Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Define
- Pharmacodynamics
- Pharmacokinetics

A
  • What the drug does to the body
  • What the body does to the drug
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2
Q

What are the 4 main types of Cellular targets ??

A
  • Ion channels (agonist/ antagonist)
    {eg. local anaesthetics (works on voltage gated Na+ channels)}
  • G protein coupled receptors (produce action through 2nd messengers such as cAMP) eg. Adrenoreceptors
  • Tyrosine Kinase receptors (eg. Insulin)
  • Nuclear receptors (located within nucleus & drug MUST be Lipid soluble) eg. Prednisolone, levothyroxine
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3
Q

Types of Antagonists ??

A

Competitive (binds to the same site of the agonist==> prevents agonist from binding)
Non- competitive (Antagonist occupies another site==> this causes conformational change in binding site of agonist)

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4
Q

What is Efficacy ??

A

-Maximal effect a drug can produce (intrinsic activity)- represented by ‘y-value’ (Vmax)
increase in y-value= increase Vmax= Increase Efficacy
- Efficacious drugs can have high/low Potency

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5
Q

What is Potency ??

A

Amount of drug needed for a given effect - represented by x-value (EC50)
- Left shift= decrease EC50= Increase potency= lower drug needed
- Unrelated to Efficacy ie. Potent drugs can have high or low efficacy

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6
Q

What is Zero-order elimination ??

A

“Metabolism INDEPENDENT of conc. of drug”
Rate of elimination is constant regardless of Cp (Constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time)
{Due to Saturation of Met. processes}
- Cp decreases LINEARLY with time
eg- Phenytoin, Ethanol & Aspirin (Salicylates), Heparin
PEA H

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7
Q

What is 1st order elimination ??

A

Elimination is directly proportional to Drug conc. (constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time)
- Cp decreases EXPONENTIALLY with time
- Applies to most drugs

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8
Q

Give eg. for
- Capacity limited elimination
- Flow limited elimination

A
  • Zero-order elimination (PEA H drugs)
  • First-order elimination
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9
Q

In how many phases are drug eliminated ??

A

Phase 1 & Phase 2 (occurs in LIVER)
- Geriatric pts. lose Phase 1 first
- Slow acetylators ==> decreased rate of metabolism == increase S/E

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10
Q

Hallmark of Phase 1 ??

A
  • Lipophilic drugs undergo phase 1
  • CYP450 predominance
  • has 3 steps (REDUCTION, OXIDATION, HYDROLYSIS)
  • Leads to the formation of Toxic Metabolites { Slightly polar metabolite (active or inactive) & ROS metabolites}
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11
Q

Hallmark of Phase 2 ??

A
  • Polar drugs (H2O soluble) undergo phase 2
  • 4 steps (METHYLATION, GLUCURONIDATION, ACETYLATION, SULFATION)
  • Inactive Metabolites {Very polar, hydrophillic metabolite produced (EXCEPT Acetylated metabolites)}
  • Excretion: Serum (urine, sweat), Bile (stools)
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12
Q

Name the drugs which act on Serotonin receptors (Agonists & Antagonists)

A
  • 5-HTr (+) used in Migraine (ACUTE Rx.) eg. Sumatriptan, Ergotamine [partial (+)]
  • 5-HTr (-) used in Migraine (PROPHYLAXIS) eg.- Pizotifen [5-HT2 r (-) used in migraine prophylaxis]
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13
Q

Anti-diarrhoeal drug used in Carcinoid synd. ??

A

CYPROHEPTAHDINE [5-HT2 r (-)]

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14
Q

MoA of Ondansetron ??

A

5-HT3 r (-) used as Anti-emetic

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15
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on Statins ??

A

LFT (Baseline, at 3 months & at 12 months)

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16
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on Amiodarone ??

A

LFT, TFT, U&E, CXR - PRIOR to Rx.
LFT & TFT every 6 months

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17
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on Digoxin ??

A

ECG, U&E at least 6 hrs. post-dose

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18
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on MTX ??

A

FBC, LFT & U&E
- Prior to Rx.
- Weekly until Rx. stabilised
- Every 2 to 3 months after stabilizing

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19
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on Azathioprine ??

A
  • FBC, LFT before Rx.
  • FBC weekly for the 1st 4 wks.
  • FBC, LFT every 3 months
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20
Q

Lithium Monitoring ??

A

Lithium levels
- T range : 0.4 to 1.0 mmol/l
- 12 hrs. post-dose
- Weekly until stabilized
- 3 monthly after stabilizing
TFT, U&E before Rx. & Every 6 months

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21
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on Sodium Valprote ??

A
  • LFT, FBC before Rx.
  • LFT “PERIODICALLY” during 1st 6 months
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22
Q

What should we monitor in pts. on Glitazones ??

A

LFT
- Prior Rx.
- ‘Regularly’ during Rx.

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23
Q

For which drugs do we check the Trough levels immediately before Rx.

A

Ciclosporin
Phenytoin (checked before dose ONLY if
- Dose adjustment done
- Suspected TOXICITY
- NON-ADHERENCE detected

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24
Q

Which drugs have a narrow Therapeutic Index (TI) ??

A

“Warning These Drugs Are Lethal”
- Warfarin
- Theophilline
- Digoxin
- Anti-epileptics
- Lithium

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25
Q

Drugs which INDUCES Cytochrome P450 ??

