πŸ₯- Renal Test Flashcards

1
Q

Normal BUN level

A

8-21 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Oliguria

A

Decreased amount of urine output, 100-400 mL in 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 ways the kidneys maintain homeostasis

A

Urine formation and waste excretion

Regulatory function (fluid, acid-base balance, electrolytes)

Hormonal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List 3 hormones produced by the kidney

A

Renin

Erythropoietin

Activated vitamin d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Glycosuria

A

Glucose in urine as a result of blood sugar greater than 220 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Kidneys function to maintain balance of

A

Water

Electrolytes

Acid-base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Regulatory intake

A

2,500 mL/day

Metabolic water- 200mL
Food- 700mL
Drink- 1,600mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Regulatory output

A

2,500 mL/day

Feces- 200mL
Expired air- 300mL 
Cutaneous transpiration- 400mL 
Sweat- 100mL 
Urine- 1,500mL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Water balance by the kidneys prevents what

A

Enable the kidneys to control the volume and concentration of urine independently from fluid intake

Prevent dehydration when fluid intake is low

Prevent volume overload when fluid intake is excessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acid base balance - acidosis

A

Kidneys excrete H+ and reabsorb bicarb to INCREASE pH (make less acidic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acid base balance- alkalosis

A

Kidneys reabsorb H+ and excrete bicarb to DECREASE pH (make less alkolodic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes renin to be produced

A

When receptors in the kidneys sense a decrease in blood flow, volume or pressure AND/OR when decreased levels of Na+ in the blood is detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the flow of angiotensin II formation

A

Renin from kidneys + angiotensinogen from liver = angiotensin I

Angiotensin I + angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) from lungs = angiotensin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Angiotensin II

A

Constricts blood vessels, causing increased BP

Stimulates adrenal gland to release aldosterone

Stimulates the hypothalamus to stimulate thirst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aldosterone

A

Causes increased Na+ reabsorption and subsequent water reabsorption in the DCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Activated vitamin d

A
  • vitamin d is obtained from diet and UV radiation
  • vitamin d is converted to calcidiol in the liver
  • calcidol is converted to calcitriol in the kidneys
  • ACTIVATED FORM OF VITAMIN D IS REQUIRED FOR CA+ TO BE ABSORBED IN THE GI TRACT*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which electrolyte has an inverse relationship with Ca+

A

Phosphate

Low Ca+ in renal impairment usually has increased phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many times a day should an average adult void

A

5-6

And doesn’t regularly need to void overnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anuria

A

Total urine output of less than 100 mL in 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Normal BUN/creatinine ratio

A

10:1 - 20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Polyuria

A

Increased urine output ; greater than 2,000 mL in 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Normal range of specific gravity

A

1.005 - 1.030

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Normal pH of urine

A

4.5-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bacteria in urine

A

Should be less than 1,000 colonies/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An increased osmolality can mean what

A

Indicates diabetes mellitus, dehydration, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A decreased osmolality can mean what

A

Indicates renal insufficiency, diabetes insipidus, diuretic use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Composite urine collection

A

Collecting all urine voided for a defined period of time ranging between 2 and 24hrs

*sample should be refrigerated or kept on ice for the duration of collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Urine cytology

A

Used to identify any abnormal cells preset in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Intravenous urography

A

Requires the administration of radiographical dye (contrast) via an IV line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Preprocedure instructions for IV urography

A
  • bowel preparation and NPO approximately 8hrs before
  • may feel brief flushing sensation and a salty taste in mouth during injection of contrast
  • signed informed consent
  • baseline serum creatinine (nephrotoxic)
  • allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Postprocedure instructions for IV urography

A
  • increase fluid intake

- Monitor for changes in urine output, irritation at IV site and delayed signs of reaction to contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cystography and urethrography

A

Contrast is used, guided by a lighted instrument inserted into the bladder (cystogram) or urethra (urethrogram) to assess for abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Voiding cystourethrogram VCUG

A

Performed to determine if vesicoureteral reflux is present

Void after bladder is filled with contrast , if reflux is present urine is backflowing from the bladder into the ureters/kidney increasing risk of developing infections

34
Q

Signs of internal bleeding after a renal biopsy include

A

Flank pain, decreased urine output, decreased BP and other signs of hypovolemia and shock

35
Q

What is the most common complication following a renal biopsy

A

Hematuria

Should resolve within 48-72hrs , notify provider if lasts beyond 72 hrs

36
Q

Lithotomy position

A

a supine position of the body with the legs separated, flexed, and supported in raised stirrups, originally used for lithotomy and later also for childbirth.

37
Q

Cystitis

A

Lower urinary tract , affecting only the bladder

38
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Upper urinary tract , affecting the kidneys

39
Q

Pathophysiology of UTI’s

A

Occurs when bacteria enters the sterile bladder causing inflammation

40
Q

Clinical manifestations of cystitis

A

Bladder irritability or painful urination

Dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, urinate in small volumes

Hematuria and suprapubic pain

41
Q

Clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis

A

Fever, nausea and vomiting, flank pain

42
Q

What 2 drugs are common antibiotics prescribed for UTI

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (bactrim)

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

43
Q

What changes in vital signs should be expected with an UTI

A

Elevated temperature, elevated heart rate and decreased BP - may indicated upper urinary tract and dehydration

