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PHYSIOLOGY > Repro - Batch 2019 > Flashcards

Repro - Batch 2019 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A neonate can develop rickets with this vitamin deficiency:
    a. Vitamin K deficiency
    b. Vitamin E deficiency
    c. Vitamin D deficiency
    d. Vitamin C deficiency
A

C

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2
Q
  1. A premature infant will have difficulty exerting its ‘First breath’ because of:
    a. A small functional residual capacity
    b. A non-compliant chest wall
    c. A normal ventilation-perfusion ratio
    d. Non-functioning respiratory muscles
A

A

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3
Q
  1. A term newborn can exert a ‘First breath’ opening pressure as high as:
    a. 50 cm H20
    b. 60 cm H20
    c. 40cmH20
    d. 20cmH20
A

B

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4
Q
  1. Blood pressure during the first day after birth:
    a. 100/50
    b. 80/60
    c. 70/50
    d. 90/70
A

C

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5
Q
  1. If a mother is an untreated diabetic, what might we expect in the newborn after birth?
    a. Glucose level will fall much lower than normal
    b. They have more insulin
    c. They have more glucose in the cells
    d. AandB
    e. A,B,C
A

D

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6
Q
  1. If before pregnancy a woman had had her thyroid gland removed, the child might be born with temporary hypothyroidism
    a. False b. True
A

A

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7
Q
  1. In the fetal circulation, 55% of all the blood goes through the placenta, leaving only 45% to pass through all the tissues of the fetus
    a. False b. True
A

B

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8
Q
  1. In the fetal stage, gas and metabolic exchange occurs in the:
    a. Lungs
    b. Placenta
    c. Kidney
    d. Liver
A

B

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9
Q
  1. Infant’s blood glucose fall rapidly at birth because:
    a. They are no longer receiving glucose from their mother
    b. They do not have a good liver for gluconeogenesis
    c. Stress hypoglycemia due to birth process
    d. All of the above
    e. AandBonly
A

E

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10
Q
  1. Neonates are predisposed to acidosis due to:
    a. Increased metabolic rate
    b. Immaturity of the kidney
    c. Marked fluid turnover
    d. A and B only
    e. A, B, C
A

E

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11
Q
  1. Physiologic jaundice usually presents in the first week after birth because of the following except:
    a. Maternal liver is no longer present for bilirubin excretion
    b. Destruction of red blood cells from maternal antibodies
    c. High levels of unconjugated bilirubin
    d. Liver is functioning poorly
A

B

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12
Q
  1. Prenatal storage in the fetal life of at least small amounts of this vitamin derived from the mother is helpful in preventing hemorrhage:
    a. Vitamin D
    b. Vitamin B12 and folic acid
    c. Vitamin K
    d. Vitamin E
    e. Vitamin C
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Red blood cells form in the yolk sac at what week of gestation?
    a. 3rd week
    b. 4th week
    c. 2nd week
    d. 1st week
A

C

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14
Q
  1. Respiratory distress syndrome can occur in:
    a. 60-80% of babies less than 28 weeks of life
    b. 5% of infants of diabetic mothers
    c. 20% of term babies
    d. AandB
    e. A,B,C
A

D

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15
Q
  1. Reversal of blood flow after birth leads to closure and fibrosis of this vessel:
    a. Ductus Venosus
    b. Ductus Arteriosus
    c. Foramen Ovale
A

B

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16
Q
  1. The blood vessel connecting the aorta to the pulmonary artery to bypass the fetal pulmonary circulation:
    a. Ductus arteriosus
    b. Foramen ovale
    c. Ductus venosus
    d. Umbilical arteries e. Umbilical veins
A

A

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17
Q
  1. The eyes are sensitive to light by the:
    a. 16th week of gestation
    b. 20th week of gestation
    c. 24th week of gestation
    d. 28th week of gestation
A

