Renal Review Flashcards

1
Q

What artery prevents a horseshoe kidney from ascending in the abdomen?

A

IMA

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2
Q

What fundamental problem creates Potter sequence?

A

oligohydramnios

classically from B/L renal agenesis

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3
Q

What are the three stimuli that induce renin release?

A
  1. beta adrenergic stimulation
  2. increased Na+ sensed by the macula densa
  3. increased pressure in afferent arteriole
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4
Q

What cell type releases renin?

A

JG cells (juxtaglomerular)

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5
Q

Kidney embryology

A

pronephros, mesonephros, metanephros

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6
Q

Pronephros

A

week 4; then degenerates

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7
Q

Mesonephros

A

functions as interim kidney for 1st trimester; later contributes to male genital system

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8
Q

Metanephros

A

permanent; first appears in 5th week of gestation

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9
Q

Where does the ureteric bud come from? What does it give rise to?

A

Ureteric bud is derived from the caudal end of the mesonephric duct
Ureteric bud gives rise to the ureter, pelvises, calyces, collecting ducts

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10
Q

How and what does the metanephric mesenchyme form?

A

Metanephric mesenchyme interacts with the ureteric bud, which induces differential and formation of glomerulus through the DCT

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11
Q

What is the POTTER sequence?

A
P - pulmonary hypoplasia
O - oligohydramnios (cause)
T - twisted face
T - twisted skin
E - extremity defects
R - renal failure (in utero)
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12
Q

What is the anatomical relationship between the ureters and the ureter artery? Vas deferens?

A

The ureter passes under the uterine artery and the vas deferens

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13
Q

How does constriction of the afferent arteriole affect GFR, RPF, and FF?

A

decrease GFR, decrease RPF, no change in FF

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14
Q

What is the FF?

A

FF = GFR/RPF

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15
Q

How does constriction of the efferent arteriole affect GFR, RPF, and FF?

A

increase GFR, decrease RPF, increase FF

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16
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have on the glomerulus?

A

angiotensin II preferentially constricts the efferent article -> increase GFR, decrease RPF, increase FF

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17
Q

What effect do prostaglandins have on the glomerulus? What inhibits this?

A

prostaglandins preferentially dilate the afferent arteriole -> increased GFR, increased RPF, no change in FF

NSAIDs inhibit this

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18
Q

How does dilation of the afferent article affect GFR, RBF, and FF?

A

increase GFR, increase RBF, no change in FF

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19
Q

How does dilation of the efferent arteriole affect GFR, RBF, and FF?

A

decrease GFR, increase RBF, decrease FF

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20
Q

How does an increase in serum protein affect the GFR, RBF, and FF?

A

decrease GFR, no change in RBF, decrease FF

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21
Q

How does a ureter stone obstruction affect the GFR, RBF, and FF?

A

decrease GFR, no change in RBF, decrease FF

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22
Q

How do ACE inhibitors affect the GFR, RBF, and FF?

A

decrease GFR, increase RPF, decrease FF

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23
Q

What is the 60,40,20 rule?

A

60% of body weight = total body water in L
40% of body weight = intracellular fluid
20% of body weight = extracellular fluid

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24
Q

How much of extracellular fluid is made up of plasma volume?

