semen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the role of the prostate gland?

A

The prostate gland secretes a slightly alkaline fluid that helps maintain sperm viability and forms part of seminal fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the function of the bulbourethral glands?

A

Bulbourethral glands produce a mucus secretion that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes acidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the urethra’s dual function in males?

A

The urethra carries urine from the bladder and serves as a passage for semen during ejaculation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the structure of the penis.

A

The penis consists of three main parts: the root, body (shaft), and glans (tip), containing erectile tissue that engorges with blood during erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why is the scrotum located outside of the body?

A

The scrotum maintains a cooler temperature for optimal sperm production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the main components of the female reproductive system?

A

The main components include the ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the function of the ovaries?

A

Ovaries produce ova (eggs) and hormones such as estrogen and progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do fallopian tubes facilitate reproduction?

A

Fallopian tubes transport eggs from the ovaries to the uterus and are typically where fertilization occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the role of the uterus in reproduction?

A

The uterus provides a nurturing environment for a fertilized egg to implant and develop into a fetus during pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the cervix’s function.

A

The cervix connects the uterus to the vagina and serves as a passage for menstrual fluid and childbirth while also producing mucus that changes during ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the vagina’s role in sexual reproduction?

A

The vagina receives sperm during intercourse and serves as a birth canal during delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many eggs do females typically release during their reproductive years?

A

Females typically release one egg per menstrual cycle until menopause, when ovulation ceases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens to an unfertilized egg during menstruation?

A

An unfertilized egg disintegrates, and the uterine lining sheds during menstruation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do hormones regulate female reproductive functions?

A

Hormones such as FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) regulate ovulation and menstrual cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are some common functions of accessory glands in females?

A

Accessory glands like Bartholin’s glands provide lubrication during intercourse, enhancing comfort and facilitating reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the main phases of the ovarian cycle?

A

The ovarian cycle consists of the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What occurs during the follicular phase?

A

During the follicular phase, FSH promotes the maturation of follicles, which produce estrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the role of estrogen in the ovarian cycle?

A

Estrogen promotes the thickening of the endometrial lining and provides negative feedback to inhibit FSH secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

A surge in luteinizing hormone (LH), stimulated by high levels of estrogen, triggers ovulation around day 14 of the cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What happens to the follicle after ovulation?

A

The ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone and some estrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the function of progesterone during the luteal phase?

A

Progesterone maintains the endometrial lining and inhibits further secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What happens if fertilization does not occur?

A

If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to decreased levels of estrogen and progesterone, which triggers menstruation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the main phases of the uterine cycle?

A

The uterine cycle consists of menstruation, the proliferative phase, and the secretory phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What occurs during menstruation?

A

Menstruation involves shedding of the endometrial lining when fertilization does not occur, resulting in menstrual bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How does estrogen affect the uterine lining during the proliferative phase?

A

Estrogen stimulates growth and repair of the endometrial lining in preparation for potential implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What characterizes the secretory phase of the uterine cycle?

A

During the secretory phase, progesterone from the corpus luteum further thickens and maintains the endometrium to support a potential pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How do FSH and LH interact in regulating the menstrual cycle?

A

FSH promotes follicle development while LH triggers ovulation; both hormones are regulated by feedback from estrogen and progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is positive feedback in hormonal regulation?

A

Positive feedback occurs when rising levels of estrogen stimulate an increase in LH production, leading to ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is negative feedback in hormonal regulation?

A

Negative feedback occurs when high levels of estrogen or progesterone inhibit FSH and LH secretion from the pituitary gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Why is hormonal regulation important for reproductive health?

A

Hormonal regulation ensures proper timing for ovulation and prepares the uterus for possible implantation, which is crucial for fertility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How long does a typical menstrual cycle last?

A

A typical menstrual cycle lasts about 28 days but can vary among individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What initiates a new menstrual cycle after menstruation ends?

A

The decline in estrogen and progesterone levels after menstruation allows for increased secretion of FSH from the pituitary gland, initiating a new cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is fertilization in humans?

A

Fertilization is the process where a sperm cell fuses with an egg cell, resulting in the formation of a zygote.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where does fertilization typically occur in the female reproductive system?

A

Fertilization usually occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube, near the ovary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the first step in the fertilization process?

A

The first step involves sperm capacitation, where sperm undergo biochemical changes to prepare for fusion with the egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What role does the acrosome play during fertilization?

A

The acrosome of the sperm contains enzymes that help digest through the zona pellucida, allowing sperm to penetrate the egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What happens when a sperm successfully penetrates the egg?

A

Upon penetration, the sperm’s cell membrane fuses with the egg’s cell membrane, allowing the sperm nucleus to enter the egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What happens to the sperm’s tail and mitochondria during fertilization?

A

The sperm’s tail and mitochondria are destroyed after fusion, leaving only the sperm nucleus to enter the egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What occurs to the nuclear membranes of both gametes after fusion?

A

The nuclear membranes of both the sperm and egg nuclei dissolve, allowing their genetic material to combine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How are chromosomes organized after fertilization?

A

The chromosomes from both gametes condense and participate in a joint mitosis to produce two diploid nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a zygote?

