Renal System Flashcards

1
Q

What type of vasculitis is anti-GBM disease

A

Small vessel vasculitis. antibodies are produced against Type 4 collagen
2x MC in men
Bimodal age 20-30 yrs & 60-70 yrs

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2
Q

Renal biopsy of Anti-GBM disease

A

Linear IgG deposits along Basement memb.

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3
Q

Anti-GBM disease Rx.

A

Plasmapheresis
Steroids
Cyclophosphamide

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4
Q

MCC of Renal vascular disease

A

Atherosclerosis
Fibromuscular disease (FMD)

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5
Q

Ix & Rx. of Renal vascular disease

A

IOC - MR Angio
Balloon Angioplasty

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6
Q

Fibromuscular disease (FMD) features

A

Young Female + HTN + CKD/ ARF (secondary to ACEi initiation) + Flash Pulm. edema

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7
Q

Retroperitoneal Fibrosis C/F

A

Low back/ Flank pain + Fever & LL edema

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8
Q

Association of Retro P Fibrosis

A

Riedal’s Thyroiditis
Previous RT
Sarcoidosis
Drug METHYSERGIDE

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9
Q

Rhabdomyolysis biochemical results??

A

Elevated Cr., CK
Myoglobinuria
Hypocalcaemia (Myoglobin binds to Ca2+)
Elevated K+, PO4-
METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

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10
Q

Rhabdomyolysis Rx.

A

IV fluids
Urinary Alkalinization

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11
Q

Rhabdomyolysis Causes

A

Fall at home for long hrs
McArdles syndrome
ECSTACY

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12
Q

Time taken for AV fistula to develop

A

6 to 8 weeks

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13
Q

Complications of AV fistula

A

Infection
Thrombosis (ABSENCE of Bruit)
Stenosis
STEAL Syndrome

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14
Q

Plasmapheresis Indications

A

GBS, Goodpasture’s,
Myasthenia gravis
ANCA +ve Vasculitis
TTP, HUS
Cryoglobulinaemia
Hyperviscosity synd.

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15
Q

Plasmapheresis Complications?

A

Hypocalcaemia (due to Citrate)
Coagulation factor depletion
IGs depletion
Met. Alkalosis

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16
Q

HLA/ MHC is located on which Chromosome ??

A

Chr. 6
Class 1 antigen - A, B, C
Class 2 antigen - DP, DQ, DR

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17
Q

Renal transplant imp. HLA

A

DR»>B»>A

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18
Q

Graft survival of type of donor??

A

Living donor»>Cadaveric donor

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19
Q

Hyperacute Graft Rejection type of HS reaction???

A

1) Hyperacute - Minutes to Hrs.,
Type 2 HS reaction
Caused by Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens.
Rx. Remove the graft

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20
Q

Type of Graft Rejection

A

1) Hyperacute (min to hrs)
2) Acute (< 6 months)
3) Chronic (> 6 months)

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21
Q

Acute Graft rejection is due to??

A

Mismatched HLA. CMI (cytotoxic T cells)
MONOCLONAL cell infiltrate predominates
CMV infection
Rx. Steroids & Immunosuppresants

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22
Q

Chronic Graft Rejection is due to ??

A

Both Antibody + CMI mechanisms
results in Fibrosis of transplanted kidney (CHRONIC ALLOGRAFT Nephropathy)

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23
Q

Rx. for Renal transplant??

A

Immunosuppression
1) Initial = Ciclosporin/ Tacrolimus + a Monoclonal antibody
2) Maintenance = Ciclosporin/ Tacrolimus + MpMF or Sirolimus
add Steroid if >= 1 steroid responsive acute rejection

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24
Q

Recurrence of original renal disease in Transplanted Kidney ???

A

MCGN»IgA»FSGS

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25
Q

LUTS voiding features??

A

Hesitancy
Poor/ Intermittent stream
Straining
Incomplete emptying
Terminal dribbling

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26
Q

LUTS Storage C/F ??

A

Urgency
Frequency
Nocturia
U Incontinence

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27
Q

LUTS post-micturition C/F ??

A

Post M dribbling
Sensation of incomplete emptying

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28
Q

Rx. if predominantly voiding C/F???

A

-Conservative = Pelvic floor exercise, Bladder training, prudent Fluid intake
-Moderate - severe symp. = ALPHA Blockers
- Prostatomegaly + high risk of progression = 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
- Prostatomegaly + moderate to severe symp. = Alpha blockers + 5 alpha reductase

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29
Q

Mixed Voiding & Storage symp. Rx. ??

A

Alpha blockers {If does not respond, Anti-Muscuranic (Anti-cholinergic) eg. tolterodine or darifenacin is added}

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30
Q

Predominantly Overactive bladder Rx. ??

A

-Fluid intake moderation
-Bladder retraining
-Anti-Muscarinic drugs (Oxybutinin, Tolterodine are immediate release & Darifenacin is once daily prep.)
- Mirabegron [if 1st line drugs fail]

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31
Q

Nocturia Rx. ??

A

-Moderate Fluid intake at night
- Furosemide 40mg in late afternoon
- Desmopressin

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32
Q

Types of Haematuria??

A

Non-Visible (Microscopic or Dip-stick +ve)
Visible (macroscopic)

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33
Q

Red or Orange Urine discolouration causes???

A

Beetroot, Rhubarb
Doxorubicin, Rifampicin

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34
Q

IOC for Haematuria??

A

Urine dipstick

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35
Q

Renal colic analgesia of choice??

A

NSAIDs (Diclofenac)
inpatients = Parenteral Diclofenac (IM)

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36
Q

What is Persistent Non-Visible Haematuria??

A

+ve blood in 2 of 3 samples tested 2-3 wks apart

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37
Q

What is the Surgical emergency in renal stones??

A

Ureteric obstruction (due to stones) + Infection
Renals must be decompressed

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38
Q

Imaging in Renal Calculi??

A

-NCCT-KUB (in < 14hrs of admission)
- If Fever/ solitary kidney/ Dx. uncertain (to exclude ruptured AAA)== Immediate CT-KUB

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39
Q

Oxalate stones prophylaxis??