A

25%

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25
A 40-year-old patient of yours weighs 100kg. What is her estimated plasma volume?
5L | 20L x 0.25
26
At what glucose concentration is the tubular reabsorption of glucose maximized?
350 mg/dL | ~160-200 -> start spilling glucose
27
What vitamin deficiency results from Hartnup disease?
niacin (Vit B3)
28
What are the symptoms of niacin deficiency?
``` pellagra 3D's diarrhea dermatitis dementia ```
29
What substances can be used to estimate GFR? What substitutes can be used to estimate renal plasma flow?
estimate GFR with inulin CL or Cr CL | estimate RPF with PAH CL
30
What is the equation for the renal clearance of any substance?
CL = urine conc. x urine flow rate/plasma conc | excretion rate = urine conc. x urine flow rate
31
Hartnup diesase
deficiency in transporter of neutral amino acids, such as tryptophan -> with no tryptophan, can't make niacin -> 3 D's of pellagra
32
What is filtered in the proximal tubule?
all glucose, all amino acids, 2/3 fluid, 2/3 electrolytes
33
What is reabsorbed in the first half of the proximal tubule? What kind of transporter do they use? What is it driven by?
glucose, amino acids, Pi, and lactate Na+ cotransporter driven by Na+ gradient, which is maintained by the Na+/K+ ATPase
34
How is bicarbonate reabsorbed in the first half of the proximal tubule?
HCO3- is broken down by carbonic anhydrase, and the H+, CO2, and H2O all cross into the tubular cell where carbonic anhydrase turns it back into HCO3- where it is transported via Na+ and Cl- cotransporters
35
What does TF/P < 1 signify?
reabsorbing more quickly than H2O
36
What does TF/P > 1 signify?
solute reabsorbed slower than H2O
37
If a substance filtered by the kidney has a TF/P > Cr, what does this mean?
the substance is being actively secreted by the kidney (such as PAH) because Cr and inulin are not reabsorbed, only filtered
38
What is reabsorbed in the second half of the proximal tubule?
Na+ and Cl-
39
How are organic anions secreted in the proximal tubule?
in exchange for alpha ketoglutarate
40
How are organic cations secreted in the proximal tubule?
in exchange for H+
41
What is true of the thin descending limb in relation to water/Na+ reabsorption?
impermeable to Na+ Thin descending limb is responsible for water reabsorption H2O follows osmotic gradient into hypertonic medulla -> luminal fluid becomes more concentrated
42
What important cotransporter is located in the thick descending limb? What is true of H2O reabsorption here?
Na+/2Cl-/K+ cotransporter | TAL is impermeable to water
43
How are Ca2+ and Mg2+ reabsorbed in the TAL?
between cells
44
What is true of the concentration of the filtrate in the TAL?
TAL is impermeable to water, but the filtrate is still becoming less concentrated because all the cations are leaving
45
Where does PTH act in the kidney?
early distal tubule
46
What is true of H2O reabsorption in the early distal tubule?
impermeable to water
47
What two types of cells compose the collecting duct and the last segment of the distal tubule? What do they do?
1. principal cells -> reabsorb H2O and Na+; secrete K+ | 2. intercalated cells -> secrete H+ or HCO3-; reabsorb K+
48
What are the two types of intercalated cells? What do they each do?
1. alpha cells (A cells) -> secrete H+ | 2. beta cells (B cells) -> secrete HCO3-
49
What determines how much water is reabsorbed in the distal tubules and the collecting ducts?
ADH (vasopressin)
50
What drug inhibits aquaporins at the collecting tubule?
lithium
51
What class of diuretic directly affects the principal cells?
potassium-sparing diuretics Inhibit epithelial Na+ channels in collecting tubules -> triamterene, amiloride Aldosterone antagonists -> spironolactone & eplerenone
52
What effect does aldosterone have on the principal cells and intercalated cells of the collecting duct?
principal cells - reabsorption of Na+, secretion of K+ | intercalated cells - stimulates secretion of H+
53
What causes K+ to shift out of the cells (hyperkalemia)?
``` low insulin (hyperglycemia) beta blockers acidosis digoxin cell lysis (leukemia) ```
54
What causes K+ to shift inside the cells (hypokalemia)?
insulin beta-agonists alkalosis cell creation/proliferation
55
What is the treatment for hyperkalemia?
IV bicarb beta-agonist (albuterol) IV insulin + dextrose IV Ca2+ to prevent arrhythmias (always do this first)
56
What electrolyte disturbance may result in central pontine myelinolysis if corrected too rapidly?
hyponatremia
57
What electrolyte disturbance results in peaked T waves?
hyperkalemia
58
What electrolyte disturbance results in tetany?
hypocalcemia
59
What electrolyte disturbance results in arrhythmias?
hyper/hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
60
What electrolyte disturbance results in decreased tendon reflexes?
hypermagnesemia
61