A

A zygote is a single-cell embryo formed after fertilization, containing genetic material from both parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What prevents polyspermy after a sperm has entered the egg?

A

The cortical reaction occurs, causing changes in the zona pellucida that prevent additional sperm from entering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How long can an egg be fertilized after ovulation?

A

An egg can typically be fertilized for about 24 hours after ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What happens to the zygote after fertilization?

A

The zygote begins dividing through mitosis as it travels down the fallopian tube toward the uterus for implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the role of hormones in in vitro fertilization (IVF)?

A

Hormones are used to regulate the menstrual cycle, induce superovulation, and prepare the uterus for embryo implantation during IVF treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is superovulation?

A

Superovulation is the process of using artificial doses of hormones to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs instead of the usual single egg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which hormones are primarily used to induce superovulation?

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are primarily used to stimulate the development of multiple ovarian follicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How does FSH function in IVF treatment?

A

FSH promotes the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, increasing the number of eggs available for retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the purpose of administering human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) during IVF?

A

hCG is used to trigger ovulation, allowing for the release of mature eggs from the follicles before they are collected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is down-regulation in the context of IVF?

A

Down-regulation involves using medications to suspend normal hormonal secretion, preventing premature ovulation and allowing doctors to control egg production timing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How long does down-regulation typically last during IVF treatment?

A

Down-regulation usually lasts about two weeks and may involve medications delivered as injections or nasal sprays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What role does progesterone play after egg retrieval in IVF?

A

Progesterone prepares the uterine lining for implantation and supports early pregnancy after embryo transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Why is careful timing important in hormone administration during IVF?

A

Careful timing ensures that eggs are retrieved at the optimal moment for fertilization and that the uterine lining is ready for embryo implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What happens if fertilization is successful after egg retrieval?

A

If fertilization occurs, embryos are cultured in the lab before being transferred to the uterus for potential implantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How does hormonal treatment affect the success rates of IVF?

A

Proper hormonal treatment can significantly enhance egg quality, improve fertilization rates, and increase the chances of successful pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are some potential risks associated with hormone use in IVF?

A

Risks include ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS), multiple pregnancies, and side effects from hormonal medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How do GnRH agonists and antagonists function in IVF protocols?

A

GnRH agonists and antagonists help control hormone cycles, preventing premature ovulation and allowing for better timing of egg retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the significance of monitoring hormone levels during IVF?

A

Monitoring hormone levels helps assess ovarian response to treatment and adjust medication dosages for optimal outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is a common mnemonic used to remember key stages in IVF?

A

The mnemonic “SHE’S FIT” summarizes key stages as Stop normal menstrual cycle, Hormone treatments, Extract multiple eggs, Sperm collected, Fertilization occurs, Implantation of multiple embryos, Test for pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is sexual reproduction in flowering plants?

A

Sexual reproduction in flowering plants involves the production of gametes, pollination, fertilization, and the formation of seeds and embryos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Where are male gametes produced in flowering plants?

A

Male gametes (sperm) are produced inside pollen grains, which develop in the anthers of the stamen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Where are female gametes produced in flowering plants?

A

Female gametes (eggs) are produced inside ovules, which are located within the ovary of the pistil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the structure that contains ovules in flowering plants?

A

The ovary is the part of the flower that contains one or more ovules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is pollination?

A

Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part) of a flower, enabling fertilization to occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the two main types of pollination?

A

The two main types of pollination are self-pollination (pollen from the same flower or plant) and cross-pollination (pollen from different flowers or plants).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What agents can facilitate pollination?

A

Pollination can be facilitated by various agents, including wind, water, insects, birds, and other animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How does pollen develop?

A

Pollen develops from microspores produced by meiosis in the anthers, undergoing mitotic divisions to form pollen grains containing sperm cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is contained within a pollen grain?

A

A pollen grain typically contains two sperm cells and a tube cell that will form the pollen tube during fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What happens during fertilization in flowering plants?

A

During fertilization, a pollen grain germinates on the stigma, forming a pollen tube that grows down to the ovule, allowing one sperm cell to fertilize the egg cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What occurs after fertilization in flowering plants?

A

After fertilization, one sperm cell fuses with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote, while another sperm cell fuses with two polar nuclei to form triploid endosperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the role of endosperm in seed development?

A

The endosperm provides nourishment to the developing embryo within the seed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How does an embryo develop after fertilization?

A

The zygote develops into an embryo within the seed as it undergoes mitotic divisions and differentiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What structures form around the embryo during seed development?

A

The integuments of the ovule develop into a seed coat, surrounding and protecting the embryo and endosperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is a hermaphroditic flowering plant?

A

A hermaphroditic flowering plant has both male (stamens) and female (pistils) reproductive structures within the same flower or plant, allowing it to produce gametes for sexual reproduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Why is sexual reproduction important for flowering plants?

A

Sexual reproduction promotes genetic diversity among offspring, which enhances adaptability and resilience to environmental changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the primary purpose of insect-pollinated flowers?

A

Insect-pollinated flowers are adapted to attract insects for the purpose of transferring pollen and facilitating fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the main parts of a flower?