A

“Ind. - CRAP2 MNGs2”
- Carbamazepine
- Rifampin
- Alcohol (CHRONIC)
- Phenytoin
- Phenobarbital
- Modafinil
- Nevirapine
- Griseofulvin
- St. John’s wort
- Smoking (affects CYPIA2, therefore higher doses of Aminophilline needed)

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26
Q

Drugs which INHIBITS Cytochrome P450 ??

A

2SICK F2(AC)ES ROGQ
- Sodium Valproate
- Sulfonamides
- Isoniazid
- Cimetidine
- Ketoconazole
- Fluconazole
- Alcohol (ACUTE overuse)
- Chloramphenicol
- Ciprofloxacin
- Erythromycin/ Clarithromycin
- SSRIs- Fluoxetine, Sertraline
- Ritonavir
- Omeprezole
- Grapefruit juice
- Quinupristine

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27
Q

Give examples of Sulfa drugs and their S/E

A

“Scary Sulfa Pharm FACTS”
- Sulfonamide ABx.
- Sulfonamides
- Probenecid
- Furosemide
- Acetazolamide
- Celecoxib
- Thiazides
- Sulfonylureas

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28
Q

Which drugs are affected by Acetylator status ??

A

50% of UK population are Hepatic-N-Acetyltransferase deficient.
DHIPS
- Dapsone
- Hydralazine
- Isoniazid
- Procainamide
- Sulfasalazine

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29
Q

Through which pathway does Adrenoreceptors work ??

A

All are G-protein coupled
- Alpha 1: activate Phospholipase C –> IP3 –> DAG
- Alpha 2: Inhibits Adenylate cyclase
- Beta 1, 2, 3: Stimulates adenylate cyclase

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30
Q

Give examples of Alpha & Beta r AGONISTS

A

Alpha 1- PHENYLEPHRINE
Alpha 2- CLONIDINE

Beta 1- DOBUTAMINE
Beta 2- SALBUTAMOL
Beta 3- being developed (stimulates LIPOLYSIS)

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31
Q

Give eg. of Alpha & Beta ANTAGONISTS

A

Alpha 1- DOXAZOSIN
Alpha 1a- TAMSULOSIN (acts mainly on Uro-genital tract)
Non-Selective- PHENOXYBENZAMINE (was previously used in PAD)

Beta 1- ATENELOL
Non-Selective- PROPRANOLOL

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32
Q

Which drugs have MIXED alpha & beta ANTAGONISM ??

A

CARVIDILOL & LABETELOL

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33
Q

What is the dose of ADRENALINE in
- Anphylaxis ??
- Cardiac arrest ??

A

It is a SYMPATHOMIMETIC Amine with both alpha & beta stimulating actions
- 0.5ml 1:1000 (IM)
- 10ml 1:10000 (IV) or 1ml 1:1000 (IV)

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34
Q

How to manage accidental injection of Adrenaline ??

A

Local infiltration of PHENTOLAMINE

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35
Q

Beta blocker overdose Rx. ??

A

Bradycardia - ATROPINE
Resistant cases - GLUCAGON

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36
Q

Types of CCBs ??

A

Acts on Voltage gated Ca2+ channel present in Myocardial cells, Conduction system, Vascular SM

Non-Dihydropyridines (“ND is VD”)
- Verapamil
- Diltiazem
Dihydropyridines
- Nifedipine, Amlodipine, Felodipine

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37
Q

Difference b/w the 2 types of CCBs ??

A

BOTH acts on Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Non- Dihydropyridines
- acts on both HEART [(-ve) Ionotrophic Verapamil&raquo_space;>Diltiazem] & Vascular SM
Dihydropyridines
- acts more on Peripheral vascular SM than the heart (so, they do not worsen HF)

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38
Q

Imp. S/E of Ergot derived DA r agonists ??

A

Bromocriptine, Cabergoline, Pergolide
- Pulm., Retroperitoneal, Cardiac FIBROSIS

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39
Q

What is Oculogyric Crisis ??

A

Dystonic reaction to certain drugs/ medical condition
- Restless + Agitated + Involuntary UPWARD deviation of eyes

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40
Q

How dose the following occur:
- Mydriasis ??
- Miosis ??

A
  • Alpha 1 r mediated; RADIAL muscle contraction
  • M3 r mediated; Sphincter muscle contraction
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41
Q

What drugs cause MYDRIASIS ??

A
  • Anti-Cholinergics: Atropine, TCAs, Tropicamide, Scopalamine, Antihistamines
  • Sympathomimetics: Indirect (Amphetamines, Cocaine, LSD)
    ACL
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42
Q

What drugs cause MIOSIS ??

A

Sympatholytics: Alpha 2 (+), Opioids except Meperidine
Parasympathomimetics: Pilocarpine, Organophospates

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43
Q

Hallmark feature of Salicylate poisoning ??

A

Hyperventilation, TINNITUS, pyrexia, N & V, sweating
Children: Met. Acidosis predominates

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44
Q

Rx. of Salicylate poisoning ??

A
  • ABC, Charcoal
  • Urinary Alkalinization + IV (NaHCO3)
  • Haemodialysis
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45
Q

How to differentiate Aspirin poisoning from Cinchonism ??

A

CNS c/f- Tinnitus, Deafness, Visual defects are
- Transient in Aspirin poisoning
- Permanent in Quinine toxicity

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46
Q

Indication of Haemodialysis in Salicylate poisoning ??