What electrolyte disturbance results in flattened T waves and the presence of U waves on ECG?
hypokalemia
62
What are the diagnostic features of diabetes insipidus?
polyuria polydipsia very dilute urine water deprivation test -> urine osmolarity does not increase
63
What do the results of the desmopressin test tell you in regards to diabetes insipidus?
If desmopressin results in concentrated urine -> central diabetes insipidus If desmopressin fails to concentrate urine -> nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
64
What is the treatment for central DI?
ADH (desmopressin)
65
What is the treatment for nephrogenic DI?
HCTZ, indomethacin, amiloride
66
What is the treatment for Lithium-induced nephrogenic DI?
amiloride
67
What can cause SIADH?
ectopic ADH (small cell lung cancer) CNS disorders/head trauma Pulmonary disease (COPD, pneumonia) Drugs (cyclophosphamide)
68
What are the normal gas values for pH, HCO3-, and pCO2?
``` pH = 7.35-7.45 HCO3- = 22-28 pCO2 = 35-45 ```
69
What is the main cause of respiratory acidosis?
hypoventilation Possible causes: airway obstruction and air trapping lung Dz weak respiratory muscles opioids
70
What are the main causes of metabolic acidosis?
adding acid -> HAGMA; MUDPILES | Losing HCO3 -> diarrhea, renal tubular acidosis, spironolactone, acetazolamide
71
What is MUDPILES?
``` causes of HAGMA M - methylene glycol U - uremia D - DKA P - polyethylene glycol I - iron, isoniazid L - lactic acid E - ethylene glycol S - salicylates (aspirin) (late) ```
72
If pH goes up, what should HCO3- and pCO2 do?
pH and HCO3- move in the same direction pH and pCO2 move in opposite directions Henderson-Hasselbach: pH is relatively equal to HCO3-/pCO2
73
What is the main cause of respiratory alkalosis?
hyperventilation | Possible causes: psychogenic (panic attack), increased altitude, hypoxia (PE), aspirin toxicity (early)
74
What are possible causes of metabolic alkalosis?
excessive vomiting, diuretics, hyperaldosteronism
75
How do you calculate anion gap?
[Na+] - [Cl-] - [HCO3-]
76
What is RTA Type 1?
Distal renal tubular acidosis defect in ability of alpha intercalated cells to secrete H+ -> no new HCO3- is generated -> metabolic acidosis urine pH > 5.5 hypokalemia increased risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones (H+ prob, H = 1 letter, type 1)
77
What is RTA Type 2?
Proximal renal tubular acisois defect in PCT HCO3- reabsorption -> increased excretion of HCO3- -> metabolic acidosis urine pH < 5.5 hypokalemia increased risk for hypophosphatemic rickets (bi carb, bi = 2, type 2)
78
What is RTA Type 4?
Hyperkalemic renal tubular acidosis impaired NH4+ excretion hypoaldosteronism -> hyperkalemia -> decreased NH3 synthesis in PCT -> decrease NH4+ excretion "Aldo" (4 letters, type 4)
79
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
LM - glomeruli enlarged and hypercellular IF - "lumpy bumpy" due to IgG, IgM, and C3 deposition along GBM and mesangium EM - sub epithelial immune complex humps Most frequently seen in children; occurs 2-4 weeks after group A strep infection of pharynx or skin; resolves spontaneously Type 3 HS (immune complex damage) presents with peripheral and periorbital edema, coca-cola colored urine with increased anti-DNase B and increase anti-streptolysin O Abs; decreased complement (C3) due to consumption
80
Rapidly progressive (cresenteric) glomerulonephritis
LM and IF - crescent moon shape consisting of fibrin and plasma proteins poor prognosis; rapidly deteriorating renal function
81
Goodpasture syndrome
form of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Type II HS; Abs to GBM and alveolar basement membrane -> linear IF hematuria/hemoptysis
82
What are two other causes of RPGN besides good pasture, and what Abs would you see?
1. granulomatosis with polynagiitis (Wegener) -> PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA (also affects lungs and upper respiratory tract) 2. microscopic polyangiits -> MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA can also be caused by lupus
83
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
often due to SLE LM - wire looping of capillaries (wire lupus) IF - granular common cause of death in SLE Anti-dsDNA Abs in mesangium and subendothelially
84
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
LM - mesangial proliferation IF - IgA-based IC deposits in mesangium renal pathology of henoch-schonlein purport episodic gross hematuria that occurs concurrently with respiratory or GI tract infections
85
What is Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
palpable purpura on buttocks and legs arthralgia abdominal pain from intestinal hemorrhage renal Dz (IgA nephropathy/Berger)
86
Alport syndrome
``` mutation in type 4 collage -> thinning and splitting of basement membrane X-linked dominant eye problems (lens dislocation), glomerulonephritis, sensorineural deafness (can't see, can't pee, can't hear a high C) ```