A

The main parts of a flower include petals, sepals, stamens (anthers and filaments), and pistils (ovary, style, and stigma).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the function of petals in insect-pollinated flowers?

A

Petals are often brightly colored and fragrant to attract pollinators, such as bees and butterflies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

How do the shapes of petals assist in pollination?

A

The shape and arrangement of petals can provide a landing platform for insects, facilitating access to reproductive structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the role of sepals in a flower?

A

Sepals protect the developing flower bud before it opens and may also support the flower once it blooms.

117
Q

What are stamens composed of?

A

Stamens consist of two parts: the anther (where pollen is produced) and the filament (which supports the anther).

118
Q

How does the anther function in insect-pollinated flowers?

A

The anther releases pollen when mature, which can be transferred to visiting insects.

119
Q

What are the components of a pistil?

A

A pistil consists of three parts: the ovary (contains ovules), the style (the stalk connecting ovary to stigma), and the stigma (the receptive surface for pollen).

120
Q

What is the function of the stigma in insect-pollinated flowers?

A

The stigma captures pollen grains brought by insects, allowing fertilization to occur.

121
Q

How do nectar and scent contribute to pollination?

A

Many insect-pollinated flowers produce nectar as a reward for pollinators and emit scents that attract them.

122
Q

Where is nectar typically found in a flower?

A

Nectar is often located in specialized structures called nectaries, which can be found at the base of petals or within floral tubes.

123
Q

What adaptations might an insect-pollinated flower have to ensure successful pollination?

A

Features may include a sturdy structure for landing, vibrant colors, patterns that guide insects to nectar, and synchronization of flowering times with insect activity.

124
Q

How does the timing of flowering relate tHow does the timing of flowering relate to insect activity?o insect activity?

A

Many insect-pollinated flowers bloom when their specific pollinators are most active, increasing chances for successful pollination.

125
Q

When drawing an insect-pollinated flower diagram, what should be included?

A

Diagrams should include labeled structures such as petals, sepals, stamens (anther and filament), pistil (ovary, style, stigma), nectar, and any other relevant features.

126
Q

Why is it important to annotate diagrams with functions?

A

Annotating diagrams with functions helps illustrate how each structure contributes to the overall process of pollination and reproduction in flowering plants.

127
Q

What is cross-pollination?

A

Cross-pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower, promoting genetic diversity in plants.

128
Q

How do different maturation times for pollen and stigma promote cross-pollination?

A

Staggered maturation ensures that pollen and stigma do not mature simultaneously on the same flower, reducing self-pollination and encouraging pollen transfer from other plants.

129
Q

What is protandry in flowering plants?

A

Protandry is a strategy where the male parts (anthers) mature before the female parts (stigma), ensuring that pollen is available for other flowers before the stigma is receptive.

130
Q

What is protogyny in flowering plants?

A

Protogyny is when the female parts (stigma) mature before the male parts (anthers), allowing for cross-pollination from other flowers before self-pollination can occur.

131
Q

How does having separate male and female flowers promote cross-pollination?

A

Separate male and female flowers on the same plant (monoecious) or different plants (dioecious) require pollen to be transferred between individual plants, enhancing genetic diversity.

132
Q

What are monoecious plants?

A

Monoecious plants have both male and female flowers on the same individual, which can still promote cross-pollination if pollinators transfer pollen between different plants.

133
Q

What are dioecious plants?

A

Dioecious plants have separate male and female individuals, requiring pollen from a male plant to fertilize the ovules in a female plant, ensuring cross-pollination.

134
Q

How do animals contribute to cross-pollination?

A

Animals, especially insects like bees, butterflies, and birds, transfer pollen as they collect nectar or forage for food, facilitating cross-pollination between different plants.

135
Q

What adaptations do flowers have to attract animal pollinators?

A

Flowers may have bright colors, sweet scents, and nectar rewards to attract specific animal pollinators for effective pollen transfer.

136
Q

How does wind contribute to cross-pollination?

A

Wind-pollinated plants release large quantities of lightweight pollen into the air, which can be carried over distances to reach the stigmas of other flowers.

137
Q

What characteristics do wind-pollinated flowers typically have?

A

Wind-pollinated flowers usually have small, inconspicuous petals, exposed anthers for easy pollen release, and feathery stigmas to catch airborne pollen.

138
Q

Why is genetic diversity important for plant populations?

A

Genetic diversity enhances resilience against diseases, pests, and environmental changes, increasing the chances of survival and adaptation.

139
Q

How can agricultural practices promote cross-pollination in crops?

A

Farmers can plant a mix of compatible varieties or maintain populations with both male and female plants to encourage cross-pollination and improve crop yields.

140
Q

What role does timing play in promoting successful cross-pollination?

A

Synchronizing flowering times among different plants ensures that when one plant releases pollen, another plant’s stigma is ready to receive it, facilitating effective pollination.

141
Q

What is self-incompatibility in plants?

A

Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism that prevents fertilization by inhibiting the growth of pollen from the same plant or genetically similar plants.

142
Q

Why is self-incompatibility important for plant reproduction?

