Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Which gene mutation is a/w Breast Ca & Pancreatic Ca ??

A

BRCA2

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2
Q

Which cancer is a/w TP-53 mutation ??

A

Li- Fraumeni synd.
- A D inheritance
- It normally functions as a tumour suppressor gene
- a/w increased risk of Bone & Soft tissue cancer ; even breast cancer

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3
Q

Which cancers are a/w BRCA2 mutation ??

A

Breast & Ovary
Pancreatic
Prostate
Stomach
Bile duct & GB
Melanoma

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4
Q

Gene mutation a/w Burkitt’s Lymphoma ??

A

c-myc gene
t [8, 14]

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5
Q

What is Peutz- Jeghers synd. ??

A
  • A D
  • Perioral & mucosal melanocytic pigmentation
  • Hamartomatous polyp
    a/w Colorectal Ca, Gastric, Small bowel & Pancreatic Ca
  • increased risk of Breast Ca»Ovarian»Cervical
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6
Q

What is Gardner synd. ??

A

Famial Adenomatous Polyposis
- a/w Early onset Colon Ca
- Can also cause Osteomas, Epidermoid cyst

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7
Q

What is Lynch synd. ??

A

HNPCC
- a/w Early presentation, mean age of dx. 44- 61 yrs
- a/w GASTRIC & ENDOMETRIAL Ca

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8
Q

Fabry’s disease inheritance pattern ??

A

X- linked Recessive disorder

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9
Q

BRAF mutation ??

A

encodes B-raf protein
- MAP-kinase signalling pathway => regulates Cell division & differentiation
- Malignant melanoma

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10
Q

How to differentiate b/w Marfan’s & Homocystinuria ??

A
  • Fibrillin 1 deficiency + NOT a/w low IQ + Upward lens dislocation
  • Cystathione Beta-synthase deficiency + Low IQ + Downward lens dislocation + A R + VTE & MI
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11
Q

What is Pseudoxanthoma elasticum ??

A

ATP-binding Cassette protein, family C no. 6 mutation
- Puckered chicken skin
- Angiod retinal streaks
- Accelerated CVS disease

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12
Q

Below what age does the the Abd. USS screening of ADPKD is (-)ve

A

< 20 yrs

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13
Q

Gene involved in A R Polycystic Kidney Disease ??

A

PKHD1

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14
Q

What is DNA Methylation ??

A

Suppresses gene transcription
- occurs at 5th position of Cytosine, has the specific effect of reducing gene expression

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15
Q

How are mitochondrial disorders inheritted ??

A

Maternal lineage

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16
Q

What is the best way to edit the genome ??

A

CRISPR/Cas9 technology

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17
Q

What percentage of human genome is made of Non-coding sequence ??

A

90% of genome is comprised of Non-coding DNA

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18
Q

What are the cell cycle phases ??

A

G 0: Resting phase (eb.- hepatocytes, Neurons)
G 1:
- Increase in size
- Determines the LENGTH of Cell Cycle
- Under p53 influence
S phase: DNA, RNA & Histone synthesis; Centromere duplication
G 2 : Cell continue to increase its size
M : Mitosis- Cell division

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19
Q

Name the following about the Cell Cycle
- Under p 53 influence ??
- Determines the length of Cell C ??
- Centromere Duplication ??
- Shortest phase of Cell C ??

A
  • G 1
  • G 1
  • S phase
  • M phase
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20
Q

Name the Regulatory proteins of the following
- G 1 phase ??
- Transition from G 1 to S phase ??
- S phase ??
- G 2 phase ??

A
  • Cyclin D/ CDK4, Cyclin D/ CDK6
  • Cyclin E/ CDK2
  • Cyclin A/ CDK2
  • Cyclin A/ CDK1
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21
Q

What are the phases of Mitosis ??

A

Prophase: Chromatin condenses in the nucleus
Prometaphase: Nuclear memb. breaks down + Microtubules attach to Chromosomes
Metaphase: Chr. aligned at MIDDLE of cell
Anaphase: Paired Chr. SEPERATE at Kinetochores & move to the opposite end
Telophase: Chromatids arrive at the poles of the cells
Cytokinesis: Actin-Myosin complex in the centre of the cell contracts => Cell being pinched into 2 daughter cells

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22
Q

What are Microtubules ??

A

Components of Cytoskeleton of Cytoplasm
- Guide movt. during intracellular transport
- Helps to BIND internal organelles
Cylindrical str. composed of Alpha + Beta tubulin subunits => polymerize to form PROTOFILAMENTS
- They are POLARIZED

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23
Q

How does molecular transport occur with the help of Microtubules ??

A

Attachment proteins called DYNEIN & KINESIN move up & down the Micro-tubules facilitating the movt. of organelles around the cell
- Dynein=> moves in Retrograde fashion- DOWN the microtubules towards the centre of cell [+ve => -ve]
- Kinesin=> moves in Anterograde fashion- UP the microtubule away from the centre, [-ve ==> +ve]

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24
Q

Name the Cell Surface Proteins a/w the following cells
- Haematopoietic Stem Cells ??
- Helper T cells ??
- Cytotoxic T cells ??
- Regulatory T cells ??
- B cells ??
- Macrophages ??
- NK cells ??

A
  • CD 34
  • CD4, TCR, CD3, CD28
  • CD8, TCR, CD3, CD28
  • CD4, CD25, TCR, CD3, CD28
  • CD19, CD20, CD40, MHC-II, B7
  • CD14, CD40, MHC-II, B7
  • CD16, CD56
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25
Q

Name the Types of Memb. Receptors ??

A

4 main types
LIGAND-GATED ion channel receptors
- Fast responses
- eg.- Nicotinic ACh, GABA-A, GABA-C, Glutamate receptors
TYROSINE KINASE Receptors
- Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
- Non-receptor Tyrosine Kinase
GUANYLATE Cyclase Receptors
- Contains Intrinsic enzyme activity
- eg.- BNP, ANP
G-PROTEIN Coupled Receptor

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26
Q

Name the types of T K receptors ??

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
- Insulin, Insulin like Growth Factor (IGF), Epidermal G F
Non-Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
- PIGG(L)ET
- Prolactin, Immunomodulators (IL2, IL6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, EPO, Thrombopoietin

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27
Q

What are the types of G-Protein Coupled Receptors ??

A
  • Mediate SLOW transmission
  • Activated by a various extracellular signals: Peptide hormones, Biogenic amines (eg- Adrenaline), Lipophilic Hormones
  • 7-helix memb.-spanning domains
  • 3 main subunits: Alpha, Beta, Gamma
  • G-proteins according to ALPHA subunits: Gs, Gi, Gq
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28
Q

How is the Alpha subunit activated in G-Protein coupled receptors ??

A

[Alpha is linked to GDP] => Ligand binding => Conformational changes to receptor => GDP is Phosphorylated to GTP => Alpha activated

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29
Q

How does Gs, Gi & Gq work ??

A

Gs: (+) Adenylate cyclase => increases cAMP => activates Protein kinase A
Gi: (-) Adenylate cyclase => decreases cAMP => (-) PK-A
Gq: Activates Phospholipase C => splits PIP-2 to IP3 + DAG => Activates PK-C

30
Q

Give eg. of Gs, Gi & Gq receptors

A
  • Gs : Beta-1 (NE, E, Dobutamine), Beta-2 (E, Salbuterol), D1 (DA), H2 (Histamine), V2 (vasopressin), Receptors for ACTH, LH, FSH, Glucagon, PTH, Calcitonin, PGs
  • Gi : M2 (ACh), Alpha-2 (NE, E), D2 (DA), GABA-B receptor
  • Gs : Alpha-1 (NE, E), H1, V1, M1 & M3 (ACh)
31
Q

Which is the MC 2nd messenger pathway ??

A

cAMP pathway

32
Q

Name the site of Erythropoiesis in
- Adults
- Foetus

A
  • Red B M: Flat Bones (including Vertebrae, Ribs, Sternum) & Proximal ends of Long bones
  • Mainly LIVER
33
Q

What are the 2 types of Precursor cells derived from Haematopoietic Stem Cell ??

A

LYMPHOID & MYELOID
- RBCs originate from Myeloid; regulated by EPO based on DECREASED O2 levels in blood
- RBCs synthesis takes 1 wk & lives for 120 days

34
Q

What does the following Molecular Biology techniques detect ??
- Southern Blotting
- Northern Blotting
- Western Blotting

A

SNOW DROP
South-NOrth-West = Dna-Rna-Protein
- Detects DNA
- Detects RNA
- Detects Protein (uses electrophoresis to separate native proteins by 3D structure (eg.- HIV test confirmation)

35
Q

What is ELISA ??

A

Type of Biochemical Assay used to detect Antigens & Antibodies
Colour changing enzyme is attached to
- Antibody if looking for antigens
- Antigen if looking for antibody
Sample therefore changes colour if the antigen or antibody is detected

36
Q

Name the tests used for
- Initial detection of HIV ??
- Confirmation of HIV ??

A
  • ELISA
  • Western Blotting
37
Q

Uses of PCR technique ??

A
  • Prenatal Dx.
  • Detection of mutated Oncogenes
  • Dx. of Infection
  • FORENSICS
38
Q

Steps involved in PCR technique ??

A

Sample DNA + 2 DNA Oligonucleotide Primers
- A Themostable DNA Polymerase (Taq) is added
Then the following steps are repeated
- DENATURATION (94- 96 C)
- ANNEALING (68 C)
- ELONGATION (72 C)

39
Q

What is a General rule regarding A D & A R disorders with exceptions ??

A

A R = are often METABOLIC
A D = are often STRUCTURAL
Exceptions:
- Metabolic conditions eg.- Hunter’s, G6PD are X-linked R & Hyperlipidaemia type 2, HypoK+ Periodic Paralysis are A D
- Structural conditions eg.- Ataxia Telangiectasia & Friedreich’s Ataxia are A R

40
Q

Name a few Mitochondrial diseases ??

A
  • Leber’s Optic Atrophy
  • MELAS syndrome: Mitochondrial Encephalopathy Lactic Acidosis & Stroke-like Episodes
  • MERRF synd.: Myoclonus Epilepsy with Ragged Red Fibres
  • Kearns-Sayre Synd.: <20yrs, External Ophthalmoplegia, Retinitis pigmentosa, Ptosis
41
Q

Hallmark features of Mitochondrial diseases ??

A

Mitochondrial DNA normally encodes protein components of the Respiratory chain & some special types of RNA
- Inheritance: MATERNAL line only
- NO children of an affected male will inherit
- ALL children of an affected female will inherit
- Generally encodes Rare CNS disease
Poor Genotype : Phenotype correlation
HP: Muscle biopsy shows ‘Red ragged fibres’ due to increased mitochondria

42
Q

What is Penetrance ??

A

“How likely” it is that a condition will develop
- Eg. of conditions with Incomplete penetrance: Retinoblastoma, Huntington’s disease
- Eg. of conditions with Complete penetrance: Achondroplasia

43
Q

What is Expressivity ??

A

Describe the “Severity” of phenotype or the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression
- Eg. NF has high level of expressivity

44
Q

What is McCune-Albright Syndrome ??

A

NOT an Inherited disorder
Random, Somatic Mutation in the GNAS gene
- Precocious puberty + Cafe-au-lait spots + Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
- Short stature

45
Q

What is William’s Synd. ??

A

Inherited Neuro-developmental disorder; caused by MICRODELETION on Chr. 7
- Elfin-like facies + [very Friendly & Social] + Learning difficulty
- Short stature
- Transient Neonatal HyperCa2+
- Supravalvular AS

46
Q

How is William Synd. Diagnosed ??

A

FISH studies (Fluorescence in-situ Hybridization)

47
Q

What is Genetic Imprinting ??

A

Inheritance pattern where the Phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father
- Prader-Willi Synd.: If gene
—–Micro-deleted from father (15q11-13) 70% cases (OR)
—–Maternal Uniparental disomy of Chr.-15q
- Angelman synd.: If gene deleted from Mother on Chr. 15

48
Q

Features of Prader-Willi Synd. ??

A
  • Hypotonia during Infancy
  • Dysmorphic features
  • Short stature
  • Hypogonadism & Infertility
  • Learning difficulty
  • Childhood Obesity
  • Behaviour problems in Adolescence
49
Q

What is Achondroplasia ??

A

A D disorder (30% cases) a/w Short stature
- Mutation in Fibroblast Growth Factor receptor- 3 [FGFR-3] gene
- Results in Abnormal Cartilage
Maj. (70% cases) occurs due to SPORADIC mutation
- Main risk factor: Advancing Parental age at conception time

50
Q

Features of Achondroplasia ??

A
  • Rhizomelia (short limbs) + Short fingers (Brachydactyly)
  • Large head with Frontal bossing
  • Narrow Foramen Magnum
  • Midface Hypoplasia with Flat Nasal bridge
  • Trident hands
  • Lumbar lordosis
51
Q

Mention the Risk of Down’s syndrome with Maternal age

A

20 yrs = 1 in 1500
30 yrs = 1 in 800
35 yrs = 1 in 270
40 yrs = 1 in 100
45 yrs = 1 in 50 or greater

52
Q

How does Trisomy 21 occur in Down’s syndrome ??

A

Nondisjunction (94% cases): 1 in 100 if mother < 35yrs
Robertsonian translocation (onto 14)
- 5% cases
- 10-15% if mum & 2.5% if dad is a translocation carrier respectively
Mosaicism (1% cases)
- Presence of 2 genetically different population of cells in the body.

53
Q

MC cardiac defect in Trisomy 21 ??

A

Down’s Syndrome
- Endocardial Cushion defect (40%) aka AV Septal Canal defect

  • VSD (30%)
  • Secundum ASD (10%)
  • ToF (5%)
  • Isolated PDA (5%)
54
Q

What is Turner’s Synd. ??

A

Chromosomal disorder; affects 1 in 2500 FEMALES
- One X Chr. or Deletion of SHORT arm of 1 of the X Chr.
- 45, X0 or 45, X

55
Q

Cardiac defect & Renal defect seen in Turner’s ??

A
  • Bicuspid AV (15% cases)
  • Coarctation of Aorta (5- 10%)
    Horseshoe kidney
    [Cystic hygroma is often Dx. Prenatally]
56
Q

What is Noonan’s Synd. ??

A

A D condition a/w Normal Karyotype
“Male Turner’s”
Chr. 12 defect (‘Noon’an)

57
Q

Name the Cardiac & Coagulation problems seen with Noonan’s Synd. ??

A

Pulmonary Valve Stenosis
Factor XI defect

58
Q

What is Fabry’s disease ??

A

X-linked Recessive
Alpha-Galactosidase A deficiency
- Burning pain/ Paraesthesia in childhood
- Angiokeratomas
- Lens opacities
- Proteinuria
- Early CVS disease
- Decreased sweating
Rx.- Synthetic Alpha-GAL A

59
Q

What is Fragile X syndrome ??

A

Trinucleotide Repeat Disorder (CGG)
Features in MALES
- Learning difficulty
- Large low set ears, Long thin face, High arched palate, Hypotonia
- Macro-orchidism
- Mitral Valve Prolapse
Features in FEMALES
- They have 1 Fragile X & 1 Normal X
- Normal to Mild symptoms

60
Q

How can Fragile X syndrome be Diagnosed ??

A

Antenatally
- Chorionic Villi Sampling
- Amniocentesis
CGG analysis is done by using Restriction Endonuclease digestion & Southern Blotting

61
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Alkaptonuria ??

A

A R condition aka OCHRONOSIS
- Disorder of Phenylalanine & Tyrosine metabolism
- Lack of enzyme Homogentisic Dioxygenase (HGD) ==> build up of toxic Homogentisic acid => Kidney filters this => BLACK Urine & Eventually accumulate in Cartilage & other tissues

62
Q

Features of Alkaptonuria ??

A

Benign & Asymptomatic condition but ca cause the following C/F
- Pigmented Sclera
- Urine turns black when left exposed to air
- Intervertebral Disc Calcification => Backpain
- Renal Stones

63
Q

Rx. of Ochronosis ??

A

High dose Vit C
Dietary restriction of Phenylalanine & Tyrosine

64
Q

What is Phenylketonuria ??

A

A R condition; Phenylalanine metabolism disorder
- Defect: Phenylalanine Hydroxylase (an enzyme that converts Phenylalanine to Tyrosine)
- Deficiency of Tetrahydrobiopterin- deficient cofactor eg.- Secondary to defective Dihydrobiopterin reductase
BOTH leads to high levels of Phenylalanine which cause the c/f

65
Q

Features of PKU ??

A

Presents by 6 months eg.- with developmental delay
- Fair hair + Blue eyes
- Learning difficulty
- Seizures (Infantile spasms- typical)
- Eczema
- MUSTY Odour of Urine & Sweat (secondary to PHENYLACETATE, a Phenylketone)

66
Q

Dx. & Rx. of PKU ??

A

Guthrie test (heel prick done at 5-9 days of life)
Hyperphenylalaninaemia
Phenylpyruvic acid in Urine
Rx.
- Strict diet prevents learning disabilities (Poor evidence)
- Dietary restriction in Pregnancy as genetically normal fetus may be affected by high maternal Phenylalanine levels

67
Q

Fruity odour
Garlic odour
Almond smell
Musty body odour
Burnt sugar odour

A

DKA
Arsenic Poisoning
Cyanide poisoning
Phenylketonuria
Maple syrup urine disease

68
Q

Name a few X-linked Dominant disorders ??

A

Alport’s syndrome (85% cases & the rest via A R inheritance)
Rett Disease
Vit D Resistant Rickets

69
Q
A

It takes 2 enzymes to synthesize Glycogen
- Glycogen Synthase => creates Alpha 1,4 bonds
After creating, we branch it=>
- Branching Enzyme: creates Alpha 1,6 bonds
Repeat this over & over, we get Glycogen
If Branching enzymes are missing => Long chains of Glycogen : Anderson’s disease
It takes 3 enzymes to breakdown Glycogen
- Glycogen Phosphorylase breaks down Alpha 1, 4 bonds
- De-branching enzyme breaks down Alpha 1, 6 bonds
Final Step is via: G6Phosphatase

70
Q
A

Absent Glycogen Phosphorylase in the muscle
- McCardle’s
Absent Glycogen Phosphorylase in the Heart
- Pompeii’s
G Phosphorylase aka Alpha 1,4 Glucosidase

71
Q
A

Absence of De-Branching enzyme=> Very short branches branches or Short Chains on Glycogen
- Cori’s
Absent Glucose 6 Phosphatase
- Von-Girke’s