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Tests various > 🏩- Integumentary & Respiratory Test > Flashcards

🏩- Integumentary & Respiratory Test Flashcards

1
Q

Uncomplicated skin and soft tissue infection

A

Respond to antibiotic therapy alone or surgical drainage with or without antibiotic therapy

Ex: cellulitis, folliculitis, impetigo, boils/abscess

Caused by staph aureus and strep pyogenes

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2
Q

Complicated skin and soft tissue infections

A

Invasion of deeper tissues and require debridement

Usually cause by polymicrobial

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3
Q

Pathophysiology of non-necrotizing cellulitis

A

Microorganisms find entry through skin breaches

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4
Q

Pathophysiology of herpes

A

Occur on skin, mucous membranes, central nervous system and genital tract

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5
Q

Dermatophytes

A

Aerobic fungi that infect the stratum corneum (top, dead layer of skin) and survive on keratin

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6
Q

Pathophysiology of fungal infections

A
  • superficial cutaneous fungal infections
  • don’t spread beyond the epidermis

Can be found living in soil, on animals and humans. Feed on dead keratin of the skin hair and nails

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7
Q

Potassium hydroxide (KOH) microscopy

A

Scrape skin from area and view under microscope – presence of hyphae confirm diagnosis

(Fungal infection)

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8
Q

Pathophysiology of psoriasis

A

Immune disorder that causes chronic inflammation of the skin characterized by thick, raised red patches covered with silvery flaking scales

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9
Q

Psoriasis and weather

A

Patients do better in warmer climates

UV radiation kills rapidly proliferating skin cells

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10
Q

Psoriasis

A

More skin cells are made than are actually shed

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11
Q

PsA

A

Psoriatic arthritis is a common manifestation of psoriasis

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12
Q

Laceration

A

Break in the skin caused by penetration of a sharp object

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13
Q

Abrasion

A

Occurs as a result of friction and shear from external forces , are usually minor injuries involving only the epidermis

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14
Q

Excoriation

A

A superficial abrasion

Usually seen in disorders that cause pruritus (itching) such as insect bites, scabies, chicken pox

Also used to describe the loss of epithelium in response to prolonged exposure to urine and feces in an individual who is incontinent

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15
Q

Friction blisters

A

Friction is a force that is applied parallel to a surface resulting in rubbing motion

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16
Q

Skin tears

A

Traumatic wounds usually caused by minor trauma that primarily affect older adults

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17
Q

Skin tears

A

Traumatic wounds usually caused by minor trauma that primarily affect older adults

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18
Q

Friction blisters

A

Friction is a force that is applied parallel to a surface resulting in rubbing motion

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19
Q

Excoriation

A

A superficial abrasion

Usually seen in disorders that cause pruritus (itching) such as insect bites, scabies, chicken pox

Also used to describe the loss of epithelium in response to prolonged exposure to urine and feces in an individual who is incontinent

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20
Q

Abrasion

A

Occurs as a result of friction and shear from external forces , are usually minor injuries involving only the epidermis

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21
Q

Laceration

A

Break in the skin caused by penetration of a sharp object

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22
Q

PsA

A

Psoriatic arthritis is a common manifestation of psoriasis

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23
Q

Psoriasis

A

More skin cells are made than are actually shed

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24
Q

Psoriasis and weather

A

Patients do better in warmer climates

UV radiation kills rapidly proliferating skin cells

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25
Q

Pathophysiology of psoriasis

A

Immune disorder that causes chronic inflammation of the skin characterized by thick, raised red patches covered with silvery flaking scales

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26
Q

Potassium hydroxide (KOH) microscopy

A

Scrape skin from area and view under microscope – presence of hyphae confirm diagnosis

(Fungal infection)

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27
Q

Pathophysiology of fungal infections

A
  • superficial cutaneous fungal infections
  • don’t spread beyond the epidermis

Can be found living in soil, on animals and humans. Feed on dead keratin of the skin hair and nails

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28
Q

Dermatophytes

A

Aerobic fungi that infect the stratum corneum (top, dead layer of skin) and survive on keratin

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29
Q

Normal range of pH for respiratory

A

7.35 - 7.45

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30
Q

Normal range of PaCO2

A

35 - 45 mmHg

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31
Q

Normal range of PaO2

A

80 - 100 mmHg

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32
Q

Normal range of HCO3

A

22 - 26 mEq/L

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33
Q

Capnography

A

Continuously monitors the PaCO2 in the airway during inhalation and exhalation and provides a written tracing

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34
Q

Capnometry

A

Color change to blue at end of ET tube

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35
Q

Nasal cannula

A

24-44% FiO2

1-6 L/min

Used in chronic lung disease or long term use

(Low flow o2 delivery)