A
  • CHOLESTYRAMINE (reduces urine oxalate excretion)
  • PYRIDOXINE (reduces urine oxalate secretion)
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40
Q

Radio-Lucent stones??

A
  • Urate stones
  • Xanthine stones
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41
Q

Urate stones prophylaxis??

A

Allopurinol
Urinary Alkalinization (Oral HCO3-)

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42
Q

Ca2+ stones prophylaxis??

A
  • High fluid intake
  • Low salt (NOT low Ca2+ diet)
  • Low animal protein diet
  • Thiazides (increases DCT Ca2+ resorption)
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43
Q

Semi-opaque or Ground glass appearance of stone cause??

A

Cysteine stones

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44
Q

MC type of renal stone??

A

Ca. OXALATE (40%)>Mixed Ca Oxalate/ Phosphate sones (25%)&raquo_space; Triple Phosphate stones (10%) = Ca Phosphate (10%)&raquo_space; Urate stones (5- 10%)&raquo_space; Cysteine stones (1%)&raquo_space; Xanthine (<1%)

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45
Q

Risk Factor for Urate stones??

A
  • Gout
  • ILEOSTOMY (loss of HCO3- & fluids results in Acidic urine, causes ppt. of uric acid)
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46
Q

Drugs causing Ca2+ stones??

A
  • Loop diuretics
  • Steroids
  • Acetazolamide
  • Theophylline
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47
Q

Stag-horn calculi features??

A
  • Made of Struvite (Mg, NH4, PO4)
  • aka Triple phosphate or Infection stones
  • Renal pelvis + involves <= 2 calyces
  • develops in Alkaline urine
  • Common in UTIs
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48
Q

Rx. of Epididymo-orchitis ??

A
  • Unknown organism = Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose + Doxycycline 100mg oral 1-0-1 for 10 to 14 days
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49
Q

MCC of Epididymo-orchitis??

A
  • Local spread of infection from genital tract (C trachomatis, N gonorrhoea - STIs)
  • from Bladder (E coli typically seen in elderly & in low risk sexual history)
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50
Q

Organisms predisposing to Stag-horn calculi???

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum infection
Proteus infection

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51
Q

Testicular torsion features??

A

< 20yrs + severe pain + acute onset

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52
Q

Ix. for Epididymo-orchitis??

A
  • Young = look for STIs
  • Elderly + low risk sexual Hx. = MSU for microscopy & culture
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53
Q

BPH ethnicity variance ??

A

Black > White > Asians

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54
Q

Ix for suspected chronic retention in BPH ???

A

U & E

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55
Q

Indication for PSA testing ??

A
  • Obstructive symp.
  • Pt. is worried about Prostate Ca
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56
Q

Rx. if Prostatomegaly (significant) + high risk of progression ??

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitors (Finasteride)

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57
Q

Rx. if IPSS >= 8 (moderate to severe voiding symp.) ??

A

Alpha-1 antagonists (Tamsulosin, Alfuzosin)

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58
Q

International Prostate Symp. Score (IPSS) ??

A

Tools used = Severity of LUTS & Impact of LUTS on quality of life
- 0 to 7 = Mildly symptomatic
- 8 to 19 = Moderately
- 20 to 35 = Severely

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59
Q

When is a combination of Alpha 1 antagonist + 5 alpha reductase inhibitor used ??

A

Moderate to severe voiding symp. + Prostatomegaly

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60
Q

Chemotherapy DoC in Prostate Ca ??

A

Docetaxel

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61
Q

When is an Androgen syn. inhibitor (eg. ABIRATERONE) used in prostate Ca. ??

A
  • Hormone relapsed metastatic prostate Ca. +
  • have no/ mild symp. after androgen deprivation therapy has failed +
  • Before Chemo is indicated
    eg.- ABIRATERONE
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62
Q

Rx. for Localized Prostate Ca (T1/ T2)??

A
  • Conservative (active monitoring + watchful wait)
  • Radical prostatectomy
  • RT (Ext. beam & Brachytherapy)
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63
Q

Rx. for Localized advanced prostate ca. ??

A
  • Hormone therapy
  • Radical Prostatectomy ( erectile dysfunc. is common complication)
  • RT (Ext. beam + Brachytherapy)
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64
Q

IoC to look for Renal scarring ??

A

DMSA

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65
Q

Steroidal anti androgen MoA ??

A
  • Prevents DHT binding from Intracytoplasmic protein complex
  • eg.- CYPROTERONE ACETATE
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66
Q

What do you suspect in
- Antenatal USS shows Hydronephrosis
- Recurrent UTI in childhood
- Chr. Pyelonephritis in children MCC

A

Vesico- Ureteric Reflux
{Renal scarring can cause increased quantity of RENIN ==> HTN}

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67
Q

Why do we use Low dose, long term GnRH agonists (Zoladex) for hormonal therapy in Prostate Ca. ??

A

Low LH levels for long term ==> OVERSTIMULATION ==> disruption of Endogenous hormonal Feedback systems.
The testosterone levels initially rise (Tumour Flare) before falling to castration levels

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68
Q

Non Steroidal anti-androgen MoA ??

A
  • Blocks Androgen receptor
  • eg.- BICALUTAMIDE
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69
Q

RF for Urothelial (Transitional cell) CA ??

A
  • Smoking (Hazard ratio is 4)
  • Aniline dyes (Printing & Textile industries) 2-Naphthylamine & Benzidine
  • Rubber manufacture
  • CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE
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70
Q

Hormonal therapy for Prostate Ca. ??

A

Low dose, long term GnRH agonists (Zoladex) + Anti- androgen (initially to prevent Tumour flare)

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71
Q

Triad of RCC ??

A

Haematuria
Loin pain
Abdominal mass

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72
Q

IoC in VUR ??

A

Micturating Cystourethrogram

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73
Q

RF for Squamous Cell CA of Bladder ??

A

‘SSS’
- Schistosomiasis
- Smoking

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74
Q

Grades of VUR ??

A

G1 - Reflux into ureter only + NO dilatation
G2 - Reflux into Renal pelvis on micturition + NO DILATATION
G3 - Mild/ Moderate dilatation of Ureter, Renal pelvis, Calyces
G4 - Dilatation of Renal pelvis & Calyces + Moderate ureteral TORTUOSITY
G5 - Gross dilatation of URETER, pelvis and calyces + ureteral Tortuosity

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75
Q

Site of RCC origin ??