A

S conc. > 700 mg/L
Met. Acidosis resistant to Rx.
Acute Renal F
Pulm. Edema
Seizures
Coma

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47
Q

PCM metabolic pathway ??

A

Normally PCM conjugates with GLUCORONIC Acid/Sulphate
- Overdose==> Saturated conjugation system==> Oxidation by P450 mixed func. oxidases occurs==> N-Acetyl-B-Benzoquinone produced (toxic metabolite)
Normally, GLUTATHIONE conjugates with NABBq to form MERCAPTURIC Acid (non toxic)
- Glutathione stores run out==> NABBq forms Covalent bond with cell protein==> Denatures, Cell death
This process occurs in HEPATOCYTES & Renal TUBULES

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48
Q

What is the King’s College Hospital criteria for Liver transplantation ??

A

Arterial pH < 7.3 (or) ALL of the following
- Prothrombin time > 100 sec.
- Grade III or IV Encephalopathy
- S Cr. > 300 umol/l

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49
Q

Indication to start N-Acetyl Cysteine in PCM overdose ??

A

NAC is the precursor of Glutathione (increases its hepatic production)
- Staggered overdose (all tab. NOT taken within 1 hr.)
- Doubt over time of PCM intake
- Plasma PCM conc. on/above a single Rx. line [100mg at 4 hrs & 15mg at 15hrs]

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50
Q

TCA overdose C/F ??

A

Early- Anti-cholinergic prop. (Dry mouth, MYDRIASIS, agitated, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision)
Arrhythmias
Seizures
Met. Acidosis
Coma

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51
Q

ECG changes seen in TCA overdose ??

A

Sinus Tachycardia
QT interval prolonged
QRS widening
- >100ms: increased risk of SEIZURES
- > 160ms: VENTRICULAR Arrhythmias

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52
Q

St. John’s Wort ??

A

similar to SSRI’s & also has NE uptake inhibition
- as effective as TCAs in Rx. of Mild-moderate depression

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53
Q

OP poisoning
- MoA
- C/F

A

OPs (-) Acetylcholineesterases==> Upregulates NICOTINIC & MUSCARINIC Cholinergic neurotransmission ==> SLUD c/f
- Salivation
- Lacrimation
- Urination
- Defecation/ Diarrhoea
- Hypotension, Bradycardia
- MIOSIS

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54
Q

Rx. of OP poisoning ??

A

ATROPINE
Pralidoxime (role unclear)

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55
Q

Carbon Monoxide poisoning effect on O2 dissociation curve ??

A
  • Left shift & Tissue Hypoxia
  • O2 sats. of Hb decreases ==> EARLY Plateau in the curve
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56
Q

What are the typical CarboxyHb levels ??

A

< 3% in Non-Smokers
3 to 10% in Smokers
10 to 30% - Headache, N & V
> 30% - Severe toxicity

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57
Q

Indication of Hyperbaric O2 therapy in CO poisoning ??

A
  • CNS signs other than Headacha
  • Cardiac Ischaemia
  • LoC at any time
  • Arrhythmia
  • Pregnancy
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58
Q

How does Cyanide poisoning occur ??

A

It is used in Insecticides, Photograph devt. & Metal production

It (-) Cytochrome C Oxidase enzyme ==> cessation of Mitochondrial electron chain transfer

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59
Q

C/F & Rx. of Cyanide poisoning ??

A

BRICK-RED skin, BITTER Almond smell
- Acute: Hypoxia, Hypotension, Headache, Confusion
- Chronic: Ataxia, Peripheral neuropathy, Dermatitis

ABCs
(IV) Hydroxocobalamin, also,
Amyl nitrite (inhaled) + Na nitrite (IV) + Na Thiosulfate (IV)

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60
Q

What injury is MC seen with the ingestion of
- Strong Alkali ??
- Strong Acid ??

A
  • Oesophagus (LIQUIFACTIVE Necrosis)
  • Gastric (COAGULATIVE Necrosis)
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61
Q

CI of use of FLECAINIDE ??

A
  • Post- MI
  • STRUCTURAL HEART Disease (eg. HF)
  • SAN dysfunction (2nd degree/ greater AV block)
  • ATRIAL FLUTTER
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62
Q

Indications & S/E of Flecainide ??

A

AF
SVT a/w Accessory pathway (WPW)
S/E
- Negatively Inotropic
- Bradycardia
- Proarrhythmic
- Oral paraesthesia
- Visual disturbances

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63
Q

What is Amiodarone induced Hypothyroidism ??

A

High Iodine content of Amiodarone causes WOLFF-CHAIKOFF effect (Temporary protective mechanism of the thyroid gland that protects it from excessive iodine level)
- Amiodarone can be continued if desirable

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64
Q

What is Amiodarone induced Thyrotoxicosis ??

A

2 types
- AIT type 1: Excess Iodine induced synthesis of thyroid. Goitre is PRESENT
- AIT type 2: Drug related destructive thyroiditis. Goitre is ABSENT

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65
Q

What is the Rx. of
- Amiodarone Induced Thyrotoxicosis type 1 ??
- AIT type 2 ??

A
  • Carbimazole or K+ perchlorate
  • AIT type 2:- Corticosteroids

Unlike in AIH, the drug has to be STOPPED IF possible in pts. with AIT

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66
Q

What is Digoxin ??

A

Cardiac gylcoside (Mainly used in RATE Control in AF)

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67
Q

MoA of Digoxin ??

