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DIT Cards > GI Review > Flashcards

GI Review Flashcards

1
Q

50 year old woman with pruritus without jaundice, positive AMA

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

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2
Q

GI bleeding, buccal pigmentation

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

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3
Q

60 year old woman, RA, no alcohol history, fatigue, and right abdominal pain; elevated ANA and ASMA, elevated serum IgG levels, no viral serologic markers

A

autoimmune hepatitis

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4
Q

23 year old woman, no alcohol history; elevated levels of LKM-1 antibodies, no viral serologic markers, liver biopsy with infiltration of the portal and periportal area with lymphocytes

A

autoimmune hepatitis

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5
Q

fatal disease of unconjugated bilirubin resulting from a complete lack of UDPGT activity

A

Criggler-Najjar type 1

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6
Q

What drugs and endogenous hormones regulate the secretion of gastric acid?

A

Hormones that promote gastric acid secretion:
- histamine, ACh, gastrin
Hormones that inhibit gastric acid secretion:
- prostaglandins, somatostatin, secretin, GIP
Drugs that regulate gastric acid secretion:
- PPIs, H2 blockers, antimuscarinic drugs

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7
Q

What is the difference between primary biliary cholangitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

primary biliary cholangitis - autoimmune, women, middle aged, + AMA

primary sclerosing cholangitis - men, middle-aged, + p-ANCA, associated with UC and cholangiocarcinoma; ERCP finding: alternating beading and stricturing

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8
Q

What is Reynold’s pentad for cholangitis?

A 
(Charcot triad):
1. fever
2. jaundice
3. RUQ pain
PLUS:
4. hypotension
5. altered mental status
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9
Q

What clinical features suggest congenital pyloric stenosis?

A
  • non-billious vomiting (projectile)
  • 2-6 weeks old
  • males > females
  • olive-shaped mass in abdomen
  • peristaltic waves before vomiting
  • hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis if vomiting >/= 5 days
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10
Q

What are the features of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A
  • glossitis
  • dysphagia d/t esophageal webs
  • iron deficiency
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11
Q

What histological findings of the distal duodenum are most likely seen in a patient with celiac sprue?

A
  • blunting of the villi
  • hyperplastic crypts
  • lymphocytes in the lamina propria
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12
Q

What is the most common benign salivary gland neoplasm? What is the most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm? What is the most common location for a salivary gland neoplasm?

A

pleomorphic adenoma
mucoepirdermoid carcinoma
parotid gland

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13
Q

What are the risk factors for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus?

A

obesity, GERD, smoking, Barrett esophagus, nitrosamines

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14
Q

What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?

A

smoking, alcohol, nitrosamines, achalasia, esophageal webs, strictures

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15
Q

What histological findings are seen in alcohol hepatitis?

A
  • fatty infiltration
  • Mallory bodies (intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions)
  • necrosis and swelling of hepatocytes
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16
Q

Which hormones stimulate pancreatic secretions?

A

ACh (via vagus n)
CCK
Secretin (stimulates HCO3- secretion)

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17
Q

What are the retroperitoneal organs?

A

SAD PUCKER

  • suprarenal glands
  • aorta and IVC
  • duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts)
  • pancreases (except tail)
  • ureters
  • colon (descending and ascending)
  • kidneys
  • esophagus (under diaphragm)
  • rectum
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18
Q

What are the possible etiologies of acute pancreatitis?

A 
PANCREATITIS
P - increased PTH -> hypercalcemia
A - Alcohol
N - Neoplasm
C - Cholelithiasis
R - Rx (drugs)
E - ERCP
A - abdominal surgery
T - hypertriglyceridemia
I - infection (mumps)
T - trauma
I - idiopathic
S - scorpion sting
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19
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with pancreatic insufficiency?

A
  • decreased uptake of fat soluble vitamins (DEAK)
  • malabsorption, weight loss
  • steatorrhea
  • diarrhea
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20
Q

What are the risk factors for development of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A 
cirrhosis
Hep B and C
hemochromatosis
alpha1-antitrypsin
hepatic ademona
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21
Q

What are the tumor markers for pancreatic cancer?

A

CEA, CA19-9 (more specific)

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22
Q

What are the two nervous tissue bundles that run through the GI tract and where are they located?

A

Meissner’s plexus - located in the submucosa

Auerbach’s plexus - between the layers of the muscularis propria

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23
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus and what are the causes?

A

> 10mmHg change in SBP with inspiration

-caused by anything that prolongs inspiration: COPD, asthma, cardiac tamponade

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24
Q

How is hnRNA processed before it leaves the nucleus?