A

Proximal Renal Tubular Epithelium
- Clear cell CA (MC histological subtype)

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76
Q

What is Stauffer synd.??

A
  • Paraneoplastic disorder a/w RCC
  • presents as Cholestasis/ Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Thought to be secondary to INCREASED levels of IL-6
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77
Q

Endocrine effects of RCC ??

A

May secrete-
- Erythropoietin (Polycythaemia)
- Parathyroid Hormone-related protein (Hypercalcaemia)
- Renin
- ACTH

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78
Q

What sided varicocele does RCC cause ??

A
  • Majority are LEFT sided (due to compression by tumour)
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79
Q

RCC T categories of tumour ??

A

T1 : <= 7cm + confined to kidney
T2 : > 7cm + confined to kidney
T3 : Tumour extends to major veins or Perinephric tissue + but NOT into I/L Adrenals & NOT beyond Gerota’s fascia
T4 : Invades beyond Gerota’s fascia + extension into I/L Adrenals

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80
Q

Rx. of RCC ??

A

T1 tumour : Partial Nephrectomy
Reduce tumour size : Alpha-IFN & IL-2
{Note- Receptor TK inhibitors (Sorafenib, Sunitinib) are superiorly efficacious than Alpha-IFN}

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81
Q

Tumour Markers of testicular ca. ??

A

Germ cell tumour
- Seminoma : hCG (elevated in 20%)
- Non seminomas : AFP &/or Beta-hCG (elevated in 80%-85%)
LDH is increased in 40% 0f Germ cell tumour

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82
Q

Types of Testicular Ca. ??

A

Germ Cell tumors (95% of Ca.)
- Seminomas
- Non seminomas : includes embryonal, yolk sac, Teratoma & ChorioCA
Non-Germ cell tumours
- Leydig cell tumour
- Sarcomas

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83
Q

MCC of scrotal swelling seen in primary care ??

A

Epididymal cysts (MC found posterior to Testicles)

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84
Q

Why do we see Gynaecomastia in Testicular Ca ???

A

Due to increased Oestrogen : Androgen ratio
- Germ cell tumour {hCG => Leydig cell dysfunc. => Increase in both O & T production (but O rise&raquo_space; T rise)}
- Leydig cell tumour {O secretion more + converts additional androgen precursors to O}

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85
Q

Features of Wilm’s tumour ??

A

ABDOMINAL Mass (MC presenting feature)
- Painless Haematuria
- Flank pain
- Anorexia, Fever
- U/L in 95% cases
Metastases in 20% cases (MC site is LUNG)

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86
Q

What is Hydrocele ??

A

Accumulation of fluid within TUNICA VAGINALIS

87
Q

MC type of Hydrocele in Newborn Males ??

A

Communicating type (Peritoneal fluid drains down to scrotum via PROCESSUS VAGINALIS)

88
Q

Which Testicular swelling occurs
- Posterior to testes
- Anterior to testes

A
  • Epididymal cyst
  • Hydrocele (anterior & down)
89
Q

What are the requirements for Maintenance fluids ??

A

25 to 30ml/kg/day of Water
Approx. 1mmol/kg/day of K+, Na & Cl
Approx. 50 to 100g/day of Glucose to limit Starvation ketosis

90
Q

MC site of Varicocele ??

A

LEFT side (> 80%)
Bag of worms
Subfertility is common

91
Q

0.9% NaCl in large volumes increase the risk of ??

A

Hyperchloraemic Met. Acidosis

92
Q

Anion gap formulae ??

A

{(Na+) + (K+)} - {(HCO3-) + (Cl-)}
Normal Anion gap is 8 to 12 mEq/L

93
Q

CI for Hartmann’s ??

A

Hyperkalaemia

94
Q

Causes of increased Anion gap (>12 mEq/L) M acdosis ??

A

GOLDMARK:
- Glycols (Ethylene g & Propylene g)
- 5-Oxoproline (Chr. Acetaminophen use)
- Lactic acidosis
- Exogenous Lactic acid
- Methanol (& other alcohols)
- Aspirin (Late effect)
- Renal failure (Urate)
- Ketosis (Diabetic, Alcoholic, Starvation)

95
Q

Causes of Normal Anion gap M acidosis ??

A

SHARDS FU
- Spironolactone
- Hyperchloremia/ Hyperalimentation
- Addison’s/ Acetazolamide use/ Ammonium Cl injection
- Renal Tubular Acidosis
- Diarrhoea
- Saline Infusion
- Fistula
- Uterosigmoidoscopy

96
Q

Types of Lactic Acidosis ??

A

Type A : Sepsis, shock, hypoxia, burns
Type B : METFORMIN

97
Q

Salycylates poisoning ABG changes??

A

Early- Resp. Alkalosis
Late- Met. Acidosis

98
Q

Drugs causing Hyperkalaemia ??

A

K+ sparing diuretics
ACEi & ARBs
Ciclosporin, Heparin (UnF & LMW)
Beta-blockers in renal failure pts.

99
Q

How does LMWH & UnFH causes Hyperkalaemia ??

A

by Inhibition of Aldosterone secretion

100
Q

Hyperkalaemia classification ??

A

Mild = 5.5 to 5.9 mmol/L
Moderate = 6.0 to 6.4 mmol/L
Severe : >= 6.5 mmol/L

101
Q

Sequential ECG changes in Hyperkalaemia ??

A

Peaked T waves (occurs 1st)
Loss of P wave
Broad QRS complex
Sinusoidal wave pattern
Asystole

102
Q

What is Pseudo-Hyperkalaemia ??

A

Elevated K+ levels due to
- Excess leak of K+ from cells during or after the blood is taken

103
Q

Lab. modification to prevent Pseude-Hyperkalaemia ??

A
  • use Lithium heparin tube
  • request Slow spin in centrifuge
  • do not apply excessive vacuum while drawing blood (causes haemolysis)
104
Q

Gynaecomastia is less commonly seen with which K+ sparing diuretics ??