D

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18
Q
  1. The following changes in vascular pressures cause the foramen ovale to close:
    a. Decrease in aortic pressure and increase in pulmonary arterial pressure
    b. Low right atrial pressure and high left atrial pressure
    c. Increase in aortic pressure and decrease in pulmonary arterial pressure
    d. High right atrial pressure and low left atrial pressure
A

B

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19
Q
  1. The human heart begins beating during the ______ week after fertilization, contracting at a rate of about 65 beats/min.
    a. 2nd week
    b. 6th week
    c. 4th week
    d. 8th week
A

C

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20
Q
  1. The newborn’s respiration (first breath) will depend on the following:
    a. Changes in temperature, fall in pO2, rise in pCO2
    b. Changes in temperature, rise in pO2, fall in pCO2
    c. Positive pressure ventilation
    d. Changes in temperature, fall in pO2, fall in PCO2
    e. Changes in temperature, rise in pO2, rise in pCO2
A

A

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21
Q
  1. The primary changes in the circulation at birth are:
    a. Increase in pulmonary resistance, increase in systemic resistance
    b. Decrease in pulmonary resistance, increase in systemic resistance
    c. Increase in pulmonary resistance, decrease in systemic resistance
    d. Decrease in pulmonary resistance, decrease in systemic resistance
A

B

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22
Q
  1. The reason for increased aortic pressure at birth:
    a. Removal of placenta
    b. Closure of ducts
    c. Lung expansion
    d. Increased pulmonary blood flow
A

A

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23
Q
  1. The renal control systems for regulating extracellular fluid volume and electrolyte balance, especially acid-base balance, are almost nonexistent until late fetal life and do not reach full development until few months after birth.
    a. True b. False
A

A

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24
Q
  1. True about the development of the gastrointestinal tract:
    a. Gastrointestinal function approaches that of the normal neonate during the last 2 to 3
    months of pregnancy.
    b. Meconium is composed partly of residue from swallowed amniotic fluid and other excretory
    products from the gastrointestinal mucosa and glands.
    c. Meconium passage is normal in response to hypoxia.
    d. All of the above
    e. AandBonly
A

D

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is immediately due to onset of ventilation in the newborn?
    a. Closure of foramen ovale
    b. Increased left atrial pressure
    c. Closure of ductus arteriosus
    d. Decreased right ventricular pressure
A

D

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26
Q
  1. During the first few weeks of pregnancy, the primary producer of progesterone and estrogen is:
    a. Corpus luteum
    b. Granulosa cells of the ovary
    c. Placenta
    d. Fetal and maternal adrenal glands
A

A

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27
Q
  1. Polyspermy is prevented by:
    a. Cortical reaction
    b. Acrosomal reaction
    c. Selective inhibition d. Sperm incapacitation
A

A

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28
Q
  1. This hormone pattern is thought to be one of the triggers for the initiation of parturition:
    a. Increase in LH relative to FSH
    b. Increase in progesterone relative to Hcg
    c. Increase in estrogen relative to progesterone
    d. Decrease in LH relative to prostaglandins Incorrect
A

C

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29
Q
  1. An exaggerated maternal response to human sommato-mammotropin can give rise to:
    a. Fetal macrosomia
    b. Gestational thyrotoxicosis
    c. Placenta percreta
    d. Microcephaly
A

A

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30
Q
  1. True of placental gas exchange:
    a. Carbon dioxide pressure difference is only around 2-3mmHg
    b. Fetal blood has relatively low hemoglobin levels
    c. Fetal hemoglobin has low affinity to oxygen
A

A

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31
Q
  1. Oxygen is exchanged in the placenta primarily through:
    a. Calcium gated channels
    b. Active transport
    c. Passive diffusion
    d. Facilitated diffusion
A

C

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32
Q
  1. To prevent neural tube defects, pregnant women are advised to supplement with:
    a. Calcium
    b. Folic acid
    c. Iron
    d. Thiamine
A