A

Self-incompatibility promotes cross-pollination, enhancing genetic diversity and vigor within a species by ensuring that offspring are produced from genetically distinct parents.

143
Q

What is self-pollination?

A

Self-pollination occurs when pollen from the same flower fertilizes its own ovules, leading to offspring that are genetically similar to the parent.

144
Q

How does self-pollination lead to inbreeding?

A

Self-pollination increases the likelihood of mating between closely related individuals, resulting in inbreeding and reduced genetic diversity.

145
Q

What are the negative effects of inbreeding on plant populations?

A

Inbreeding can lead to decreased vigor, increased susceptibility to diseases, and reduced adaptability to environmental changes.

146
Q

What are the two main types of self-incompatibility mechanisms?

A

The two main types are gametophytic self-incompatibility (GSI) and sporophytic self-incompatibility (SSI).

147
Q

How does gametophytic self-incompatibility work?

A

In GSI, the pollen’s genotype determines its compatibility with the stigma; if they share a specific incompatibility allele, fertilization is prevented.

148
Q

How does sporophytic self-incompatibility function?

A

In SSI, the incompatibility is determined by the genotype of the parent plant; pollen from a plant with the same incompatibility alleles as the stigma cannot fertilize the ovules.

149
Q

How does self-incompatibility contribute to genetic variation?

A

By preventing self-fertilization, self-incompatibility encourages cross-fertilization between different individuals, leading to greater genetic diversity among offspring.

150
Q

Why is genetic diversity crucial for plant populations?

A

Genetic diversity enhances resilience against pests, diseases, and environmental changes, improving survival and reproductive success.

151
Q

Can you name some examples of self-incompatible plants?

A

Examples include many species of fruit trees such as apples, cherries, and almonds, which require cross-pollination for successful fruit set.

152
Q

How do farmers manage self-incompatibility in crops?

A

Farmers often plant compatible varieties or maintain diverse populations to ensure adequate cross-pollination and maximize yields.

153
Q

What role does self-incompatibility play in conservation efforts?

A

Understanding self-incompatibility mechanisms is essential for conserving plant species and maintaining genetic diversity in natural populations.

154
Q

How can knowledge of self-incompatibility inform breeding programs?

A

Breeding programs can utilize self-incompatibility mechanisms to select for diverse genetic backgrounds, enhancing crop resilience and productivity.

155
Q

What challenges do self-incompatible plants face in fragmented habitats?

A

In fragmented habitats, reduced population sizes may limit opportunities for cross-pollination, potentially leading to decreased genetic diversity over time.

156
Q

What is seed dispersal?

A

Seed dispersal is the movement of seeds away from the parent plant to reduce competition and increase the chances of successful germination.

157
Q

How does seed dispersal differ from pollination?

A

Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part, while seed dispersal involves the movement of mature seeds away from the parent plant.

158
Q

What are some common methods of seed dispersal?

A

Common methods include wind dispersal, water dispersal, animal ingestion and excretion, and mechanical means (e.g., bursting fruits).

159
Q

How do wind-dispersed seeds typically appear?

A

Wind-dispersed seeds are often lightweight and may have structures like wings or tufts to aid in airborne travel.

160
Q

How do animals contribute to seed dispersal?

A

Animals can eat fruits containing seeds and later excrete them in new locations, or seeds may attach to their fur and be transported elsewhere.

161
Q

What triggers seed germination?

A

Seed germination is triggered by favorable conditions such as adequate water, oxygen, and optimal temperature.

162
Q

What happens during the imbibition phase of germination?

A

During imbibition, the seed absorbs water, causing it to swell and activate metabolic processes necessary for growth.

163
Q

What role do enzymes play in germination?

A

Enzymes break down stored food reserves within the seed, providing nutrients for the growing embryo.

164
Q

What are the first structures to emerge during germination?

A

The primary root (radicle) emerges first, followed by the shoot that develops into the stem and leaves.

165
Q

What is contained within a seed that supports embryo development?

A

Seeds contain an embryo (the young plant) along with stored food reserves (endosperm or cotyledons) that nourish the embryo during early growth.

166
Q

How do cotyledons function during germination?

A

Cotyledons absorb nutrients from stored food reserves in the seed until true leaves develop and photosynthesis begins.

167
Q

What is endosperm, and what role does it play in seed development?

A

Endosperm is a tissue that provides essential nutrients to the developing embryo until it can produce its own food through photosynthesis.

168
Q

Why is seed dispersal important for plant species?

A

Seed dispersal reduces competition among seedlings, allows colonization of new areas, and enhances genetic diversity within populations.

169
Q

How does dormancy benefit seeds before germination?

A

Dormancy allows seeds to remain inactive until conditions are favorable for germination, ensuring successful establishment of new plants.

170
Q

What environmental factors influence successful germination?

A

Factors such as moisture, temperature, light exposure, and soil quality significantly affect the likelihood of successful seed germination and subsequent growth

171
Q

How do human activities impact seed dispersal?

A

Human activities such as agriculture, landscaping, and habitat destruction can alter natural dispersal mechanisms and affect plant population dynamics.

172
Q

What is the role of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) in puberty?

A

GnRH is released by the hypothalamus and triggers the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary gland, initiating puberty.