A

Eplerenone

105
Q

Indication of Spiranolactone in HF (RALES) ??

A

NYHA 3 + 4 & pt. already on ACEi
Low dose Spironolactone reduces ALL CAUSE MORTALITY

106
Q

Indications of Spironolactone ??

A
  • Ascites (Cirrhosis pts. develop Secondary Hyperaldosterone); large doses 100/200mg are used
  • HTN: Step 4 Rx.
  • Nephrotic
  • Conn’s
107
Q

Hypokalaemia ECG changes ??

A

ST depression
Flat T wave
U wave
QT interval prolongation

108
Q

Causes of Hypokalaemia with Alkalosis ??

A

Vomiting (H+ loss)
Thiazides & Loop diuretics
Cushing’s synd.
Conn’s synd. (primary hyperaldosteronism)

109
Q

Causes of Hypokalaemia with Acidosis ??

A

Diarrhoea (HCO3- loss)
Renal Tubular Acidosis
Acetazolamide
Partially treated DKA
Fanconi’s synd.

110
Q

Causes of Hypokalaemia with HTN ???

A

Cushing’s synd.
Conn’s synd.
Liddle’s synd. (disordered Na+ channel in DCT)
11-beta Hydroxylase deficiency
Anti-ulcer drug (CARBENOXOLONE)
Liquorice excess

111
Q

Causes of Hypokalaemia without HTN

A

Diuretica
GI loss (diarrhoea & vomiting)
Barter’ synd.
Gitelman synd.
RTA (type 1 & 2)

112
Q

What is “Fanconi’s BaGeLS” ??

A

Fanconi’s : PCT defect
Bartter’s : Thick Ascending loop of henle (affects Na+/K+/2Cl- triple transporter)
Gitelman’s : NaCl transporter reabsorption defect in DCT
Liddle’s : Gain in func. mutation (decreased Na+ channel degradation) –> increased Na+ reabsorption from Collecting duct
SAME : Synd. of Apparent Minerelocorticoid Excess (Heriditary 11-Beta HSD deficiency ==> increase Cortisol ==> increase MC receptor activity)

113
Q

AKI Dx. criteria ??

A
  • Rise in S. Cr by >= 26 umol/L in 48hrs (OR)
  • a >= 50% rise in S. Cr within past 7 days (OR)
  • UO < 0.5 ml/kg/hr for >= 6hrs in adults & >= 8hrs in children (OR)
  • > = 25% fall in eGFR in children/ young adults in 7 days
114
Q

What is Thin Basement Memb. disease ??

A

Inherited Type 4 collagen defect (thinning of BM)
Persistent Haematuria + normal KFT without renal failure + Familial haematuria.

115
Q

Acute Interstitial Nephritis features ??

A

Fever + Rash + Arthralgia
EOSINIPHILIA
Mild renal impairment + HTN

U/R - Sterile pyuria & WBC casts

116
Q

Drugs causing AIN ??

A

Penicillin
Rifampicin
NSAIDs
Allopurinol
Furosemide

117
Q

AIN histology ??

A

marked Interstitial edema & infiltrates in connective tissue b/w renal tubules.

118
Q

Types of Glomerulonephritis ??

A

NEPHROTIC (Proteinuria, oedema)
-Minimal Change disease
- Membranous GN
- FSGS
- Amyloidosis
- Diabetic Nephropathy
NEPHRITIC (Haematuria, HTN)
- RPGN or Cresentric GN
- IgA Nephropathy or Mesangio-proliferative GN)
- Alport Synd.
MIXED (Nephrotic + Nephritic)
- Diffuse Proliferative GN
- Membrano-proliferative GN or Mesangio-capillary GN
- Post- Streptococcal GN

119
Q

Disorders a/w GN & Low Complement ??

A

PSGN
SABE
SLE
Mesangio-capillary GN or Memb.-Proliferative GN

120
Q

What is FSGS ??

A

Is a cause of Nephrotic synd. & Chr. Kidney disease
- YOUNG adults

121
Q

Causes of FSGS ??

A

Idiopathic
Secondary to Renal pathology
- IgA Nephropathy
- Reflux Nephropathy
HIV
Heroin
Alport’s & Sickle Cell D
High recurrence rate in Renal transplants

122
Q

Renal Biopsy features of FSGS ??

A

Light Microscopy: Focal & Segmental Sclerosis & Hyalinosis
Electron M: Foot process effacement
Rx.
- Steroids +/- Immunosuppresants

123
Q

What is HIVAN ??

A

HIV associated Nephropathy
- May occur as a consequence of Rx. or the Virus itself
Key Features are
- Massive Proteinuria
- Normal or Large Kidney
- FSGS + Focal or Global Capillary collapse
- Elevated Urea & Cr
- Normotension
ART improves the outcome

124
Q

Difference b/w IgA Nephropathy & PSGN ??

A

IgA Nephropathy (Nephritic)
- Develops 1- 2 days after URTI
- Young males + Macroscopic Haematuria
PSGN (Mixed Nephropthy)
- Develops 1- 2 wks after URTI
- Proteinuria>Haematuria
- LOW Complement

125
Q

PSGN cause ??

A

Grp. A Beta haemolytic Streptococci infection (Strept. pyogenes)
- Caused by Immune Complex (IgG, IgM & C3) deposition in glomeruli
- MC among Young Children
Features
- Proteinuria>Visible Haematuria
- Oedema, Oliguria, HTN
- Low C3 & Raised ASO titres

126
Q

Renal Biopsy features of PSGN ??

A

Causes Acute, Diffuse P GN
Endothelial proliferation with Neutrophils
Electron M: SubEpithelial Humps due to lumpy immune complex deposition
Immunoflorescence: Granular or ‘Starry Sky’ appearance

127
Q

What is HSP ??

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
- IgA mediated Small vessel vasculitis
- MC seen in Children after infection
- Excellent prognosis without Renal involvement (in Children)

128
Q

Features of HSP ??

A
  • Palpable purpuric rash (with localized edema) over Buttocks & Extensor surfaces of arms & legs
  • Abd. Pain
  • Polyarthritis
  • Features of IgA nephropathy can occur (Haematuria, Renal failure)
129
Q

Rx. of HSP ??