B

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33
Q
  1. Maternal oxytocin release can be triggered by
    a. Nipple stimulation
    B. Breast Feeding
    c. Progressive cervical stretch
    d. all of the above
    e. a and b only
A

d

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34
Q
  1. A pregnant woman with severe hypertension, edema and seizures is diagnosed as having:
    a. hypertensive emergency
    b. heart failure
    c. ecclampsia
    d. pre-ecclampsia
A

c

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35
Q
  1. Corpus luteum degeneration is prevented by:
    a. Estrogen
    b. hCG
    c. Lutein cells
    d. LH
A

B

36
Q
  1. The newly implanted blastocyst gets its nutrition from:
    a. Trophoblastic invasion
    b. Cervical discharge
    c. Mature placenta
    d. All of the above
A

a

37
Q
  1. The most common site where fertilization occurs is the:
    a. Posterior uterus
    b. Ampulla of fallopian tube
    c. fimbriae
    d. cervix
A

b

38
Q
  1. Abnormal sites of implantation include/s:
    a. Fallopian tube
    b. Abdominal cavity
    c. Intestinal mesentery
    d. all of the above
    e. a and b
A

d

39
Q
  1. Polyhydramnios will likely signify:
    a. Fetal renal agenesis
    b. Hormonal imbalance
    c. Fetal esophageal atresia
    d. Maternal dehydration
A

c

40
Q
  1. The final composition of breast milk is influenced by which hormone/s?
    a. Growth hormone b. Insulin
    c. parathyroid hormone
    d. all of the above
A

d

41
Q
  1. True of amniotic fluid:
    a. Largely composed of fetal urine
    b. Turn over time of around 3 hours
    c. can be used to screen for genetic defects
    d. all of the above
A

d

42
Q
  1. Labor pain comes from:
    a. Uterine hypoxia
    b. Cervical and vaginal dilatation
    c. perineal tears
    d. all of the above
A

d

43
Q
  1. Premature placental detachment is termed:
    a. Placenta previa
    b. Abruptio placenta
    c. low-lying placenta
    d. placenta increta
A

b

44
Q
  1. The following are renal changes during pregnancy, EXCEPT:
    a. Water retention
    b. Increased number of nephrons
    c. Increased GFR
    d. Increased sodium reabsorption
A

b

45
Q
  1. The hormone/s responsible for relaxing the pelvic ligaments:
    a. Relaxin
    b. Estrogen
    c. hCG
    d. All of the above
    e. A and B only
A

e

46
Q
  1. Regular breastfeeding can cause temporary infertility through this mechanism:
    a. Oxytocin keeps the uterus contracted thus preventing sperm entry
    b. Prolactin inhibits GnRH secretion
    c. Breast feeding causes maternal cortisol release that inhibits ovulation
    d. None of the above
A

b

47
Q
  1. This hormone is mainly responsible for the development of the alveolar system of the breast:
    a. Prolactin
    b. Oxytocin
    c. Progesterone
    d. Estrogen
A

c

48
Q
  1. To keep the uterus contracted post-parturition, breast feeding causes a reflex release of this hormone:
    a. Prolactin c. Progesterone
    b. Oxytocin d. Estrogen
A

b

49
Q
  1. The highest maternal cardiovascular burden occurs in what age of gestation?
    a. 14 weeks
    b. 28 weeks
    c. 22 weeks
    d. 36 weeks
A

b

50
Q
  1. During the course of pregnancy, the mother experiences:
    a. Increase in minute respiration
    b. Increase in blood volume
    c. Increase in red cell mass
    d. All of the above
A

d

51
Q
  1. The fetal ovaries usually develop at around how many weeks of gestation? a. 18 b.1 c.9 d.6
A

c

52
Q
  1. The chromosomal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome is:
    a. XXY
    b. Monosomy X
    c. Trisomy X
    d. XYY
A

B- monosomy X

  • XXY = Klinefelter’s Syndrome
  • XYY = Jacob’s Syndrome
53
Q
  1. The Mullerian duct system will eventually give rise to the following structures, EXCEPT:
    a. Uterus
    b. Ovaries
    c. Upper vagina
    d. Fallopian tube
A