A
  • Decrease conduction via AV Node==> Slows VENTRICULAR Rate in AF & Flutter
  • Increases myocardial force of contraction via (-) of Na+/K+/ATPase pump
  • Stimulates VAGUS nerve
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68
Q

What is a hallmark feature about Digoxin toxicity ??

A

Toxicity is not dependant solely on drug plasma conc. as it can also occur within therapeutic range
Likelihood of toxicity rises progressively from 1.5 to 3 mcg/l

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69
Q

Features of Digoxin toxicity ??

A

Lethargy, N & V, Anorexia
- YELLOW-GREEN Vision, Confusion
- GYNAECOMASTIA
- Arrhythmias (AV block, Bradycardia)
- REVERSE Check/ Tick sign on ECG

70
Q

What are the ppt. factors of Digoxin toxicity ??

A
  • HYPOKALAEMIA (digoxin binds to ATPase pump on the same site as K+) in hypo-K+, Digoxin more easily binds to the ATPase pump==> increased inhibitory effect
  • Hypo-Mg2+, Hypoalbuminaemia
  • Hyper Ca2+, Hyper Na+
  • Acidosis
  • Hypothermia, Hypothyroidism
  • Increasing age
  • Renal failure
  • MI
71
Q

Rx. of Digoxin toxicity ??

A

DIGIBIND
- monitor K+
- correct Arrhythmias

72
Q

What ppt. Lithium toxicity ??

A
  • Dehydration
  • Renal Failure
    Drugs
  • Diuretics (specially THIAZIDES)
  • ACEi/ ARBs
  • NSAIDs
  • Metronidazole
73
Q

Lithium toxicity Rx. ??

A

Mild to moderate: Vol. resuscitation with NS
Severe: Haemodialysis

74
Q

What are 2 possible types of Penicillin allergies ??

A
  • Intolerance/ Side Effect: eg. Diarrhoea
  • Coincidental rash: eg. Amoxicillin in pts. with Infectious Mononucleosis
75
Q

Which Cephalosporins can be used in pts. with H/o Penicillin allergy ??

A
  • Use with Caution: Cefixime, Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime, Ceftriaxone

Avoided are- Cefaclor, Cefadroxil, Cefalexin, Cefradine, Ceftaroline fosamil

76
Q

Types of Penicillins ??

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Benzyl P
Flucloxacillin
Amoxicillin
Ampicillin
Co-amoxiclav
Co-fluampicil (Magnapen)
Piperacillin with Tazobactam
Ticarcillin with Clavulanate

77
Q

What are the types of Heparin & their MoA ??

A

Both work by Antithrombin III activation
- Uf-H: forms complex with AT III ==>(-)Thrombin, 9a, 10a, 11a, 12a
- LMWH: forms complex with AT III ==> (-)10a

78
Q

What is HIT ??

A

Immune mediated Thrombocytopaenia (> 50% decrease in Plts.)
- Antibodies are formed against Plt. factor 4 (PF4) & Heparin ==> these antibodies bind to [PF4-H] complex on Plt. surface ==> activates Platelets [by cross linking with FcyIIA receptors]

79
Q

Risks involved with Aspirin use ??

A
  • NOT used in < 16 yrs (risk of Reye’s synd.)
  • Exception is KAWASAKI disease - aspirin can be used.
    It POTENTIATES the following drugs
  • OHAs
  • Warfarin
  • Steroids
80
Q

MoA of Aspirin ??

A

Cyclooxygenase- 1 & 2 inhibitor
COX is responsible for syn. of PGs, Prostacyclins, Thromboxane A2 (required for Plt. aggregation)

81
Q

Features of HIT ??

A
  • > 50% fall in plts., Thrombosis, Skin allergy
  • NOT developed until 5 to 10 days of Rx.
82
Q

Rx. of Heparin overdose ??

A

PROTAMINE SULFATE
[this only PARTIALLY reverses the LMWH effect]

83
Q

S/E of Heparin ??

A

Uf-H : Bleeding, HIT, Hyper-K+, OSTEOPOROSIS
LMWH : Bleeding, Lower risk of HIT & Osteoporosis

84
Q

How is Heparin monitored ??

A

Uf-H : APTT
LMWH : Anti-Factor 10a

85
Q

Mention indications of Immunoglobulins

A
  • Primary & Secondary immunodeficiency
  • ITP, MG, GBS
  • Kawasaki disease
  • Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
  • Pneumonitis due to CMV post transplantation
  • Dermatomyositis
  • Chr. Inflam. Demyelinating Polyradiculopathy
86
Q

What are the types of K+ sparing diuretics ??

A

Epithelial Na+ channel blockers at DCT
- Amiloride
- Triamterene
Aldosterone antagonist (at Collecting duct)
- Spironolactone
- Eplerenone

87
Q

Amiloride indications ??

A

Weak diuretic given with Thiazide/ Loop diuretics as an alternative to K+ supplementation

88
Q

Indication of Spironolactone ??

A
  • Ascites (secondary to cirrhosis due to hyperaldosteronism, large doses 100 or 200 mg used)
  • Heart Failure
  • Nephrotic Synd.
  • Conn’s Synd.

Should be used in caution when ACEi is used (Hyper-K+)

89
Q

Indications of Botox ??

A
  • Blepharospasm
  • Hemifacial spasms
  • Focal spasticity (CP, Stroke)
  • Spastic Torticollis
  • Severe HYPERHIDROSIS of Axillae
  • Achalasia
90
Q

What is Motion Sickness ??