A
  • Analgesia for pain
  • Rx of Nephropathy is SUPPORTIVE
130
Q

What is HUS ??

A

Generally seen in Young Children
Secondary HUS- Typical (most cases)
- Shiga Toxin-Producing E Coli O157:H7 (Verotoxigenic, Enterohaemorrhagic) MCC in children in >90%
- Pneumococcal infection
- HIV
- Rare: SLE, drugs, cancer
Primary HUS- Atypical due to Complement dysregulation

131
Q

Features & Ix. done in HUS ??

A

AKI + MAHA + Thrombocytopaenia
FBC: Anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, fragmented blood films
U&E: AKI
Stool culture
- Look for STEC O157:H7 infection
- PCR for Shiga toxins

132
Q

Rx. of HUS ??

A

SUPPORTIVE
- Fluids, Blood T, Dialysis (if required)
NO role of Antibiotics
- Plasma exchange
- Eculizumab (a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody) has greater efficacy than Plasma exchange in Rx. of Adult HUS

133
Q

Indication of Plasma exchange in HUS ??

A

Severe HUS + NOT a/w Diarrhoea

134
Q

What is Membranoproliferative GN ??

A

aka Mesangio-capillary GN: presents as Nephrotic, Haematuria/Proteinuria
Type 1 (90% cases)
- Cause: Cryoglobulinaemia, Hep.C
Type 2 (Dense deposit disease)
- Cause: Partial Lipodystrophy (loss of SubC tissue from face), Factor H deficiency
Type 3 :- Causes: Hep. B & C
Rx.- Steroids may be effective

135
Q

Type 1 & Type 2 Electron microscopy features ??

A

Type 1: Subendothelium & Mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in ‘Tram-Track’ appearance
Type 2: Intramembranous Immune Complex deposits with ‘Dense deposits’

136
Q

Features of Type 2 Memb.-Proliferative GN ??

A

Due to Persistent activation of Alternative Complement pathway
- Low circulating C3
C3b nephritic factor found in 70%
- Antibody to Alternative-pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb)
- Stabilizes C3 convertase

137
Q

What is Membranous GN ??

A

MC type of GN in adults & is the 3rd MCC of ESRF; Nephrotic picture
Causes
- Idiopathic (Anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies)
- Infections: Hep.B, Malaria, Syphilis
- Malignancy: Prostate, Lung, Lymphoma, Leukaemia
- Drugs: Gold, Penicillamine, NSAIDs
- SLE (Class V), Thyroiditis, RA

138
Q

Renal biopsy features of Memb. GN ??

A

Electron M: BM is thickened with Sub-epithelial electron dense deposits
- This creates ‘Spike & Dome’ appearance

139
Q

Rx. of Memb. GN ??

A

All pts.- ACEi or ARBs
Immunosuppresion
- Only Severe or Progressive cases
- Steroids alone are not effective; use a combination of Corticosteroids + another agent like (Cyclophosphamide)
Anti-Coagulation in high risk pts.

140
Q

Good prognostic factors of Memb. GN ??

A
  • Female sex
  • Young age at presentation
  • Asymptomatic proteinuria of modest degree at the time of presentation
141
Q

What is Minimal Change disease ??

A

NEPHROTIC picture (75% are Children & 25% are Adults)
Causes
- Drugs: NSAIDs, Rifampicin
- Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Thymoma
- INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS

142
Q

Pathophysiology of Minimal Change disease ??

A

T-cell & Cytokine mediated damage of GBM => Polyanion loss => reduced Electrostatic charge => Increased permeability of GBM (Highly selective Proteinuria)

143
Q

Features of MCD ??

A

Nephrotic syndrome + Normotensive
Only Intermediate-sized proteins such as ALBUMIN & TRANSFERRIN leak through GBM
Rx.-
- Oral Corticosteroids (80% are steroid responsive)
- Cyclophosphamide: if Steroid resistant case

144
Q

Renal Biopsy features of MCD ??

A

Light M: Normal glomeruli
Electron M: Fusion of podocytes & Foot processes effacement

145
Q

What is RPGN ??

A

Rapid loss of renal function a/w the formation of Epithelial Crescents in the majority of glomeruli
Causes-
- Goodpasture’s syndrome
- Wegener’s granulomatosis
- SLE, Microscopic Polyarteritis

146
Q

Features of Crescentric GN ??

A

RPGN
- Nephritic: Haematuria with Red cell casts, proteinuria, oliguria
- Features of the underlying cause

147
Q

MC form of Renal disease in SLE ??

A

Diffuse Proliferative G N

148
Q

What is Calciphylaxis ??

A

Complication of End-stage Renal F
- Results in deposition of Ca2+ within the arterioles => Microvascular occlusion & Necrosis of supplied tissue
- PAINFUL, Necrotic skin lesions

149
Q

RF and Rx. of Calciphylaxis ??

A
  • Hyper Ca2+, Hyper PO4, Hyperparathyroidism
  • Warfarin
    Rx.-
  • Reducing Ca2+ & PO4 levels
  • Controlling Hyperparathyroidism
  • Avoid contributory drugs
150
Q

When does EPO therapy fails ??

A

Iron deficiency anaemia
Inadequate dose
Concurrent infection/ Inflammation
Hyperparathyroid Bone disease
Aluminium toxicity

151
Q

Major S/E of EPO ??

A
  • Pure Red cell Aplasia (due to anti-bodies against EPO)
    DARBEPOIETIN has reduced risk
  • Iron deficiency secondary to Increased Erythropoiesis
152
Q

Which factors are lost in Nephrotic syndrome ??

A
  • Anti-Thrombin 3, Protein C & S + Rise in Fibrinogen levels (predispose to Thrombosis)
  • Thyroxine-binding Globulin is lost ==> Lowers TOTAL but not Free Thyroxine levels
153
Q

Complications of Nephrotic Synd. ??

A

Thromboembolism (Loss of Anti-thrombin 3 & Plasminogen in urine)
- DVT, PE
- Renal Vein T => Sudden deterioration in RFT
HYPERLIPIDAEMIA (increased risk of ACS & Stroke)
Increased risk of infection (IGs loss via urine)
HYPOCALCAEMIA (Vit D & Binding protein lost in urine)

154
Q

Triad of Nephrotic Synd. ??