87
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
type 1 - sub endothelial immune complex deposits with granular IF "tram track" appearance (due to basement membrane splitting) MPGN is nephritic syndrome that often presents with nephrotic syndrome also Can be caused by: Hep B, Hep C, lupus, and subacute bacterial glomerulonephritis
88
Which glomerular disease would you suspect with a linear pattern of IgG deposition on IF?
Goodpasture Dz
89
Which glomerular disease would you suspect with lumpy-bumpy deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 in the mesangium?
post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
90
Which glomerular disease would you suspect with deposits of IgA in the mesangium?
IgA nephropathy/Berger Dz
91
Which glomerular disease would you suspect with Anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis?
goodpasture
92
Which glomerular disease would you suspect with crescent formation in the glomeruli?
RPGN
93
Which glomerular disease would you suspect with wire loop appearance on LM?
diffuse proliferative glomeruloneprhitis | lupus nephritis
94
What are the defining features of nephrotic syndrome?
Have to have: proteinuria > 3.5, hypoalbuminemia, peripheral edema Can also have: hyperlipidemia, hypercoagulable state, increased risk of infection
95
Minimal change disease
nephrotic syndrome LM - normal glomeruli EM - effacement of foot processes Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children; often primary and triggered by recent infection, immunization, immune stimulus; excellent response to corticosteroids
96
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
nephrotic syndrome LM - segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis IF - may be positive for nonspecific focal deposits of IgM, C3, C1 EM - effacement of foot process similar to minimal change disease most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in US (and African Americans and Hispanics); associated HIV; may progress to chronic renal disease
97
Membranous nephropathy
nephrotic syndrome LM - diffuse capillary and GBM thickening IF - nephrotic presentation of SLE EM - "spike and dome" appearance with sub epithelial deposits most common cause of primary nephrotic syndrome in caucasians associated with SLE and multiple myeloma may progress to chronic renal disease
98
Amyloidosis
LM - congo red stain shows apple-green birefringence due to amyloid in mesangium
99
Diabetic glomerulonephropathy
nephrotic LM - mesangial expansion, GBM thickening, eosinophilic nodular glomerulosclerosis (Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions) nonenzymatic glycosylation of GBM -> increase permeability, thickening non enzymatic glycosylation of efferent arterioles (hyaline arteriosclerosis) -> increase GFR -> mesangial expansion Most common cause of end-stage renal disease in the US
100
glomerular histology reveals multiple mesangial nodules. This lesion is indicative of what disease?
diabetic nephropathy | Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
101
most common nephrotic syndrome in children
minimal change disease
102
most common nephrotic syndrome in adults
FSGS
103
What glomerular disease would you suspect with EM: effacement of epithelial foot processes?
minimal change disease
104
nephrotic syndrome associated with HepB?
membranoproliferazive glomerulonephritis
105
nephrotic syndrome associated with HIV?
FSGS
106
What glomerular disease would you suspect with EM: sub endothelial humps and tram-track appearance?
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
107
What glomerular disease would you suspect with LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis?
FSGN
108
What glomerular disease would you suspect with purport on backs of arms and legs, abdominal pain, and IgA nephropathy?
Henoch-Schonlein (IgA nephropathy/Berger Dz)
109
What glomerular disease would you suspect with EM: spiking of the GBM due to electron-dense sub epithelial deposits?
membranous nephropathy
110
What are causes of prerenal azotemia?
hypovolemia, portal HTN, CHF, cardiac arrest, NSAID use (excessive constriction of afferent arteriole)
111
What are the causes of intrinsic renal disease?
acute tubular necrosis, acute glomerulonephritis (RPGN, HUS), acute interstitial nephritis
112
What are the causes of post renal azotemia?
outflow obstruction (stones, BPH, neoplasia, congenital anomalies)
113
What is the urine Na+ in prerenal azotemia versus intrinsic renal disease?
prerenal azotemia - urine Na+ <20 mEq/L | intrinsic renal Dz - urine Na+ >40mEq/L
114
What is the fractional excretion of Na+ normally? in prerenal azotemia vs intrinsic renal Dz?
normal = 1% prerenal azotemia = <1% intrinsic renal disease = >2%
115
What is the BUN:Cr in prerenal azotemia vs intrinsic renal disease?