A

Apparent discrepancy exists b/w VISUALLY perceived movt. & VESTIBULAR systems sense of movt. ==> N & V
Rx.
- HYOSCINE (transdermal patch) most effective
- Non-sedating antihistamines- CYCLIZINE or CINNARAZINE preferred over Sedating type- Promethazine

91
Q

How are Igs formed ??

A

From a large pool of donors (eg 5000)
IgG molecules with a subclass distribution similar to that of normal blood
Half life- 3 wks

92
Q

How are Monoclonal Antibodies produced ??

A

Somatic Cell Hybridization
- Fusion of Myeloma cells with SPLEEN cells from mouse which has been immunized with the desired antigen ==> Fused cells aka HYBRIDOMA acts as a factory for producing MC antibodies
- Main limitation: mouse antibodies are immunogenic ==> leads to Human anti-mouse antibody formation ==> which is overcome by a process- HUMANISING (combining the variable region from mouse with constant region from human antibody

93
Q

MoA of
- Infliximab
- Rituximab

A
  • anti-TNF (used in RA, Crohn’s)
  • anti-CD20 (used in RA & NHL)
94
Q

Features of Hypo-Mg2+ ??

A

Similar to Hypo-Ca2+
- Paraesthesia
- Tetany
- Seizures
- Arrhythmias
- Decreased PTH==> Hypo-Ca2+
- ECG features similar to Hypo-K+
- Exacerbates Digoxin toxicity

95
Q

What is Cinchonism ??

A

Quinine toxicity
- Tinnitus + Visual blurring + Flushed & dry skin + Abd. pain
Fatalality
- Short term cause: Arrhythmias, Flash Pulm. oedema
- Long term cause: Renal failure

96
Q

Rx. of Hypo-Mg2+ ??

A

< 0.4 mmol/L or Tetany, Arrhythmias or Seizures
- IV [Mg2+] replacement (40 mmol/L MgSO4 over 24 hrs)
> 0.4 mmol/L
- Oral Mg2+ salts (10 to 20 mmol/day)
- DIARRHOEA can occur with oral Mg salts

97
Q

Hallmark features of Cinchonism ??

A

QRS prolonged: due to Na+ blockade
QT prolonged: due to K+ blockade
- Hypoglycaemia (stimulates Insulin synthesis)
- Flash Pulm. Oedema (causes Hypoxia ==> necessitating PPV)
- CNS c/f are PERMANENT but is Transient in Aspirin poisoning

98
Q

Rx. of Cinchonism ??

A

Largely Supportive
- Fluids, Ionotropes, HCO3, PPV
Quinine cannot be extracted by Extracorporeal method

99
Q

Tell the following for OCTREOTIDE
- MoA ??
- S/E ??

A
  • Long acting SOMATOSTATIN Analogue [normally D cells of pancreas produce this==> (-) release of GH, Glucagon, Insulin]
  • GALLSTONES (secondary to biliary stasis)
100
Q

Indication of Octreotide ??

A
  • Acute Rx. of Variceal Bleed
  • Acromegaly
  • Carcinoid
  • Following pancreatic Sx. (prevents complications)
  • VIPomas
  • Refractory diarrhoea
101
Q

Drugs that exacerbate HF ??

A
  • Pioglitazone (fluid retention)
  • Verapamil [(-) Inotrope]
  • Flecainide [Class Ic]- (-) Ionotropic & pro-arrhythmic effect
    Fluid retention
  • NSAID’s (except Low dose Aspirin)
  • Glucocorticoids (Fluid retention)
102
Q

What drugs should be avoided in Renal Failure pts. ??

A
  • Abx.- Tetracyclines, Nitrofurantoin
  • NSAIDs
  • Lithium
  • Metformin
103
Q

Which drugs have the tendency to accumulate in Chronic Renal Failure pts. ??

A
  • Most Abx. including Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Vancomycin, Gentamycin & Streptomycin
  • Digoxin, Atenelol
  • MTX
  • Sulfonylureas
  • Furosemide
  • Opioids
104
Q

Drugs Relatively safe in Renal Failure ??

A
  • Abx. ERYTHROMYCIN, RIFAMPICIN
  • Diazepam
  • Warfarin
105
Q

Which drugs can be cleared with Haemodialysis ??

A

BLAST
- Barbiturates
- Lithium
- Alcohol (including methanol, ethylene glycol)
- Salicylates
- Theophylline (CHARCOAL haemoperfusion preferred)

106
Q

Drugs which CANNOT be cleared with haemodialysis ??

A

2BDT
- BZPs
- Beta blockers
- Digoxin
- Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
- TCAs

107
Q

Drugs that commonly cause Urticaria ??

A

“Ur- PAN O”
- Penicillins
- Aspirin
- NSAIDs
- Opiates

108
Q

Drugs that cause Lung Fibrosis ??

A
  • Amiodarone
  • Anti-Rheumatoid drugs: MTX, Sulfasalazine
  • Cytotoxics: Busulphan, Bleomycin
  • Ergot derived DA agoinst: Bromocriptine, Cabergoline, Pergolide
  • NITROFURANTOIN
109
Q

Nicorandil (K+ channel opener) S/E ??

A
  • Anal ulceration
  • Headache
  • Flushing
110
Q

Beta blockers S/E ??

A
  • Bronchospasm (specially in Asthmatics)
  • Fatigue
  • Cold peripheries
  • Sleep disturbance
111
Q

Sulphonylureas S/E ??