B - ovaries -
- Indifferent gonad from intermediate mesoderm

*Mullerian duct system will become the upper third of the vagina, uterus fallopian tube etc. If the embryo have a testis producing antimullerian hormone (from Sertoli cells), atrophy of a second set of ducts, the mullerian ducts – the embryo will develop into MALE

54
Q
  1. All of the following are functions of the Sertoli cell, EXCEPT:
    a. Secretes the hormone inhibin
    b. Secretes Androstenedione
    c. Provides nourishment for the developing sperm cells
    d. Maintains the ‘blood-testis’ barrier
A

b

  • Sertoli cells
  • important for the nourishment for developing sperm, maintenance of the blood testis barrier, synthesize antimullerian hormone which causes regression of mullerian duct and secretes the hormone inhibin (FSH stimulates the release of inhibin
55
Q
  1. Spermiogenesis is defined as the process of:
    a. Releasing of acrosomal contents
    b. Forming polar bodies through cell divisions
    c. Transformation from spermatid to spermatozoa
    d. Reduction of chromosome number to haploid
A

c

*D=spermatogenesis

56
Q
  1. True statements regarding the excitement phase of the sexual act, EXCEPT:
    a. Parasympathetic signals predominate
    b. Cerebral cortex integration is mandatory
    c. Erectile tissues get engorged with blood
    d. Penile rigidity is achieved
A

b

57
Q
  1. During the process of ejaculation:
    a. Spinal injury at levels T12-L2 will have no effect on the process
    b. Parasympathetic signals predominate
    c. Seminal vesicle secretion is expelled last
    d. Spermatozoa are already highly motile
A

c

58
Q
  1. The function of Luteinizing hormone in males is the direct stimulation of:
    a. Inhibin production
    b. Sertoli cells
    c. Spermatogenesis
    d. Androgen production
A

d

59
Q
  1. During sperm capacitation:
    a. Inhibitory factors in the sperm are washed off
    b. Cholesterol is withdrawn from the cell membrane
    c. Surface proteins are redistributed
    d. All of the above
A

d

60
Q
  1. Other
    functions of the Luteinizing Hormone in males
    a. Stimulates and maintain the Leydig cells
    b. Stimulates anti mullerian hormone production
    c. Stimulates androgen binding protein release
    d. Prevents testosterone production
A

a

61
Q
  1. The drug Sildenafil facilitates erection by:
    a. Decreasing Nitric Oxide
    b. Inhibiting phosphodiesterase enzyme
    c. Promoting vasocontriction
    d. Promoting muscle spasms
A

b

62
Q
  1. All of the following pubertal events are mediated by dihydrotestosterone (DHT), EXCEPT:
    a. Prostate growth
    b. Male hair patter
    c. Growth spurt
    d. Sebaceous gland activity
A

c

63
Q
  1. All of the following are the effects of testosterone on the male body, EXCEPT:
    a. Increased red cell mass
    b. Increased low density lipoproteins (LDL)
    c. Decreased very low density lipoproteins (VLDL)
    d. Increased muscle mass
A

c

64
Q
  1. The additional function of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin in male embryologic development is:
    a. Degeneration of Wolffian duct
    b. Inhibition of gonadal streak development
    c. Promotion of FSH release by the pituitary
    d. Stimulation of testosterone production
A

d

65
Q
  1. Exogenous anabolic steroids can cause testicular atrophy through this mechanism:
    a. Stimulation of endogenous testosterone production
    b. Stimulation of GnRH release
    c. Inhibition of the pituitary release of LH and FSH
    d. Inhibition of scrotal reflexes
A

c

66
Q
  1. This is a condition when one or both testis fail to descend into the scrotum:
    a. Turner’s syndrome c. Cryptorchidism
    b. Wolffian degeneration d. Testis Abdominis
A

c

67
Q
  1. Orchitis, or inflammation of the testis, can lead to infertility or subfertility by:
    a. Destroying the seminiferous tubules c. All of the above
    b. Disrupting the blood-testis barrier d. None of the above
A