173
Q

At what stage of development does the secretion of GnRH begin to increase?

A

The secretion of GnRH begins to increase during childhood, leading to the onset of puberty.

174
Q

How does increased GnRH release affect LH and FSH levels?

A

Increased pulsatile release of GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to secrete higher levels of LH and FSH.

175
Q

What are the functions of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)?

A

LH stimulates testosterone production in males and ovulation in females, while FSH promotes sperm production in males and follicle development in females.

176
Q

What effect do increased levels of sex hormones have during puberty?

A

Increased sex hormone production leads to physical changes associated with puberty, such as breast development in females and increased muscle mass in males.

177
Q

What are some examples of steroid sex hormones produced during puberty?

A

Key steroid sex hormones include estrogen and progesterone in females, and testosterone in males.

178
Q

Why is the pulsatile nature of GnRH secretion important?

A

Pulsatile secretion is crucial for maintaining the responsiveness of the pituitary gland to GnRH, ensuring proper release of LH and FSH.

179
Q

What happens if GnRH is secreted continuously rather than in pulses?

A

Continuous secretion of GnRH can suppress gonadotropin release, disrupting normal reproductive function.

180
Q

What role does kisspeptin play in the onset of puberty?

A

Kisspeptin stimulates GnRH neurons, enhancing their activity and contributing to the initiation of pulsatile GnRH release.

181
Q

How does kisspeptin interact with GnRH neurons?

A

Kisspeptin acts as a potent secretagogue for GnRH, facilitating its release from hypothalamic neurons.

182
Q

What physical changes occur during puberty due to increased sex hormones?

A

Physical changes include growth spurts, development of secondary sexual characteristics, and maturation of reproductive organs.

183
Q

How does pubertal timing vary among individuals?

A

The timing of puberty can vary widely due to genetic, environmental, and nutritional factors, impacting health outcomes later in life.

184
Q

What is the hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis?

A

The HPG axis is a complex hormonal system that regulates reproductive functions through interactions between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads.

185
Q

Why is understanding hormonal regulation during puberty important?

A

Understanding these mechanisms can help address pubertal disorders and inform treatments related to reproductive health.

186
Q

What is gametogenesis?

A

Gametogenesis is the process by which diploid precursor cells undergo meiosis to produce haploid gametes, specifically sperm in males (spermatogenesis) and eggs in females (oogenesis).

187
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm formation that occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.

188
Q

What is the starting cell type for spermatogenesis?

A

The process begins with diploid germ cells called spermatogonia.

189
Q

What occurs during the mitotic phase of spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatogonia undergo mitosis to increase their numbers, producing more diploid primary spermatocytes.

190
Q

What happens during meiosis I in spermatogenesis?

A

Each primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis I to produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes.

191
Q

What occurs during meiosis II in spermatogenesis?

A

Each secondary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis II, resulting in a total of four haploid spermatids.

192
Q

What is spermiogenesis?

A

Spermiogenesis is the final stage where spermatids mature into motile spermatozoa, developing tails and shedding excess cytoplasm.

193
Q

How many functional sperm are produced from one primary spermatocyte?

A

One primary spermatocyte produces four functional sperm cells through the process of spermatogenesis.

194
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Oogenesis is the process of egg (ovum) formation that occurs in the ovaries.

195
Q

What is the starting cell type for oogenesis?

A

The process begins with diploid germ cells called oogonia.

196
Q

What happens during the mitotic phase of oogenesis?

A

Oogonia undergo mitosis to produce primary oocytes, which are arrested in prophase I of meiosis until puberty.

197
Q

How does oogenesis differ from spermatogenesis in terms of meiotic division?

A

In oogenesis, only one primary oocyte completes meiosis I, producing one haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller polar body.

198
Q

What happens to the secondary oocyte during ovulation?

A

The secondary oocyte begins meiosis II but arrests at metaphase II and will only complete this division if fertilization occurs.

199
Q

How many functional ova are produced from one primary oocyte?

A

One primary oocyte produces one functional ovum and typically two or three polar bodies that degenerate.

200
Q

How do the numbers of gametes produced differ between males and females?

A

Spermatogenesis produces four sperm from each primary spermatocyte, while oogenesis typically produces one ovum from each primary oocyte.

201
Q

How does cytoplasmic division differ between sperm and egg production?

A

In spermatogenesis, cytoplasmic division is equal, resulting in four sperm of equal size; in oogenesis, it is unequal, leading to one large ovum and smaller polar bodies.

202
Q

When does oogenesis begin compared to spermatogenesis?

A

Oogenesis begins during fetal development and pauses until puberty, while spermatogenesis starts at puberty and continues throughout life.

203
Q

Why is gametogenesis important for sexual reproduction?

A

Gametogenesis ensures the production of haploid gametes necessary for fertilization, allowing for genetic diversity through sexual reproduction.

204
Q

How do hormonal changes influence gametogenesis?

A

Hormones such as GnRH, LH, and FSH regulate both spermatogenesis and oogenesis by stimulating the development and maturation of gametes.

205
Q

What role do polar bodies play in oogenesis?