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Increased appetite & Wt. gain
  • SIADH
  • Cholestatic liver dysfunc.
112
Q

Name the drugs causing AGRANULOCYTOSIS ??

A
  • Carbimazole, PTU
  • Atypical antipsychotics: Clozapine
  • Carbamazepine
  • Penicillins, Chloramphenicol, Co-trimoxazole
  • Mirtazapine (Anti-depressants)
  • MTX
113
Q

Name the drugs known to cause Impaired Glucose Tolerance

A
  • Thiazide
  • Furosemide (less commonly)
  • Steroids
  • Tacrolimus, Ciclosporin
  • IFN-alpha
  • Nicotinic acid
  • Antipsychotics
  • BETA-BLOCKERS (slight impairment)
114
Q

Drug induced Thrombocytopaenia causes ??

A
  • Quinine
  • Abciximab
  • NSAIDs
  • Furosemide
  • Penicillins, Sulfonamide, Rifampicin
  • Carbamazepine, Na Valproate
  • Heparin
115
Q

Names the drugs causing Urinary Retention

A
  • TCAs: Amitriptyline
  • Opioids
  • NSAIDs
  • Disopyramide
  • Anticholinergics
  • Antipsychotics, Antihistamines
116
Q

Drugs causing corneal opacities ??

A
  • Amiodarone (also causes Optic neuritis)
  • Indomethacin
117
Q

Drugs causing Optic Neuritis

A

Ethambutol
Amiodarone
Metronidazole

118
Q

S/E of Sildenafil ??

A
  • Blue discolouration of Retina
  • Non-arteritic Anterior Ischaemic Neuropathy
119
Q

Drugs causing Retinopathy ??

A

Chloroquine
Quinine
Sildenafil

120
Q

What is Finasteride ??

A

5 Alpha-reductase inhibitor
(enzyme which converts Testosterone to DHT)
Used in
- BPH
- Male-pattern baldness

121
Q

S/E of Finasteride ??

A
  • Impotence
  • Decreased Libido
  • Ejaculation problems
  • Gynaecomastia & Breast tenderness
  • Decrease PSA levels
122
Q

PDE-V inhibitor MoA ??

A

Increases cAMP ==> SM relaxation
Used in
- Erectile dysfunction
- Pulm. HTN

123
Q

Mention the following about PDE-5 inhibitor
- CI ??

A

CI :
- Pts. on NITRATES & related drugs (eg. Nicorandil)
- Recent Stroke, MI (wait for 6 months)

124
Q

Give egs. of PDE-5 inhibitors

A

Sildenafil (Viagra)
- 1st PDE-5 inhibitor drug
- Short acting (taken 1 hr before sex)
TADALAFIL (Cialis)
- Longer acting than sildenafil
- Can be taken on a regular basis
VARDENAFIL (Levitra)

125
Q

S/E of PDE-5 inhibitors ??

A

Visual disturbance
- Blue discolouration
- Non-arteretic Anterior Ischaemic Neuropathy
Nasal congestion, Flushing
GI side effects
Priapism
Headache

126
Q

Moa of METFORMIN ??

A

Acts by AMP-activated Protein Kinase activation
- Increases Insulin Sensitivity
- Decreases Hepatic Gluconeogenesis
- may also Reduce GI absorption of Carbohydrates

127
Q

S/E of Metformin ??

A
  • GI upset (Nausea, Anorexia, Diarrhoea)
  • Reduced Vit-B12 absorption
  • Lactic Acidosis (in Severe liver disease or Renal failure)
128
Q

CI for Metformin use ??

A

Dose reviewed: Cr > 130 umol/l or eGFR < 45 ml/min
Stopped: Cr > 150 umol/l or eGFR < 30 ml/min
Iodine-containing X-ray Contrast media (eg.-Angiography, IVP): Stop Metformin on the day of procedure & for 48hrs thereafter

129
Q

Tell the MoA of the following
- Statins
- Ezetimibe
- Nicotinic acid
- Fibrates
- Cholestyramine

A
  • HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
  • Decrease Cholesterol absorption from Small Intestine
  • Decreases Hepatic VLDL secretion
  • PPAR-alpha agonists==> increases LPL expression
  • Decreases Bile acid reabsorption in SI ==> Upregulates the amount of Cholesterol converted to BA
130
Q

What are Novel Psychoactive Substances (NPS) ??

A

STIMULANTS (eg- Mephedrone, Benzylpiperazine)
CANNABINOIDS (referred as ‘Spice’)
HALLUCINOGENS- can be Dissociatives (eg.-Methoxetamine) or Psychedelics
DEPRESSANTS (Opioid/ BZP based)-
OTHER substances

131
Q

What are Stimulant Novel Psychoactive Substances ??

A

Stimulants
- Similar to MDMA, Amphetamines, Cocaine
- Causes Increased Serotonin, DA, Noradrenaline => High/ Euphoria
- Eg.- Mephedrone (‘bath salt’, M-CAT, ‘meow meow’) It is a Cathinone & structurally similar to Khat
- Eg.- Benzylpiperazine (Exodus, Legal X, Legal E)
- Swallowed as Pill/Powder (Bombing) or Snorted
- S/E: similar to MDMA/Cocaine + Serotonin syndrome

132
Q

What are Cannabinoids NPS ??