155
Q

What is Contrast Media induced Nephrotoxicity ??

A

25% increase in Cr occurring in < 3 days of IV Contrast media administration
Risk Factors
- Known Renal impairment
- Age > 70 yrs
- Dehydration
- Cardiac failure
- Use of Nephrotoxic drugs (NSAIDs)

156
Q

How to prevent Contrast induced Nephrotoxicity ??

A
  • IV 0.9% NaCl at 1ml/kg/hr for 12 hrs Pre- & Post procedure
  • High-risk pts.- STOP Metformin for 48hrs & until U&E is shown to be normal
157
Q

What is Renal Papillary Necrosis ??

A

COAGULATIVE Necrosis of Renal Papillae
Causes
- Severe Acute Pyelonephritis
- Diabetic Nephropathy
- Obstructive Nephropathy
- Analgesic Nephropathy (Phenacitin, NSAIDs)
- TB. - Sickle Cell Anaemia

158
Q

Features of Renal Papillary Necrosis ??

A

Fever + Haematuria & Proteinuria + Loin pain
IVU: Papillary Necrosis with Renal Scarring- ‘Cup & Spill’

159
Q

Common causes of Polyuria ??

A

Common (> 1 in 10)
- Diuretics, Caffeine, Alcohol, Lithium
- DM, Heart Failure
Infrequent (1 in 100)
- Hyper Ca2+ & Hyperthyroidism
Rare (1 in 1000)
- Chr. Renal Failure
- Primary Polydipsia ; HYPO K+
Very Rare (<1 in 10,000)
- Diabetes insipidus

160
Q

What is Diabetes Insipidus ??

A

Cranial DI: Decreased ADH secretion from Pituitary
Nephrogenic DI: ADH insensitivity
Features
- Polyuria
- Polydipsia

161
Q

Causes of Cranial & Nephrogenic DI ??

A

CRANIAl DI
- Idiopathic, Post Head injury, Pituitary Sx., [DI DM OA D- Wolfram]
- Infiltrative (Histiocytosis X & Sarcoidosis)
NEPHROGENIC DI
- Genetic (MC form): Aquaporin 2 ADH channel mutation
- Hyper Ca2+ & Hypo K+
- Lithium & Democlocycline
-Tubulo-interstitial disease: Obstruction, Sickle-CD, Pyelonephritis

162
Q

Ix. & Rx. of Diabetes Insipidus ??

A
  • HIGH Plasma & LOW Urine Osml
  • Urine Osml of > 700mOsm/kg excludes DI
  • Water Deprivation Test
    Rx.
  • NDI: Thiazides, Low salt/ Protein diet
  • CDI: Desmopressin
163
Q

What are the stages of Diabetic Nephropathy ??

A

1 : Hyperfiltration- GFR increased (may be reversible
2 : Silent/ Latent- GFR remains elevated + No Microalbuminuria for 10 years
3 : Incipient- Microalbuminuria ( 30 - 300 mg/day) + Dipstick (-)ve
4 : Overt- Persistent proteinuria (>300 mg/day) + Dipstick (+)ve; HTN present + Diffuse GS & Focal GS (Kimmelstiel-Wilson Nodules)
5 : ESRD + GFR < 10 ml/min ; Renal Replacement therapy needed

164
Q

WHO classification of Lupus Nephritis ??

A

Class 1: Normal Kidney
C 2 : Mesangial GN
C 3 : Focal Segmental Proliferative GN
C 4 : DIFFUSE PROLIFERATIVE GN
C 5 : Diffuse Membrabous GN
C 6 : Sclerosing GN

165
Q

What is Class 4 Lupus Nephritis ??

A

Diffuse Proliferative GN (MC & Most SEVERE form)
- Glomeruli: Endothelial & Mesangial proliferation, ‘Wire-Loop’ appearance
- Capillary wall thickened (immune complex deposition)
- Electron M: Sub-Endothelial Immune Complex deposits
- Immunofluorescence: Granular

166
Q

Rx. of Lupus Nephritis ??

A

Treat HTN
Class 3 (Focal) or Class 4 (Diffuse)
- Glucocorticoids + Mycophenolate/ Cyclophosphamide
MMF preferred over Azathioprine

167
Q

What is Fanconi’s Syndrome ??

A

Generalised reabsorptive disorder of renal tubule transport in PCT resulting in
- Type 2 RTA (Proximal)
- Polyuria
- Aminoaciduria
- Glycosuria, Phosphaturia
- Osteomalacia

168
Q

Causes & MCC in Children of Fanconi’s synd. ??

A

Sjogren’s syndrome
Multiple Myeloma
Nephrotic Synd.
Wilson’s disease
MCC in Children: CYSTINOSIS

169
Q

What is Alport’s Syndrome ??

A
  • 85% cases: X-linked D & rest as A R
  • Type 4 Collagen defect => Abnormal GBM
  • More severe in MALES
170
Q

Features of Alport’s syndrome ??

A

Usually presents in Childhood
- Microscopic Haemturia
- Progressive Renal Failure
- B/L SNHL ; - Retinitis Pigmentosa
- Lenticonus: Lens surface protrusion to Anterior chamber

171
Q

Dx. of Alport’s syndrome ??

A

Molecular Genetic testing
Renal Biopsy
- Electron M: Longitudinal SPLITTING of Lamina densa of GBM resulting in ‘Basket weave’ appearance

172
Q

Typical Alport’s syndrome presentation ??

A

Failing renal transplant (may be caused by the presence of Anti-GBM antibodies leading to Goodpasture’s syndrome like picture)

173
Q

What is Amyloidosis ??

A

Extracellular deposition of an Insoluble Fibrillar protein termed Amyloid [Fibrillary + Non-fibrillary components]
- Non-fibrillary component: Amyloid-P, Apolipoprotein-E & Heparan sulfate proteoglycan

174
Q

Types of Amyloidosis ??