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36
Q

Simple face mask

A

40-60% FiO2

5-10 L/min

Used short term in emergency or transport

(Low flow o2 delivery)

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37
Q

Partial rebreather mask

A

50-75%

8-10 L/min

Mixes with room air ; bag 1/2-1/3 full of o2

(Low flow o2 delivery)

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38
Q

Non-rebreather mask

A

90% FiO2

10 L/min

Has 2 one way valves; doesn’t mix with room air

(Low flow o2 delivery)

39
Q

Venturi Mask

A

24-60% FiO2

2-15 L/min

Delivers most accurate o2 concentration

(High flow delivery)

40
Q

What is the clinical definition of severe hypoxia

A

PaO2 < 55
SaO2 < 88%

On room air

41
Q

3 types of home o2 therapy

A

Compressed gas in a tank or cylinder

Liquid o2 in a reservoir

O2 concentrator

42
Q

Oxygen concentrator

A

Machine that removes nitrogen from air to increase the amount of O2 in air

Nitrogen keeps alveoli from collapsing; room air is 78% nitrogen

43
Q

A too high cuff pressure on a ET tube can cause what

A

Ischemia

44
Q

Tracheotomy vs tracheostomy

A

Tracheotomy - surgical incision into the trachea for the purpose of establishing an airway

Tracheostomy - the stoma, or opening that results from the procedure of a tracheotomy

45
Q

List 5 possible complications of suctioning

A

Hypoxia

Tissue (mucosal) trauma

Infection

Vagal stimulation

Bronchospasm

46
Q

Pulmonary function test

A

Evaluates pulmonary function by checking:

Lung volume 
Flow rates 
Diffusion capacity 
Gas exchange 
Air resistance 
Distribution of ventilation
47
Q

Name 2 important things not to do before taking a pulmonary function test

A
  1. Don’t eat or smoke EIGHT (8) hrs before the test

2. No bronchodilators 4-6 hrs before the test

48
Q

Thoracentesis

A

Needle is inserted into the pleural space to remove excess fluid/air

49
Q

List 5 parts of chest tube management

A

1 assess for difficulty breathing/effectiveness

2 observe for signs of infection

3 keep drainage system below chest

4 keep tubing kink free

5 don’t strip, milk or clamp chest tube

50
Q

Influenza

A

Spread by droplet or direct contact

Infectious for 7-10 days

Manifestations are severe and come on quickly (fever, sore throat, cough, malaise)

51
Q

Rapid influenza diagnostic tests

A

Identification of an influenza virus infection can be made in less than 30 minutes via nasopharyngeal/throat swab or nasal washings/aspirate

52
Q

Tamiflu

A

Oseltamivir

Is an antiviral used to influenza

53
Q

What is the body’s first compensatory mechanism to decreased O2 delivery

A

Tachypnea - increased respiratory rate and depth

54
Q

What is the body’s second compensatory mechanism for continued impairment of O2 delivery

A

Tachycardia - raise the heart rate

55
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

Decreased pH increased CO2

56
Q

List 3 appropriate nursing actions to take in a patient with influenza

A

Isolation
Administer medications as ordered
Adequate fluid intake

57
Q

Why should influenza cultures be obtained BEFORE administration of antivirals

A

To assess for the presence of bacterial infection before presence is masked by medication administration

58
Q

Why should influenza cultures be obtained BEFORE administration of antivirals

A

To assess for the presence of bacterial infection before presence is masked by medication administration

59
Q

List 3 appropriate nursing actions to take in a patient with influenza

A

Isolation
Administer medications as ordered
Adequate fluid intake

60
Q

Community acquired pneumonia

A

Occurs in individuals who have not been recently hospitalized or are living outside of health-care/long term care facilities

61
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Develops in patients after 48 hours of hospital admission

62
Q

Health care associated pneumonia

A

Onset less than 48 hours after admission in those recently treated (last 30-90 days) by a healthcare agency or living in a nursing home/assisted living

63
Q

Parenchyma

A

Functional lung tissue

64
Q

Clinical manifestations of pneumonia

A

Fever, tachycardia, chills, pleuritic chest pain, fatigue

Severe forms: purulent or blood streaked sputum, dysrhythmias

65
Q

List 4 ways to diagnose pneumonia

A
  1. Elevated WBC (leukocytosis)
  2. ABGs typically reflect a primary respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia (elevated CO2, decreased PaO2 and decreased pH)
  3. Sputum cultures
  4. Imaging
66
Q