A

Polar bodies are byproducts of meiosis that contain genetic material but little cytoplasm; they degenerate and do not contribute to fertilization or development.

206
Q

What is polyspermy?

A

Polyspermy is the fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm, which can lead to lethal chromosomal abnormalities and failed embryo development.

207
Q

Why is it important to prevent polyspermy during fertilization?

A

Preventing polyspermy ensures that the resulting zygote has the correct diploid number of chromosomes, essential for normal development.

208
Q

What is the acrosome reaction?

A

The acrosome reaction is a process where the sperm releases digestive enzymes from its acrosome to penetrate the zona pellucida, the outer layer surrounding the egg.

209
Q

How does the acrosome reaction facilitate fertilization?

A

The enzymes released during the acrosome reaction soften the zona pellucida, allowing the sperm to push through and reach the egg membrane.

210
Q

What happens after a sperm successfully penetrates the zona pellucida?

A

Once a sperm penetrates, it fuses with the egg’s plasma membrane, allowing its nucleus and centriole to enter the egg.

211
Q

What is the cortical reaction?

A

The cortical reaction is a process initiated after a sperm successfully penetrates an egg, preventing additional sperm from entering.

212
Q

How does the cortical reaction occur?

A

Cortical granules within the egg release enzymes into the zona pellucida via exocytosis, modifying its structure to prevent further sperm entry.

213
Q

What are some effects of the cortical reaction on the zona pellucida?

A

The cortical reaction thickens and hardens the zona pellucida, destroys sperm binding sites, and creates a barrier that prevents additional sperm from penetrating.

214
Q

What triggers the cortical reaction?

A

The cortical reaction is triggered by an increase in intracellular calcium ions following sperm binding to the egg.

215
Q

What are the two main mechanisms that prevent polyspermy?

A

The two main mechanisms are the fast block (membrane depolarization) and slow block (cortical reaction) to polyspermy.

216
Q

How does the fast block to polyspermy work?

A

The fast block involves a rapid depolarization of the egg’s plasma membrane after sperm entry, temporarily preventing additional sperm from fusing.

217
Q

How does the slow block to polyspermy differ from the fast block?

A

The slow block (cortical reaction) establishes a permanent barrier by modifying the zona pellucida, ensuring no further sperm can penetrate after fertilization.

218
Q

What are potential consequences of polyspermy for embryo development?

A

Polyspermy can lead to abnormal chromosome numbers, resulting in developmental failures or miscarriage.

219
Q

How do these mechanisms contribute to reproductive success?

A

By ensuring that only one sperm fertilizes an egg, these mechanisms maintain genetic integrity and promote healthy embryo development.

220
Q

Why is understanding polyspermy prevention important in reproductive biology?

A

Understanding these mechanisms can aid in addressing fertility issues and improving techniques in assisted reproductive technologies such as IVF.

221
Q

What is a blastocyst?

A

A blastocyst is an early-stage embryo that forms approximately 5 to 6 days after fertilization, consisting of an outer layer of cells, a fluid-filled cavity, and an inner cell mass.

222
Q

What are the key components of a blastocyst?

A

The blastocyst consists of three main parts: the trophoblast (outer layer), the blastocoel (fluid-filled cavity), and the inner cell mass (ICM).

223
Q

What is the first stage of embryonic development after fertilization?

A

The first stage is fertilization, where a sperm cell fuses with an egg to form a zygote.

224
Q

What occurs during cleavage?

A

Cleavage is a series of rapid mitotic divisions that transform the zygote into a multicellular structure without significant growth, leading to stages such as the 2-cell, 4-cell, and 8-cell stages.

225
Q

What is the morula stage?

A

The morula is a solid ball of cells formed approximately 3-4 days post-fertilization, consisting of around 16-32 cells.

226
Q

How does the morula develop into a blastocyst?

A

By day 5 or 6 post-fertilization, the morula develops a fluid-filled cavity (blastocoel) and differentiates into a blastocyst.

227
Q

What is implantation?

A

Implantation is the process by which the blastocyst attaches to and embeds itself into the endometrium (the uterine lining).

228
Q

When does implantation typically occur?

A

Implantation generally occurs about 6-10 days after fertilization when the blastocyst has developed sufficiently.

229
Q

What are the three main stages of implantation?

A

The three stages are apposition (contact with the endometrium), adhesion (attachment to the endometrial epithelium), and invasion (penetration into the endometrial tissue).

230
Q

What happens during apposition?

A

During apposition, the blastocyst makes initial contact with the receptive endometrial surface.

231
Q

How do trophoblast cells contribute to adhesion?

A

Trophoblast cells from the blastocyst attach to specific receptors on the endometrial epithelium, facilitating adhesion.

232
Q

What occurs during invasion?

A

Invasion involves trophoblast cells proliferating and invading through the endometrial epithelial basement membrane into the underlying stroma.

233
Q

Why is successful implantation crucial for pregnancy?

A

Successful implantation establishes a connection between the developing embryo and maternal tissues, allowing for nutrient exchange and support for further development.

234
Q

What factors influence successful implantation?

A

Factors include embryo viability, uterine receptivity (the “window of implantation”), and hormonal support from progesterone.