prerenal azotemia - BUN:Cr = >20:1 | intrinsic renal disease - BUN:Cr = 10-15:1
116
What happens to potassium levels with kidney failure? phosphate levels?
hyperkalemia, hyperphophatemia
117
What are causes of acute tubular necrosis?
ischemia -> prolonged hypotension, sepsis, blood loss, surgery nephrotoxins -> drugs (ahminoglycosides, cisplatin), radio contrast, myoglobin (rhabdomyolysis), synthetic cannbanioids
118
What would you see in the urine of someone with acute tubular necrosis?
muddy brown casts
119
Acute interstitial nephritis
Classic presentation -> fever, eosinophilia, azotemia, rash (diffuse, maculopapular) (FEAR) most common cause is drugs -> NSAIDs, penicillins and cephalosporins, ciprofloxacin, rifampin, sulfonamides, diuretics, proton pump inhibitors, cimetidine, allopurinol
120
renal papillary necrosis
ischemia -> necrosis and sloughing of renal papillae presentation: -> gross hematuria +/- flank pain, azotemia, hypertension Causes: pyelonephritis, analgesics (acetaminophen, possibly NSAIDs), diabetes, sickle cell disease
121
Where could you see hyaline casts?
normal patients with concentrated urine
122
Where could you see RBC casts?
glomerular bleeding (glomerulonephritis, vasculitis)
123
Where could you see WBC casts?
tubular interstitial Dz, acute pyelonephritis
124
Where could you see epithelial cell casts?
acute tubular necrosis, acute interstitial nephritis, glomerulonephritis
125
Where could you see granular casts?
form from the breakdown of RBC or WBC casts; muddy brown casts see in acute tubular necrosis
126
Where could you see fatty casts?
nephrotic syndrome
127
Where could you see waxy casts?
end-stage renal Dz
128
What changes would be seen in a basic metabolic panel in a patient with renal failure?
increased BUN & Cr increase potassium decreased Ca2+ decreased HCO3- (metabolic acidosis)
129
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPDK)
typically presents in adulthood mutation in the PDK1 genet (chromosome 16) or PKD2 (chromosome 4) numerous B/L renal cysts with massive enlargement of the kidneys Presentation: -HTN -progressive renal insufficiency -> ESRD -hemorrhage into the cysts -> flank pain +/- hematuria increased risk of kidney stones and UTI associated with hepatic cysts, intracranial aneurysms, and mitral valve prolapse
130
Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)
mutation in the gene PKHD1 (chromosome 6) typically presents in infancy B/L renal cysts, enlarge and echogenic kidneys presentation: -oliguria -> oligohydramnios -> potter sequence -HTN, renal insufficiency, hepatomegaly
131
Autosomal dominant tubulointerstitial kidney disease
autosomal dominant inheritance small, shrunken kidneys and interstitial fibrosis rarely produces cysts int he renal medulla progressive renal failure
132
Calcium oxalate stones
Associations: hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria (ethylene glycol ingestion), Crohn's Dz, hypocitraturia, Vit C ingestion X-ray: radiopaque Crystal shape: envelope Prevention: thiazide diuretic
133
Struvite (NH4MgPO4) stones
Associations: urease-positive bacteria (proteus mirabilis (pH >/= 8), Klebsiella, S. saprophyticus) X-ray: radiopaque staghorn calculi Crystal shape: coffin lid Prevention: eradicate infection
134
Cystine stones
Associations: hereditary impairment of cystine reabsorption -> cystinuria, presents in childhood X-ray: radiolucent staghorn calculi Crystal shape: hexagon Prevention: alkalinize the urine
135
Uric acid stones
Associations: hyperuricemia and gout X-ray: radiolucent Crystal shape: rhombus/rosette Prevention: allopurinol
136
Renal cell carcinoma
most common primary renal malignancy arises from PCT in the cortex risk factors: men ages 50-70, smoking, obesity, HTN deletions on chromosome 3 (can be part of VHL) Presentation: - often asymptomatic; usually found incidentally - classic triad: flank pain, hematuria, palpable abdominal mass - paraneoplastic syndromes (polycythemia -> increased EPO, anemia, hypercalcemia -> PTHrP) Pathology: solid tumor with clear cells full of lipids/carbs
137
Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)
most common renal malignancy of early childhood (2-4 years) presentation - palpable abdominal/flank mass - possible abdominal pain or hematuria Mutation of tumor suppressor gene WT1 or WT2 (chromosome 11) WAGR complex - wilms tumor - aniridia - GU malformations (cryptorchidism or bicornate uterus) - mental retardation
138
Transitional cell carcinoma (urothelial carcinoma)
most common malignancy of the urinary tract can occur in the renal calyces or pelvis, ureters, and urinary bladder Presentation: painless hematuria Major risk factors: smoking, aniline dyes, naphthylamine dyes, cyclophosphamide (cancer Tx)
139
Squamous cell bladder cancer
smoking, chronic/recurrent UTIs, bladder stones, cyclophosphamide, schistosome haematobium