44
Q

What signs can indicated UTI from an abdominal examination

A

Suprapubic tenderness - can indicate lower tract infection

Costovertebral tenderness - can indicate upper tract infection

45
Q

What should you educate patients on in regards to phenazopyridine (pyridium) use

A

It turns the urine an orange/red color

46
Q

Urolithiasis

A

Calcification in the urinary system aka kidney stones

Nephrolithiasis - stones in the kidney

Ureterolithiasis - stones in the ureter

47
Q

What population is at greatest risk of developing kidney stones

A

Caucasian males .. in the southeastern United States and summer months

48
Q

What are kidney stones made of

A

80% are made of calcium

Other 20% are made of a combination of cystine, Uric acid and xanthine

49
Q

Clinical manifestations of urolithiasis

A

Severe pain causing distension and obstruction of urine flow. Concomitant nausea and vomiting

50
Q

Upper ureteral stones would cause pain where

A

Referred pain to the flank

51
Q

Lower ureteral stones would cause pain where

A

Lower abdominal, genital pain along with irritative voiding symptoms

52
Q

Hydronephrosis

A

Swelling of the kidneys, occurs when urine flow is blocked causing urine to accumulate in the kidney

53
Q

What type of medication is given to aid in the passage of kidney stones 5mm or less

A

Alpha-adrenergic blockers

Tamsulosin (flomax), doxazosin (cardura) and terazosin (hytrin)

54
Q

What type of diet should be consumed for kidney stone prevention

A

Increase intake of citrate - lemons and lemonade

Decreased intake of oxalate - spinach, rhubarb, chocolate, tea, coffee and nuts

55
Q

Sympathetic vs parasympathetic NS regarding micturition

A

Sympathetic- mediate bladder storage

Parasympathetic- provides motor stimulation to the bladder and mediates bladder construction

56
Q

Urge incontinence

A

Is the involuntary loss of larger amounts of urine accompanied by a strong urge to void overactive bladder

Causes:
Exposure to bladder irritants such as caffeine, artificial sweeteners or nicotine

57
Q

Stress incontinence

A

An involuntary loss of small amounts of urine with activities that increase intraabdominal pressure i.e. Laughing, coughing, lifting, sneezing

Causes:

  • Childbirth which causes stretching and relaxing of pelvic floor muscles, ligaments and urethra
  • smoking, obesity
58
Q

Mixed incontinence

A

A combination of urge and stress incontinence

59
Q

Overflow incontinence

A

Loss of urine in combination with a distended bladder

Causes:
Flaccid/enlarged bladder due to obstruction, spinal injury, stroke, diabetes or neuro

Manifestations:
Frequent urination

60
Q

Functional incontinence

A

The untimely loss of urine when no urinary or neuro cause is involved

Causes:
Inability to get to the toilet or communicate the need to do so

61
Q

Reflex incontinence

A

Loss of urine when the person doesn’t realize the bladder is full and has no urge to void

Causes:
Disorders that affect the nervous impulse for voiding such as MS, brain tumors or stroke

62
Q

What medications are used to help overactive bladder

A

Anticholinergics - calm an overactive bladder

Ex: oxybutynin (ditropan), tolterodine (Detrol), darifenacin (enablex) and trospium (sanctura)

Block nervous stimulation from the parasympathetic nervous system to help relax and control bladder muscle contractions

63
Q

Imipramine (tofranil)

A

Tricyclic antidepressant used to treat mixed urge and stress incontinence; has anticholinergic effect

64
Q

How do anticholinergics work to treat urinary incontinence

A

Block impulses from the parasympathetic nervous system to relax and control the bladder

65
Q

What is the most important risk factor for bladder cancer in the United States

A

Smoking

66
Q

Clinical manifestations of pkd

A
Hypertension 
Hematuria 
Pain in the back, abdomen or flank area 
Headaches 
UTI 
Urinary stones 
Palpable, bilateral enlarged kidneys
67
Q

Would a H/H be increased or decreased with pkd

A

Decreased due to no erythropoietin production

68
Q

Electrolytes and pkd

A

Increased Na, K, Phos

Decreased Ca

69
Q

What is the most common cause of pyelonephritis

A

Bacterium escherchia coli

70
Q

Clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis

A

Signs of infection, which include fever, chills and nausea/vomiting

Back and/or flank pain , costovertebral tenderness and enlarged kidneys

Symptoms include signs of UTI such as frequent and painful urination and hematuria

71
Q

What are the early signs of urosepsis

A
Changes in mental status 
Fever 
Tachycardia 
Tachypnea 
Hypotension 
Oliguria 
Leukopenia
72
Q

Risk factors associated with glomerulonephritis

A
Strep infections
Lupus 
Vasculitis 
Hypertension 
Diabetes
73
Q

Glomerulonephritis

A

Damage to glomeruli causes decreased gfr and increased permeability to larger proteins

74
Q

Clinical manifestations of glomerulonephritis

A
Headache 
Increased BP 
Edema 
Lethargic
Low grade fever 
Proteinuria 
Hematuria 
Oliguria 
Dysuria
75
Q

What is the most common type of renal cancer

A

Renal cell carcinoma

Occurs more often in males 50 to 70, blacks and Alaskan/Indian natives

76
Q

What is the biggest risk factor of developing renal cancer

A

Smoking .. chewing tobacco, cigars, snuff

Others:
Familial association, obesity, hypertension, asbestos, cadmium, gasoline

77
Q

What is the classic triad associated with renal cancer

A

Flank mass
Flank pain
Hematuria

78
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness , image falls in front of the retina

79
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness, image falls behind the retina

80
Q

Cataract

A

Clouding of the eyes crystalline lens

81
Q

Normal serum creatinine level

A

0.5-1.2 mg/dL