235
Q

What role do hormones play in preparing the endometrium for implantation?

A

Hormones such as estrogen and progesterone prepare the endometrium by promoting changes that enhance its receptivity to the implanting blastocyst.

236
Q

How does understanding blastocyst development and implantation aid reproductive health?

A

Knowledge of these processes can inform assisted reproductive technologies (ART) like IVF and improve outcomes for individuals seeking fertility treatments.

237
Q

What is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

A

hCG is a hormone produced by trophoblast cells of the developing placenta shortly after fertilization, playing a crucial role in maintaining pregnancy.

238
Q

When does hCG start to be produced during pregnancy?

A

hCG production begins around the time of implantation, approximately 6-10 days after fertilization.

239
Q

What is the primary function of hCG in early pregnancy?

A

The primary function of hCG is to maintain the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to support the uterine lining and sustain the developing embryo.

240
Q

How is hCG detected in pregnancy tests?

A

Pregnancy tests detect hCG in urine or blood, indicating whether a woman is pregnant.

241
Q

Why is hCG a reliable marker for pregnancy?

A

hCG is produced exclusively by placental tissue, making its presence in urine or blood a strong indicator of pregnancy.

242
Q

What role do monoclonal antibodies play in pregnancy tests?

A

Monoclonal antibodies are used in pregnancy tests to specifically bind to hCG, facilitating its detection.

243
Q

How does a typical home pregnancy test work?

A

The test involves soaking a wick in urine; if hCG is present, it binds to mobile monoclonal antibodies, forming a complex that produces a visible color change.

244
Q

Describe the steps involved in a typical pregnancy test.

A
  • Urine Sample: The wick absorbs urine containing hCG.
  • Reaction Site: Mobile monoclonal antibodies bound to colored beads bind to any hCG present.
  • Test Site: The hCG-antibody complex moves up the test strip and binds to immobilized antibodies, causing a color change.
  • Control Site: Additional immobilized antibodies ensure the test is functioning correctly, producing a second color change regardless of pregnancy status.
245
Q

What does a positive result on a pregnancy test indicate?

A

A positive result indicates the presence of hCG, suggesting that the woman is likely pregnant.

246
Q

What should be done if a pregnancy test yields a negative result but pregnancy is suspected?

A

If pregnancy is suspected despite a negative result, it is advisable to wait a few days and retest or consult a healthcare provider for further evaluation.

247
Q

How do hCG levels change during early pregnancy?

A

hCG levels rise rapidly during the first trimester, peaking around weeks 10-11 before gradually declining but remaining elevated compared to non-pregnant levels.

248
Q

Why might low or decreasing levels of hCG be concerning during early pregnancy?

A

Low or decreasing levels may indicate potential issues such as an ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage, warranting medical attention.

249
Q

Why is understanding hCG and its detection important in reproductive health?

A

Knowledge of hCG and its role in early pregnancy helps improve diagnostic accuracy and informs healthcare decisions regarding maternal and fetal health.

250
Q

What is the placenta?

A

The placenta is a vital organ that develops in the uterus during pregnancy, providing nutrients and oxygen to the fetus while removing waste products.

251
Q

How does the placenta form?

A

The placenta begins to develop from the outer layer of the blastocyst after implantation into the uterine wall, forming structures called chorionic villi.

252
Q

What is the significance of chorionic villi in the placenta?

A

Chorionic villi increase the surface area for exchange between maternal and fetal blood, facilitating nutrient and gas exchange.

253
Q

How does the large surface area of placental villi benefit fetal development?

A

The large surface area allows for efficient transfer of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between maternal and fetal blood without direct mixing.

254
Q

What types of substances are exchanged through the placenta?

A

The placenta enables the exchange of oxygen and nutrients from mother to fetus and carbon dioxide and waste products from fetus to mother.

255
Q

How do gases and nutrients cross the placental barrier?

A

Gases and nutrients diffuse across the thin membranes of chorionic villi, allowing for efficient maternal-fetal exchange.

256
Q

How does the placenta support fetal growth?

A

The placenta provides essential nutrients, hormones, and oxygen necessary for fetal growth and development throughout pregnancy.

257
Q

What hormones does the placenta produce, and what are their roles?

A

The placenta produces hormones such as progesterone, estrogen, and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which help maintain pregnancy and support fetal development.

258
Q

How does the placenta allow for longer gestation periods in mammals?

A

The presence of a functional placenta allows the fetus to be retained in the uterus for a longer duration, enabling more advanced development before birth compared to non-placental mammals.

259
Q

What are some potential complications associated with placental abnormalities?

A

Abnormalities in placental development or function can lead to issues such as miscarriage, preterm birth, or fetal growth restriction.

260
Q

How does the placenta protect the fetus?

A

The placenta acts as a barrier, filtering out harmful substances while allowing essential nutrients to pass through from maternal blood.

261
Q

In what ways can maternal lifestyle affect fetal development via the placenta?

A

Maternal factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, or drug use can adversely affect placental function and fetal health by reducing oxygen supply or introducing toxins.

262
Q

Why is understanding placental function important in reproductive health?

A

Knowledge of placental roles is crucial for addressing complications during pregnancy and ensuring optimal maternal-fetal health outcomes.