A
  • Synthetic Cannabinoid r AGONISTS
  • Common name: ‘Spice’
  • Sprayed on herbal mixture & Smoked
  • Also available in Liquid form- used in e-cigarettes
  • S/E: similar to Cannabis
133
Q

What are Hallucinogenics NPS ??

A

They are Dissociatives/ Psychedelics
- Dissociatives: Ketamine like effect with sense of not connected to body or time. eg.- Methoxetamine (‘mexxy’)
- Psychedelics: LSD like effect but NPS version can also be a stimulant

134
Q

What are Depressant NPS ??

A

Either Opioid or BZP based
- Pill/ Powder
- Str. very similar to original drug class, so, S/E are similar
- BZP-NPS: have Longer 1/2 life

135
Q

What are Other substances of NPS ??

A
  • Gamma-Hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) & Gamma-Butyrolactone (GBL): ‘G’, ‘Geebs’ or ‘Liquid Ecstacy’
  • GHB: Resp. depressant, when takes with [-OH], potentially life threatening
  • Nitrous oxide: ‘Hippie crack’
136
Q

Cocaine poisoning ?

A

Alkaloid derived from Coca plant; is a Recreational Stimulant
- MoA: (-) DA, NA & Serotonin uptake
Rx.-
- 1st line: BZPs
- Chest pain: BZPs + GTN
- If MI develops => PCI
- HTN: BZPs + Na-Nitroprusside
Beta-bockers cause unopposed Alpha mediated Coronary vasospasm

137
Q

Cocaine S/E ??

A

CVS
- CA spasm=> M ischaemia or MI
- Both Tachy- & Brady- cardia
- HTN
- QRS widening & QT prolongation
- Aortic dissection
CNS : Seizures, MYDRIASIS, Hypertonia, Hyperreflexia
Psychaitric effecy
- Agitation, Psychosis, Hallucinations
Others
- ISCHAEMIC Colitis (consider if Abd. pain + Rectal bleed)
- Hyperthermia
- Met. Acidosis. - Rhabdomyolysis

138
Q

What is Ecstacy poisoning ??

A

MDMA (3,4 Methylenedioxy-methamphetamine)
- CNS: Agitation, Anxiety, Confusion, ATAXIA
- CVS: Tachycardia, HTN
- HYPO Na+
- Hyperthermia
- Rhabdomyolysis

139
Q

Rx. of Ecstacy poisoning ??

A

SUPPORTIVE
- Dantrolene in hyperthermia

140
Q

What are the features of Ethylene glycol toxicity ??

A

It is a type of alcohol used as a Coolant or Antifreeze
3 Stages
STAGE 1: Similar to [-OH] intoxication; Confusion, Slurred speech, HTN
STAGE 2: Met. Acidosis with High A G & high Osmolar gap; Tachy. & HTN
STAGE 3: Acute Kidney Injury

141
Q

Rx. of Antifreeze poisoning ??

A

FOMEPIZOLE (Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)
Haemodialysis
Ethanol was used in the past (works by competing with Ethylene glycol for enzyme [-OH] dehydrogenase)

142
Q

Methanol poisoning features ??

A

Effects a/w Alcohol (intoxication, N & V, etc.) + Visual problems including blindness (form of Optic neuropathy)
- C/F are due to Formic acid accumulation

143
Q

Rx. of Methanol poisoning ??

A

FOMEPIZOLE (competitive inhibitor of Alcohol dehydrogenase)
Haemadialysis
Co-factor Therapy with FOLINIC ACID to reduce ocular complications

144
Q

Rx. of Alcohol drinking problem ??

A

BZPs for Acute withdrawal
DISULFIRAM :
- Promotes ABSTINENCE [(-OH) intake causes severe reaction due to Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase (-)]
- Even small amount of (-OH) can produce severe symptoms
- CI: IHD, Psychosis
ACAMPROSTATE :
- Reduces CRAVING
- Weak NMDA r antagonist
- Improves Abstinence

145
Q

Features of Mercury poisoning ??

A

Paraesthesia
Visual Field defect
Hearing loss, Tinnitus
Irritability
Somatitis, Bleeding gums
Renal Tubular Acidosis

146
Q

What is Ciclosporin ??

A

Immunosuppressant which decreases Clonal proliferation of T-cells by reducing IL-2 release
MoA: Binds to Cyclophilin => forms a complex =(-)=> Calcineurin (a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells)
“Non- Myelotoxic drug”

147
Q

Indications & S/E of Ciclosporin ??

A
  • Post-Organ transplant
  • RA, Psoriasis, UC, Pure Red cell Aplasia
    S/E (everything is Increased)
  • Nephro- & Hepato- Toxicity
  • Fluid retention, HTN
  • Hyper K+, Hypertrichosis
  • Gingival Hyperplasia
  • Tremors
  • IGT, Hyperlipidaemia
  • Increased susceptibility to severe infections
148
Q

Immunosuppressant that is ‘Virtually Non-Myelotoxic’ ??

A

Ciclosporin

149
Q

Features of Tacrolimus ??

A

Immunosuppressants commonly used to prevent Transplant rejection
MoA: Binds to FKBP => forms a complex =(-)=> Calcineurin (a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells) => Decreases clonal proliferation of T- cells by reducing IL-6

150
Q

Difference b/w Ciclosporin & Tacrolimus ??

A

Ciclosporin binds to CYCLOPHILIN
Tacrolimus binds to FKBP
T is more potent than C, so Rejection chances are less
Nephrotoxicity & IGT is more with T than with C

151
Q

Indications for Allopurinol therapy in Gout ??