4 ways to treat pneumonia

A

Oxygen
Hydration
Bronchodilators
Antibiotics

67
Q

Complications of pneumonia

A 
Necrotizing bacterial pneumonia 
Pulmonary fibrosis 
Acute meningitis 
Bacteremia 
Atelectasis 
Septic shock 
Acute respiratory failure
68
Q

What is empyema

A

A collection of purulent material in the pleural space

A possible complication of pneumonia

69
Q

Pulmonary hygiene

A 
Incentive spirometry
Coughing and deep breathing 
Postural drainage 
Vibration/percussion 
Early mobility

Is done in an effort to mobilize respiratory secretions and allow expectoration. This reduces the incidence of atelectasis and worsening pneumonia in hospitalized patients

70
Q

How should you position patients with pneumonia in one lung

A

Position the patient with the GOOD LUNG DOWN to maximize the ventilation and perfusion of functional alveolar units

71
Q

What is activity grouping

A

In patients with pneumonia approach activities of care with intervals of rest. Fatigue and decreased tissue oxygen delivery limit activity tolerance

72
Q

A TB induration of 5 mm or greater is considered positive in what 4 groups of people

A
  1. HIV infected persons
  2. A person having recent contact with a person with TB
  3. Persons with fibrotic changes on chest X-rays consistent with prior TB
  4. Persons who are immunosuppressive including those with organ transplants
73
Q

An induration of 10 mm or greater is considered positive in what 7 groups of people ?

A
  1. Recent immigrants from high prevalence countries
  2. IV drug abusers
  3. Residents and employees of high-risk settings
  4. Mycobacteriology laboratory personnel
  5. Persons with clinical conditions that place them at high risk
  6. Children younger than 4 years
  7. Infants, children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories
74
Q

Induration

A

Is a raised, hard bump associated with a positive TB result

75
Q

What are the goals of treatment for TB infection

A

1 cure the patient

2 minimize the transmission of M. tuberculosis

76
Q

what is RIPE

A

A 4 drug combination therapy used to treat TB

Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

77
Q

List 4 ways to identify TB as a result of the bodies inflammatory response

A

Unexplained weight loss, night sweats, fever and chills

78
Q

What color sputum is best associated with presence of TB

A

Blood tinged or rusty colored as a result of the destruction of lung parenchyma tissue

79
Q

Directly observed therapy

A

Is in place when trained health-care worker, home health-care nurse, aide or trained individual provides the prescribed TB drugs and watches the patient swallow every dose

80
Q

Allergic rhinitis

A

Categorized as perennial or seasonal and is seen in people with allergies to plant pollen, animal dander or dust

81
Q

Perennially

A

Throughout the year

Associated with chronic rhinitis

82
Q

Nonallergic rhinitis

A

Common cold that doesn’t involve the immune system

83
Q

What is rhinitis

A

Inflammation and irritation of mucous membranes lining the nose

84
Q

What is rhinorrhea

A

Runny nose

Associated with clinical manifestation of rhinitis

85
Q

Diagnosis of rhinitis is based on what

A

History and symptoms

86
Q

What 3 symptoms are used to diagnose acute rhinosinusitis

A

Purulent nasal discharge, nasal obstruction and facial pain-pressure-fullness

87
Q

Primary lesions

A

May emerge as a direct result of an infectious disease process, an allergic reaction or an environmental cause

Examples: birthmarks, freckles, moles, petechiae, vitiligo, warts, eczema, insect bites, blisters, herpes zoster, chicken pox, acne

88
Q

Secondary lesions

A

A transformation of the primary lesion that may be caused by manual disturbance of the site that may develop secondary to itching or picking at the site

Examples: excoriation, fissure, erosion, ulcer, crust, stretch marks, scars

89
Q

Asthma

A

Bronchial asthma is an intermittent and reversible airflow obstruction affecting only the airways, not the alveoli

90
Q

Short acting beta agonist

A

Rapid short term relief

SE: tachycardia

Ex: ventolin, Proventil, xopenex

91
Q

Long acting beta agonists

A

Relax bronchial smooth muscle by binding to and activating pulmonary beta2 receptors

Ex: serevent

92
Q

Cholinergic antagonist

A

Inhibits parasympathetic NS, allow sympathetic system to take over and releases norepinephrine that activate beta 2 receptors

Ex: atrovent

SE: dry mouth

Overuse: blurred vision, eye pain, headache, palpitations, tremor

93
Q

3 main parts of the skin

A

Epidermis (outer layer) - primary function is protection

Dermis (inner layer) - provide strength, support, blood and nutrients to epidermis

Subcutaneous tissue - anchor dermis, provide insulation and protection

Tests various (20 decks)

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