c

68
Q
  1. Function/s of the scrotum:
    a. Temperature regulator of the testis
    b. Prevents testicular trauma through cremasteric reflex
    c. Both of the above
    d. None of the above
A

c

69
Q
  1. Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by:
    a. Coarctation of the aorta
    b. Poorly developed breast
    c. Presence of Nevi
    d. Testicular atrophy
A

d

70
Q
  1. The aromatase enzyme is present in all of the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Theca cells
    b. Adrenal gland
    c. Adipose tissue
    d. Granulosa cells
A

a

71
Q
  1. The Proliferative phase of the uterine cycle corresponds to this phase of the ovarian cycle.
    a. Follicular
    b. Luteal
    c. Estrogenic
    d. Secretory
A

a

72
Q
  1. The two hormones associated with the initiation of ovulation are:
    a. hCG and LH
    b. Progesterone and FSH
    c. Estrogen and progesterone
    d. Estrogen and LH
A

d

73
Q
  1. The first event in male puberty is usually the:
    a. Penile enlargement
    b. Axillary and pubic hair growth
    c. Appearance of breast bud
    d. Growth spurt
A

c

74
Q
  1. A marked increase in FSH is observed in post-menopausal women. This is due to:
    a. Low GnRH levels
    b. A parallel increase in estrogen
    c. Corpus luteum predominance
    d. Loss of negative feedback inhibition to the pituitary
A

d

75
Q
  1. During the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle:
    a. The follicle cells are converted to lutein cells
    b. Estrogen is still the predominant hormone
    c. The uterus responds by entering the proliferative phase
    d. All of the above
A

a

76
Q
  1. Constitutional effect/s of estrogen:
    a. Increase in protein deposition
    b. Increase in fat deposition
    c. Earlier epiphyseal plate closure
    d. All of the above
A

d

77
Q
  1. The female orgasm facilitates fertilization by:
    a. Causing rhythmic uterine contractions
    b. Temporarily closing the cervix
    c. Closing the fimbriae of the fallopian tubes
    d. None of the above
A

a

78
Q
  1. In post-menopausal women, where is estrogen synthesized?
    a. Adipose tissue
    b. Granulosa cells
    c. Adrenal glands
    d. All of the above
    e. A and B only
A

e

79
Q
  1. At birth, the female ova are suspended in which phase of the cell cycle?
    a. Telophase II
    b. Metaphase II
    c. Anaphase I
    d. Prophase I
A

d

80
Q
  1. Upon ovulation, the ovum is suspended in which phase of the cell cycle?
    a. Telophase II
    b. Metaphase II
    c. Anaphase I
    d. Prophase I
A

b

81
Q
  1. True statement regarding the maturation of the ova:
    a. All of the 1-2 million ova present at birth will eventually mature
    b. Additional ova can be reproduced when the first 1-2 million become depleted
    c. The maturing ovum is surrounded by granulosa cells and theca cells
    d. Per menstrual cycle, around 400-500 ova are recruited for maturation
A

C

82
Q
  1. The follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in females:
    a. Inhibits theca cells from pooling cholesterol substrates
    b. Stimulates both granulosa and theca cells
    c. Stimulates the granulosa cells to produce estrogen and inhibin
    d. Stimulates the theca cells to produce androgens
A

C

83
Q
  1. Changes in the female body during puberty, EXCEPT:
    a. Increase in density of vaginal cuboidal epithelium
    b. Increase fat deposition in the breast
    c. Increase in the size of the uterus and ovary
    d. Decrease in osteoclastic activity
A

A

84
Q
  1. A 56 year old chronic alcoholic male presented with gynecomastia, and telangiectasias. The hormone most likely responsible for these findings is:
    a. Progesterone
    b. Testosterone
    c. Estrogen
    d. Prolactin
A

C

85
Q
  1. The following physical observations are associated with ovulation, EXCEPT:
    a. Stringy and more liquid cervical discharge
    b. Thick and opaque cervical mucus
    c. Breast pain / tenderness
    d. Increase in basal body temperature
A

B

PHYSIOLOGY (21 decks)

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