263
Q

What is the primary hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy?

A

Progesterone is the key hormone that maintains pregnancy, initially secreted by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta.

264
Q

How does progesterone support pregnancy?

A

Progesterone thickens the uterine lining, prevents uterine contractions, and maintains a suitable environment for the developing embryo.

265
Q

What is the role of the corpus luteum in early pregnancy?

A

The corpus luteum produces progesterone after ovulation and continues to do so if fertilization occurs, supporting early pregnancy until the placenta takes over.

266
Q

How long does the corpus luteum typically produce progesterone?

A

The corpus luteum produces progesterone for about 10 weeks during early pregnancy.

267
Q

When does the placenta begin to take over progesterone production?

A

The placenta begins to take over progesterone production around 10 weeks of gestation.

268
Q

What happens to progesterone levels as pregnancy progresses?

A

Progesterone levels rise throughout pregnancy, peaking in the third trimester to support fetal development and maintain uterine quiescence.

269
Q

What triggers changes during childbirth?

A

A decrease in progesterone levels triggers changes that lead to childbirth, allowing for increased uterine contractions.

270
Q

How does decreased progesterone influence oxytocin secretion?

A

As progesterone decreases, it removes inhibition on oxytocin release, leading to increased levels of oxytocin that stimulate uterine contractions.

271
Q

What is the role of oxytocin during childbirth?

A

Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, facilitating labor and delivery while also promoting maternal bonding with the newborn.

272
Q

How does positive feedback work in the context of childbirth?

A

Stretching of the uterine walls from fetal movement triggers oxytocin release, which increases contractions, causing further stretching and more oxytocin release until birth occurs.

273
Q

What other hormones play a role in childbirth alongside oxytocin?

A

Estrogen levels increase as labor approaches, enhancing uterine muscle sensitivity to oxytocin and promoting contractions.

274
Q

How do prostaglandins contribute to childbirth?

A

Prostaglandins are released by the fetus during contractions and help soften and dilate the cervix, facilitating labor progression.

275
Q

Why is understanding hormonal control important in reproductive health?

A

Understanding hormonal regulation helps manage complications during pregnancy and childbirth and informs interventions that can improve maternal and fetal health outcomes.

276
Q

How can disruptions in hormonal balance affect pregnancy?

A

Disruptions in hormone levels can lead to complications such as preterm labor or miscarriage, highlighting the importance of hormonal monitoring throughout pregnancy.

277
Q

What is the significance of hormonal changes from pregnancy to childbirth?

A

Hormonal changes are crucial for transitioning from maintaining a stable environment for fetal development to initiating labor and delivery, ensuring a safe birth process.

278
Q

What is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

A

HRT is a treatment used to relieve symptoms of menopause by replacing hormones that are at lower levels, primarily estrogen and progesterone.

279
Q

What was the initial belief regarding HRT and coronary heart disease (CHD)?

A

Early epidemiological studies suggested that HRT was associated with a reduced incidence of CHD, leading to the belief in a cause-and-effect relationship.

280
Q

What did later randomized controlled trials reveal about HRT and CHD?

A

Later studies indicated that HRT may actually lead to a small increase in the risk of CHD, contradicting earlier beliefs.

281
Q

Why is the correlation between HRT and decreased incidence of CHD not considered a cause-and-effect relationship?

A

The correlation was influenced by factors such as higher socioeconomic status in HRT patients, which is associated with a lower risk of CHD independently of hormone therapy.

282
Q

What findings did randomized controlled trials provide regarding HRT and cardiovascular outcomes?

A

Many trials showed that HRT does not significantly reduce cardiovascular events compared to placebo and may increase risks for certain women.

283
Q

How did socioeconomic factors influence the perceived benefits of HRT?

A

Women who opted for HRT often had higher socioeconomic status, which correlated with better overall health and lower CHD risk, skewing the perceived benefits of HRT.

284
Q

What risks are associated with hormone replacement therapy?

A

HRT has been linked to increased risks of heart disease, stroke, blood clots, and certain types of cancer, particularly when initiated later in life.

285
Q

What is the “timing hypothesis” in relation to HRT?

A

The timing hypothesis suggests that the effects of HRT on cardiovascular health depend on when it is started relative to menopause; starting earlier may be safer than starting later.

286
Q

What do current guidelines suggest regarding the use of HRT for women under 60?

A

Current guidelines indicate that HRT can be safely used in women under 60 or within 10 years post-menopause without significantly increasing cardiovascular risks.

287
Q

How should healthcare providers approach counseling women considering HRT?

A

Providers should engage in shared decision-making, discussing individual risks and benefits based on health history and current cardiovascular risk factors.

288
Q

Why is understanding the relationship between HRT and CHD important for women’s health?

A

Understanding this relationship helps inform treatment decisions for menopausal symptoms while considering potential cardiovascular risks, ultimately improving women’s health outcomes.

289
Q

What is essential for managing underlying cardiovascular risk factors in women considering HRT?

A

It is crucial to optimally manage conditions such as hypertension, high cholesterol, and diabetes to mitigate any potential risks associated with hormone therapy.

Biology HL - IB (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions