Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What are Proto-oncogenes ??

A

They play an important physiological role in cellular growth & differentiation
- Oncogenes are derived from this
- ‘Gain of Func.” results in an increased risk of cancer; only 1 mutated copy is needed (a Dominant effect)

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2
Q

Through what processes do Proto-oncogenes become an Oncogene ??

A

Mutation (Point mutation)
Chromosomal translocation
Increased Protein Expression

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3
Q

Name cancers a/w EBV ??

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Post Transplant Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal CA

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4
Q

Name the Cancers a/w Human Papilloma Virus 16/ 18 ??

A

Cervical cancer
Anal Cancer
Penile Cancer
Vulval Cancer
Oropharyngeal Cancer

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5
Q

Name the Cancers a/w the following viruses
- Human Herpes Virus 8
- HBV
- HCV
- Human T- Lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV1)

A
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  • HCC
  • HCC
  • Tropical Spastic Paraparesis & Adult T cell Leukaemia
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5
Q

What are Tumour Suppressor Genes ??

A

Genes which control the normal cell cycle
- Loss of func. leads to increased risk of cancer
- BOTH alleles must be mutated before Ca occurs

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5
Q

Examples of Tumour Suppressor Genes ??

A
  • p53: Common to many Cancers, Li-Fraumeni synd.
  • APC: Colorectal Cancer
  • BRCA1 & BRCA2: Breast & Ovarian Ca ; In men increased risk of Breast & Prostate cancer
    NF1: Neurofibromatosis
    Rb: Retinoblastoma
    WT1: Wilm’s tumour
    Multiple Tumour Suppressor 1 (MTS-1, p16) : Melanoma
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6
Q

What is p53 ??

A

Tumour Suppressor Gene on Chr 17p
- MC mutated gene in Breast, Colon, Lung cancer
- Plays a crucial role in Cell cycle- preventing entry into S phase
- Key regulator of Apoptosis

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7
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni syndrome ??

A
  • A D disorder
  • Early onset of variety of cancers such as Sarcoma, Breast Ca, Leukaemias
  • Caused by p53 mutation
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8
Q

Which brain tumours produce
- Late symptoms ??
- Early symptoms ??

A
  • Rt. Temporal & Frontal lobe tumours reach considerable size before becoming symptomatic
  • Tumours in the Speech & Visual areas, typically produce Early symptoms
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9
Q

Types of CNS tumours ??

A

Glioma & Metastatic disease (60%)
Meningioma (20%)
Pituitary lesions (10%)
Dx.- MRI scan
In Paediatrics: Medulloblastoma (Neuroendocrinal tumour) were the commonest; ASTROCYTOMA now accounts for the majority

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10
Q

Indications for Temporal Artery Biopsy ??

A

Superficial Temporal A is a terminal branch of External C A
Temporal Arteritis
- Age of onset > 50 yrs
- New onset Headache/ Localized Head pain
- Temporal artery tenderness on palpation or Reduced pulsation
- ESR > 50 mm/hr

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11
Q

Procedure of T A biopsy ??

A
  • Position: Supine, Head 45 degrees
  • USS doppler to locate the artery or Palpate
  • Local Anaesthesia
  • Artery within Temporoparietal fascia
  • Clamp & Ligate the vessel
  • Cut 3 to 5 cms
  • Ligate the remaining ends with Absorbable suture
  • Close the skin
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12
Q

Histopathology of Temporal artery biopsy in T Arteritis ??

A

Vessel wall Granulomatous arteritis with Mononuclear cell infiltrates & Giant cell formation

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13
Q

What is the CI for Temporal A Biopsy
& the risk involved with the procedure ??

A
  • Glucocorticoid Therapy for > 30 days
  • Injury to Facial & Auriculotemporal Nerve
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14
Q

Main frameworks used to tackle pts. who refuse Rx. ??

A

COMMON law: Used to treat pts. in Emergency scenarios
Mental CAPACITY Act (MCA)
- Used in pts. who require Rx. for physical disorders that affects brain func.
- Eg.- Delirium secondary to sepsis, Dementia
Mental HEALTH Act (MHA)
- Used in pts. with Mental disorder
- In pts. who are already admitted, a section 5(2) is used if this is not the time for more formal section 2 or 3
- Eg.- Pt. with mental disorder + Attempting to discharge themselves (when it is thought it may harm the pt.)

15
Q

MC sites of Brain tumour in
- Adults ??
- Childhood ??

A
  • Supratentorial
  • Infratentorial
15
Q

MC Metastatic brain tumours ??

A

MC form of Brain tumour
- Lung Cancer (most common)
- Breast
- Bowel
- Skin (Melanoma)
- Kidney

15
Q

What is Glioblastoma multiforme ??

A

MC primary tumour in adults & is a/w poor prognosis (1 year)
- Solid tumour + Central necrosis & a rim that enhances with contrast
- Disruption of BBB => a/w Vasogenic Oedema
- HP: Pleomorphic tumour cells border necrotic areas
Rx: Sx + Post-Op. CT & RT
DEXAMETHASONE to treat Edema

16
Q

What is Meningioma ??

A

2nd MC primary brain tumour in adults
- Benign, extrinsic tumours of CNS
- Origin: Arachnoid cap cells of meninges
- Site: Next to Dura; Falx cerebri, Superior sagittal sinus, Convexity or Skull base
- HP: Spindle cells in concentric whorls + Psammoma bodies-calcified
C/F - Compression symptoms rather than Invasion
Rx.- Observation, RT & Sx. resection

17
Q

What is Vestibular Schwannoma ??

A

aka Acoustic Neuroma is a benign tumour arising from 8th CN
- Site: CP angle
- NF-2 is a/w B/L V S
- HP: Antoni A or B pattern is seen. Verocay bodies- Acellular areas surrounded by nuclear palisades
- C/F: D V T, SNHL, Facial N palsy, Corneal reflex absent
Rx.- Observation, RT, Sx.

18
Q

MC primary brain tumour in Children ??

A

PILOCYTIC ASTROCYTOMA
- HP: Rosenthal fibres (Corkscrew Eosinophillic bundle)

18
Q

What is Medulloblastoma ??

A

Aggressive paediatric brain tumour
- Site: Infratemporal compartment
- Spread: CSF system
- HP: Small, blue cells. Rosette pattern of cells with many mitotic figures

18
Q

What is Ependymoma ??

A

Primary brain tumour which is a type of Glioma that starts from Ependymal cells
- Site: 4th ventricle
- May cause Hydrocephalus
- HP: Perivascular Pseudorosettes

18
Q
A

Primary brain tumour which is a type of glioma (Glial cells)
- Benign, slow growing tumour
- Site: Frontal lobes
- HP: Calcifications with ‘Fried Egg” appearance

19
Q

What is Haemangioblastoma ??

A

Vascular Benign tumour of the Cerebellum
- a/w Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
- HP: Foam cells & High vascularity

20
Q

Flying is CI in which CVS conditions ??

A

Unstable Angina
Uncontrolled HTN
Uncontrolled Cardiac Arrhythmia
Decompensated Heart disease
Severe symptomatic valvular disease

21
Q

Relative CI for flying in CVS conditions ??

A

Uncomplicated MI: Can fly after 7 to 10 days
Coronary Artery Bypass graft : After 10 to 14 days
PCI : after 3 days
Stroke : Wait for 10 days following event, BUT if stable, may be carried out within 3 days of the event

22
Q

Restrictions to flying in Resp. conditions ??

A

Pneumonia: Clinically improved with NO residual infection
Pneumothorax: Absolute CI;
- CAA suggests pts. may travel 2 wks. after successful drainage IF there is no residual air
- BTS: NOT to travel for 1 week post check x-ray

23
Q

Conditions to fly in Pregnancy ??

A

Most airlines do not allow travel
- after 36 wks. in 1st pregnancy &
- after 32 wks. in multiple pregnancy
Most airlines require a certificate after 28 wks confirming that pregnancy is progressing normally

24
Q

Conditions to fly after the following
- Abdominal Sx. ??
- Laparoscopic Sx. ??
- Colonoscopy ??
- Following Plaster Cast application ??

A
  • Avoid for 10 days
  • After 24 hrs
  • After 24 hrs
  • Restrict flying for 24 hrs on flights of < 2hrs (OR) 48 hrs for longer flights
25
Q

Conditions to fly with Haematological disorders ??

A

Pts. with Hb > 8 g/dl may travel without problems (assuming there is no coexisting conditions such as CVS or Resp. diseases)

26
Q

Drugs that should be avoided during Breast feeding ??

A
  • Ciprofloxacin, Tetracyclines, Chloramphenicol, Sulfonamides
  • Lithium, BZPs, Clozapine
  • Aspirin
  • Carbimazole
  • MTX, Cytotoxic drugs
  • Sulfonylureas
  • Amiodarone
27
Q

Drugs that are safe while Breast feeding ??

A
  • Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Trimethoprim
  • Glucocorticoids (avoid high doses), Levothyroxine
  • Na Valproate, Carbamazepine
  • Salbutamol, Theophyllines
  • TCAs Antipsychotics (avoid Clozapine)
  • Beta-blockers, Hydralazine
  • Warfarin, Heparin
  • Digoxin
28
Q

Major CI for Breast feeding ??

A
  • Galactosaemia
  • Viral Infections (Controversial with respect to HIV in the developing world)