A

AL amyloidosis (MC form)
- L is IG light chain fragment
- Due to Myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, MGUS
- Features: Nephrotic, CVS & CNS involved, Macroglossia, Periorbital eccymoses
AA amyloidosis
- A: precursor serum amyloid A protein, an acute phase reactant
- Seen in Chronic infection/inflam.
- eg.- TB, Bronchiectasis, RA
- Features: Renal involvement MC
Beta-2 Microglobulin amyloidosis
- Beta-2 microglobulin is the precursor protein (part of MHC)

175
Q

Which type of amyloidosis is a/w
- Pts. on Renal dialysis ??
- TB, Bronchiectasis, RA ??
- Myeloma, Waldenstrom’s, MGUS ??

A
  • Beta-2 microglobulin amyloidosis
  • AA amyloidosis
  • AL amyloidosis
176
Q

Dx. of Amyloidosis ??

A

Congo-red staining: Apple-green birefringence
Serum Amyloid precursor scan
Biopsy: Skin, Rectal mucosa or Abd. fat

177
Q

Which is the most common inherited cause of Kidney disease ??

A

ADPKD (1 in 1000 Caucasians)
2 types
- Type 1 (85% cases); Chr 16; presents with early Renal failure
- Type 2 (15% cases) Chr. 4
2 disease loci have been identified, PKD1 & PKD2, which codes for Polycystin-1 & Polycystin-2 respectively

178
Q

Ix. done in ADPKD ??

A

Screening Ix for relatives is USS abd.
USS Dx. criteria in pts. with (+)ve FHx
- 2 cysts, U/L or B/L if aged < 30yrs
- 2 cysts in B/L Kidneys; aged 30 to 59 yrs
- 4 cysts in B/L Kidneys; aged > 60yrs

179
Q

Rx. of ADPKD ??

A

TOLVAPTAN (vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist) in adults to slow the progression of cyst devt. & renal insufficiency ONLY if:
- CKD stage 2 or 3 at the start of Rx
- Evidence of Rapid Progressive disease
- The company provides it with discount agreed in pt.’s scheme

180
Q

What are the Renal & Extra-renal features of ADPKD ??

A
  • HTN, Recurrent UTIs, Haematuria
  • Renal Stones, Abd. Pain, CKD
    Extra-Renal manifestations
  • Liver cysts: can cause Hepatomegaly
  • BERRY Aneurysm: causes SAH
  • CVS: MVP, Mitral/ Tricuspid incompetence, Aortic Root dilation, Aortic dissection
  • Cysts in other organs: Pancreas, Spleen; very rarely- Thyroid, Oesophagus, Ovary
181
Q

MC Extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD ??

A

Liver Cysts

182
Q

Features of ARPKD ??

A

Gene defect located on Chr. 6 which encodes for FIBROCYSTIN- protein imp. for normal renal tubule devt.
Dx.
- Prenatal USS or Early Infancy with Abd. mass & Renal failure
- Newborns: Potter’s syndrome secondary to Oligohydramnios
- ESRD in childhood
-Liver: Portal or Interlobular fibrosis
Renal Biopsy

183
Q

Renal Biopsy features of ARPKD ??

A

Multiple Cylindrical lesions at Rt. angles to Cortical Surface.

184
Q

Causes of AKI ??

A

PRE-RENAL (Ischaemia or Lack of Blood flow to Kidneys)
- Hypovolaemia (diarrhoea/vomitting)
- Renal artery Stenosis
INTRINSIC Renal
- Glomerulonephritis
- ATN. - AIN. - Rhabdomyolysis
- Tumour Lysis Syndrome
POSR-RENAL (Obstruction)
- Renal stones in Ureter/ Bladder
- BPH. - External Ureter compression

185
Q

C/F of AKI ??

A

Early AKI can be asymptomatic
- Reduced Urine Output
- Pulm. or Peripheral Oedema
- Arrhythmias (due to changes in K+ & Acid-base balance)
- Uraemia features (eg.- Pericarditis or Encephalopathy)

186
Q

Dx. of AKI ??

A

(p)RIFLE, AKIN or KDIGO criterias
- Rise in Cr. of >= 26 umol/L in < 48hrs
- Rise in Cr >= 50% known/ presumed to have occurred in past 7 days
- Fall in UO to < 0.5ml/kg/hr for >6 hrs in Adults & > 8hrs in Children
- Fall of >= 25% in eGFR in Children/ Young adults in 7 days
URINALYSIS
IMAGING
- No identifiable cause or at risk of Urine tract obstruction; Renal USS within 24hrs

187
Q

KIDGO staging of AKI ??

A

STAGE 1
- Rise in Cr. to 1.5- 1.9 times baseline/
- Rise in Cr. by >= 26.5 umol/l or
- Fall in UO < 0.5ml/kg/hr for >=6hrs
STAGE 2
- Rise in Cr. to 2.0 to 2.9x baseline
- Fall in UO < 0.5ml/kg/hr for >=12hrs
STAGE 3
- Rise in Cr. to >= 3.0x baseline or
- Rise in Cr. of >= 353.6 umol/l or
- Fall in UO <=0.3ml/kg/hr for >=24hrs
- Initiation of RRT or
- In pts. <18 yrs fall in eGFR to <35ml/min/1.73 m2

188
Q

When is a AKI pt. referred to a Nephrologist ??

A
  • Renal transplant
  • ITU pt. + AKI (Unknown cause)
  • Vasculitis/ GN/ TubuloInterstitial Nephritis/ Myeloma
  • Inadequate response to Rx.
  • AKI complications
  • Stage 3 AKI - CKD Stage 4 or 5
  • Qualify for Renal Replacement Hyper K+/ Met. Acidosis/ Uraemia complications/ Fluid overload
189
Q

Risk factors of AKI ??

A
  • Emergency Sx (ie. risk of Sepsis or Hypovolemia)
  • Intraperitoneal Sx.
  • CKD (if eGFR < 60)
  • DM, - Heart Failure, - > 65yrs old
  • Liver diseases
  • Nephrotoxic drugs (NSAIDs, Aminoglycosides, ACEi/ ARBs, Diuretics
190
Q

What is Pre-renal Uraemia ??

A

Kidneys hold on to Na+ to preserve volume
- Urine Na < 20 mmol/l
- Urine Osml > 500 mOsm/kg
- Normal/Bland sediment urine
In ATN
- Urine Na > 40 mmol/l
- Urine Osml < 350 mOsm/kg
- Brown Granular casts in urine

191
Q

What is Fractional Na+ Excretion ??
What is Fractional Urea Excretion ??