A

5’ cap and poly-A tail; spice out introns

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25
Q

What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

HCTZ - helps concentrate urine
Amiloride - K+-sparing diuretic (Tx DI d/t Lithium toxicity)
Indomethacin -> decrease RBF

26
Q

What is schizotypal disorder?

A

personality disorder with interpersonal awkwardness, odd thoughts, and odd appearance

27
Q

Which causes of vaginal discharge/vaginitis are associated with a high vaginal pH? Which are associated with a low vaginal pH?

A

high pH - garnerella, trichomonas

low pH - physiologic and candida

28
Q

Which cell wall inhibitor is the next step in treatment of otitis media if amoxicillin resistant?

A

Amoxicillin/Clavulanic acid

29
Q

Which cell wall inhibitor is prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis?

A

penicillin V, aminopenicillins, 1st generation cephalosporin

30
Q

Which cell wall inhibitor is sufficient for the treatment of syphilis?

A

penicillin G

31
Q

Which cell wall inhibitor is used as a single-dose treatment for gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone

32
Q

What are the kubler-ross stages of grief?

A
  1. denial
  2. anger
  3. bargaining
  4. depression/grief
  5. acceptance
33
Q

What are the common causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A 
sarcoidosis
amyloidosis
hemochromatosis
Loeffler's Dz (endomyocardial fibrosis with eosinophilic infiltrate)
endocardial fibroelastosis
post-radiation fibrosis
34
Q

Which type of antipsychotic is often the first line of treatment for psychosis? Which antipsychotic should be reserved for severe refractory psychosis because of the risk of agranulocytosis?

A
  • atypical antipsychotics

- clozapine should be reserved

35
Q

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

thrombosis of IVC or hepatic veins -> hepatic congestion

36
Q

What substances are known for causing methemoglobinemia?

A

nitrates, antimalarials, dapsone, metochlopramide, sulfonamides, local anesthetics (lidocaine)

37
Q

Which glomerular disease has IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition and LM: diffuse capillary thickening?

A

membranous, diffuse proliferative

38
Q

Which glomerular disease has IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition and LM: hyper cellular glomeruli?

A

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

39
Q

Which glomerular disease has IF: liner pattern of immune complex deposition?

A

Goodpasture

40
Q

Which glomerular disease has EM: sub endothelial humps and “tram track” appearance?

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

41
Q

Which glomerular disease has nephritis, deafness, and cataracts?

A

Alport syndrome

42
Q

Which glomerular disease has LM: crescent formation in the glomeruli?

A

RPGN (rapidly progressive)

43
Q

Which glomerular disease has LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis?

A

FSGN (focal segmental)

44
Q

Which glomerular disease has IF: Anti-GBM Abs?

A

Goodpasture

45
Q

Which glomerular disease has LM: Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions?

A

diabetic nephropathy

46
Q

Which glomerular disease has purpura on backs of arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy?

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

47
Q

Which glomerular disease has EM: spiking of the GBM due to electron dense subepithelial deposits?

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

48
Q

Which genetic syndrome is caused by absence of HGPRTase?

A

Lesch Nyhan

49
Q

Which genetic syndrome is caused by deficiency of aldolase B?

A

fructose intolerance

50
Q

Which genetic syndrome is caused by deficiency of cystathione synthase?

A

homocystinuria

51
Q

Which genetic syndrome is caused by galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency -> intellectual disability, hepatosplenomegaly, cataracts?

A

galactosemia

52
Q

Which genetic syndrome is caused by deficiency of tyrosinase?

A

albinism

53
Q

What medication inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase? What about acetaldehyde dehydrogenase?

A

alcohol dehydrogenase is inhibited by fomepizole

Acetaldehyde is inhibited by disulfiram

54
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme of beta oxidation of fatty acids?

A

carnitine acyltransferase 1

55
Q

Which cofactors are required for the function of pyruvate dehydrogenase? Which other enzyme requires the same cofactors?

A 
TLC For Noone
TPP
Lipoic acid
CoA
FAD
NAD

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase requires the same cofactors

56
Q

What disorder is associated with hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis?

A

Conn Syndrome/hyperaldosteronism

57
Q

What disorder is associated with fever and night sweats and weight loss?

A

lymphoma or TB

58
Q

What disorder is associated with adrenal hemorrhage due to meningococcemia?

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichson Syndrome

59
Q

What disorder is associated with blue sclerae?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

60
Q

What disorder is associated with hyperplasia, hypersexuality, hyperoralitiy, and hyper docility?

A

bilateral amygdala lesions -> Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

61
Q

What disorder is associated with nystagmus, intention tremor, and scanning speech?

A

Charcot triad of MS

62
Q

What disorder is associated with lower extremity purpura, arthralgias, and renal disease?

A

Henoch-Scholein purpura

DIT Cards (16 decks)

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