A

It works by (-) Xanthine oxidase
ULT is indicated in
- >= 2 attacks in 12 months
- Tophi
- Renal disease
- Uric acid renal stones
- Prophylaxis if on Cytotoxics or Diuretics
- Lesch-Nyhan synd. (taken for rest of life)

152
Q

S/E of Allopurinols ??

A

Dermatological S/E are more
- SCAR: Severe Cutaneous Adverse Reaction
- DRESS: Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia & Systemic symptoms
- SJS
Chinese/ Korean/ Thai people are at increased risk
Pts. at high risk of SCAR should be screened for HLA-B 580 I allele

153
Q

Interaction of Allopurinol with Azathioprine ??

A

Azathioprine is metabolized into active compound- 6-Mercaptopurine
- Xanthine oxidase oxidises 6-MCP to 6-Thiouric acid
- Allopurinol can lead to HIGH levels of 6-MCP
- So, reduced dose (eg.-25%) must be used

154
Q

Interaction of Allopurinol with
- Cyclophosphamide ??
- Theophylline ??

A
  • Reduces renal clearance => Marrow toxicity
  • Increases plasma conc. of Theophylline by (-) its breakdown
155
Q

Name the following about COCPs-
- Increased risk of which Cancers ??
- Reduced risk of which Cancers ??

A
  • Increase: Breast & Cervical cancer
  • Increase: VTE, STIs (no protection), Stroke & IHD (specially in Smokers)
  • Reduced: Ovarian, Endometrial & Colorectal cancer
  • Also reduces the risk of Ovarian cyst, Benign breast disease & Acne vulgaris
156
Q

How is CIs of COCPs guided ??

A

UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC)
- 1 : No restriction for COCPs use
- 2 : Advantage&raquo_space; Disadvantage
- 3 : Disadvantage&raquo_space; Advantage
- 4 : Unacceptable health risks

156
Q

What are the UKMEC 3 conditions of COCPs use ??

A
  • > 35yrs + Smokes <15 cigarettes/ day
  • BMI > 35 kg/m2
  • FHx of VTE in 1st degree relatives who are < 45yrs old
  • Controlled HTN
  • Immobility (eg. uses wheel chair)
  • Carrier of BRCA 1/2 mutation
  • Current Gallbladder disease
  • DM dx. > 20yrs ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity
156
Q

How are COCPs takes ??

A
  • IF started within first 5 days of cycle, NO need for extra contraception
  • IF started at other point in cycle, extra contraception (eg Condoms) used for first 7 days
  • Should be taken at SAME time daily
    Methods
  • Conventional: Taken for 21 days then stopped for 7 days for breakthrough bleed
  • Tricycling: 3 packs of 21 pills are taken continuously after which 4- 7 days break is taken
    Sex during Pill-free period is safe only if next pack is started ON Time
156
Q

What are the UKMEC 4 conditions of COCPs use ??

A
  • > 35yrs + Smokes >15 cigarettes/day
  • Migraine with aura
  • H/o VTE or Thrombogenic mutation
  • H/o Stroke/ MI
  • Breastfeeding < 6 wks post-partum
  • Uncontrolled HTN
  • Current Breast Cancer
  • Maj. Sx. with prolonged immobilization
  • (+)ve APL antibodies (eg.- SLE)
156
Q

Precautions for COCPs ??

A

Enzyme inducing drugs & Abx. like Rifampicin

156
Q

S/E of Tamoxifen ??

A
  • MENSTRUAL disturbance: Vaginal bleed, Amenorrhoea
  • Hot flushes
  • VTE
  • ENDOMETRIAL Cancer
156
Q

POPs Disadvantages ??

A

Irregular periods (MC S/E)
- May not have periods/ Irregular light periods
- No protection against STIs
- Increased incidence of Functional Ovarian Cysts
- S/E: Breast tenderness, Wt. gain, Acne & Headaches (these c/f usually subside in 1st few months)

156
Q

POPs advantages ??

A

ADVANTAGES
- Highly effective & Does’t interfere with Sex
- Reversible upon stopping
- Can be used while Breastfeeding
- Can be used in places where COCPs are CI eg.- Smokers >35yrs & Women with H/o VTE

156
Q

Which SERM carries a lower risk of Endometrial Ca ??

A

RALOXIFENE- a Pure Oestrogen receptor antagonist

156
Q

What is Tamoxifen ??

A

Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)
- Oestrogen receptor ANTAGOnist
- Used in Oestrogen receptor (+)ve Breast Ca
- Used for 5 years after tumour removal

157
Q

What is TRASTUZUMAB ??

A

aka HERCEPTIN is a Monoclonal antibody directed against HER2/Neu receptor
- Used mainly in Metastatic Breast Ca
S/E
- Flu-like c/f & Diarrhoea (MC)
- Cardiotoxicity: more common when Anthracyclines have been used; do an 2D-Echo before starting Rx.

157
Q

Which factor drives use of Telaprevir in Hep C ??

A

Hep. C genotype
- Genotype 1 has the lowest success rates with respect to viral clearance
- So, Telaprevir & Bocaprevir (NS3/4A Serine Protease inhibitor) are used as initial therapy with genotype 1

158
Q

Causes of Gingival Hyperplasia ??

A

Phenytoin
Ciclosporin
CCBs (specially Nifedipine)
AML
- Myelomonocytic types
- Monocytic types