A
  • (Urine Na/ Plasma Na)/ (Urine Cr./Plasma Cr) * 100
  • (Urine urea/Blood urea)/ (Urine Cr./Plasma Cr.) * 100
192
Q

Rx. NOT recommended in AKI ??

A
  • Loop diuretics
  • Low dose Dopamine (to increase renal perfusion)
  • Loop diuretics can only be used in Fluid overload cases
193
Q

CKD classification based on eGFR ??

A

STAGE 1: > 90ml/min + some signs of Kidney damage on other tests (if all kidney tests normal, NO CKD)
STAGE 2: 60- 90ml/min + (same as stage1) normal U&E & No proteinuria
STAGE 3a: 45- 59ml/min + Moderate reduction in Kidney function
STAGE 3b: 30- 44ml/min + same as 3a
STAGE 4: 15- 29ml/min + Severe reduction in Kidney function
STAGE 5: < 15ml/min/ Established RF on dialysis/ Kidney transplant needed

194
Q

What factors are considered to measure eGFR ??

A

S. Cr. - Age. - Gender. - Ethnicity
Factors that can affect are
- Pregnancy
- Muscle mass (eg. Amputees, Body builders)
- Eating RED Meat 12hrs prior to sample being takes

195
Q

Common causes of CKD ??

A
  • Diabetic Nephropathy
  • Chronic Glomerulonephritis
  • Chronic Pyelonephritis
  • HTN
  • Adult Polycystic Kidney disease
196
Q

When does Anaemia becomes apparent in CKD pts. ??

A
  • GFR < 35 ml/min or
  • GFR > 60ml/min + Other causes of anaemia
  • Anaemia in CKD predisposes pts. to develop LVH
197
Q

Rx. of Anaemia in CKD ??

A

Target Hb of 10 to 12 g/dl
- Iron status should be optimised BEFORE administering Erythropoietin Stimulating Agents (ESA)
- Many pts. on Haemodialysis will require IV Iron
- ESAs like EPO & Darbepoietin used

198
Q

Causes of Anaemia in CKD ??

A
  • Reduced EPO levels (MCC)
  • Reduced E-poiesis due to toxic effects of URAEMIA on bone marrow
  • Reduced Iron absorption
  • Anorexia/ Nausea due to Uraemia
  • Reduced RBCs survival (due to dialysis)
  • Blood loss due to Capillary fragility & Poor platelet function
  • Stress ulceration ==> Chr. Blood loss
199
Q

Ca2+ physiology seen in CKD ??

A
  • Low Vit D (1-alpha hydroxylation normally occurs in Kidney)
  • High PO4
  • Low Ca2+ (due to the above 2)
  • Secondary Hyperparathyroidism (due to the above 3 reasons)
200
Q

Bone diseases seen in CKD ??

A
  • Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica or Hyper-parathyroid bone disease
  • Adynamic Bone disease
  • Osteomalacia (due to low Vit D & high PO4 drags Ca2+ from bones)
  • Osteosclerosis
  • Osteoporosis
201
Q

Bone disease seen with Vit D over Rx in CKD pts. ??

A

Adynamic bone disease

202
Q

Rx. of Mineral Bone disease in CKD ??

A

Aim: Reduce PO4 & PTH levels
- 1st line: Reduce PO4 diet intake
- Phosphate binders
- Vit D: Alfacalcidol & Calcitriol
- Parathyroidectomy in some cases

203
Q

Types of PO4 binders ??

A

Aluminium based (not used)
Ca2+ based Binders
- Problem: Hyper Ca2+ & Vascular calcification
SEVELAMER (MC used now)
- Non-Ca2+ based binders
- Binds to dietary PO4+ & prevents its absorption
- Other beneficial effects: Reduces Uric acid, improves Lipid profile

204
Q

When is Furosemide used as an Anti-Hypertensive in CKD pts. ??

A

GFR falls to < 45 ml/min & it has a added benefit of lowering S. K+ levels

205
Q

What is Peritoneal Dialysis ??

A

Form of RRT; Indications
- Stop-gap to HD or
- Younger pts. who do not want to visit hospital 3x a week

206
Q

Complications of Peritoneal Dialysis ??

A

PERITONITIS
-MCC: Coagulase (-)ve Staph. eg- Staph. Epidermidis >Staph. aureus
Rx.-
- Vancomycin (or Teicoplanin) + Ceftazidime added to dialysis fluid OR
- Vancomycin added to dialysis fluid + Ciprofloxacin by mouth
- Aminoglycosides are sometimes used to cover the Gram (-)ve organism instead of Ceftazidime
SCLEROSING Peritonitis

207
Q

MC form of Peritoneal Dialysis ??

A

Continuous Ambulatory P D (CAPD)
- Involves four 2-lt. exchange/ day

208
Q

Approx. Equivalent values of Proteinuria ??

A

ACR (mg/mmol) : PCR (mg/mmol) : Urinary Protein excretion (g/24hr) =
= 30 : 50 : 0.5 g/24hrs
= 70 : 100 : 1 g/24 hrs
ACR is preferred over PCR as it has greater sensitivity

209
Q

How to collect an ACR sample ??

A
  • First-pass morning urine specimen
  • If initial ACR is b/w 3 to 70 mg/mmol 2nd subsequent early morning sample should be taken for confirmation
  • If initial ACR >70 mmol/l, repeat sample NOT required
210
Q

Clinically significant Proteinuria ??

A

ACR of >= 3 mg/mmol
When to Refer to a Nephrologist
- ACR >= 70 mg/mmol unless known to be caused by DM & already appropriately treated
- ACR >= 30 mg/mmol + Haematuria (2/3 dipstick shows >= 1+ blood) + UTI excluded
- ACR: 3- 29 mg/mmol + Haematuria + RFs (declining eGFR or CVS diseases)

211
Q

Rx. of Proteinuria ??

A

Start ACEi or ARBs
- 1st line: HTN & CKD + ACR >30 mg/mmol
- ACR >70 mg/mmol regardless of BP