Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Airline Transport Pilot > Regulations - Part 121 > Flashcards

Regulations - Part 121 Flashcards

1
Q

Aircraft dispatcher (2 items)

A

Responsible for briefing the PIC on:
- All available weather information
- Information on enroute irregularities of facilities and services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are three things that must be carried on an airline for a trip?

A
  • Dispatch release
  • Flightplan
  • Load manifest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long does the airline need to keep the dispatch release, flightplan, load manifest after the flight has been completed?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must the dispatch release contain in it?

A
  • All weather information for the flight
  • Type of operation
  • Airports
    – Departure
    – Intermediate stops
    – Destination
    – Alternates
  • Minimum Fuel Supplies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long can you stay on the ground before having to create a new dispatch release? (Flag and domestic)

A
  • Flag operation (6 hours)
  • Domestic operation (1 hour)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a supplemental aircarrier?

A

An air carrier that doesn’t have scheduled operations?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For a supplemental air carrier, the PIC and the director of operations are jointly responsible for?

A

Initiation, continuation, and termination of a particular flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For a supplemental (or commercial) air carrier, the PIC is responsible for?

A

Obtaining information on all airport conditions, irregularities of navigational facilities and weather conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A flight release for a commercial operator must contain?

A

The names of all crewmembers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is considered “south polar”?

A

South of 60 degrees latitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is considered “north polar”?

A

North of 78 degrees latitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When do you have to quit flying for a part 121 airline?

A

On your 65th birthday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To re-establish currency of experience what four things do you have to do?

A
  • 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the last 90 days (in type)
  • 1 takeoff with simulated failure of the most critical powerplant
  • 1 landing from ILS approach to lowest ILS minimum authorized by the certificate holder
  • 1 landing to a full stop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a critical phase of flight?

A

Taxi, Takeoff, Landing, anything below 10,000 feet unless you are cruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PIC line check how often

A

Every 12 calendar months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PIC proficiency check how often

A

Every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pilots other than the PIC must have a proficiency check how often?

A

Every 24 months. Remember if you have to do a check in the month before or after your original month recurrent, then it counts as being done in the original month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is a flight engineer required on an aircraft? (2 items)

A
  • If it is required by the type certificate
  • If the takeoff weight is above 80,000 lbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a navigator required on an aircraft?

A

Airplane’s position can not be fixed for more than an hour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do you find the routes that you need a navigator?

A

In the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the rules for the number of flight attendants on an airplane if the airplane has a seating capacity of greater than 100?

A

2 flight attendants for the first 100 seats, plus 1 flight attendant for each additional 50 seats (or partial 50 seats).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If the flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineers duties?

A

Any crewmember if qualified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The “age 65 rule” of FAR Part 121 applies to…

A

Any required pilot crewmember

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to be pilot in command would be?

A

Second in command hours under part 135 operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is included in the flight time limitations?

A

All commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Flight Time Limitations (24 hour consecutive period)
Flag 2-pilot crew

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Flight Time Limitations (24 hour consecutive period)
Supplemental 3-pilot crew

A

8 hours flight duty time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Flight Time Limitations (24 hour consecutive period)
Flag 2-pilot + 1 crew

A

12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Flight Time Limitations (7 consecutive days)
Flag 2-pilot crew

A

32 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Flight Time Limitations (30 days)
All supplemental crews

A

100 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rest requirements
May not be assigned ______ duty during a required rest period.

A

Any

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rest requirements
Is deadhead transportation considering part of rest period.

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who is required to have fatigue education and awareness training? (4 items)

A
  • Flight crews
  • Dispatchers
  • Schedulers
  • individuals with operational control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is operational control?

A

The exercise of authority over a flight:
- Initiating
- Controlling
- Terminating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Theater

A

The departure and arrival points differ by no more than 60 degrees of longitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acclumated

A

In theater for 72 hours
-or-
36 hours of consecutive free from duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Physiological night’s rest

A

10 hours of rest
- including the hours of 0100 to 0700
- at home base
-or-
acclimated location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fit for duty

A

Report
- Rested
- Prepared to perform duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Augmented flight crew

A

More than the minimum number of flightcrew members required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Limitations for duty time and flight time apply to what operators

A

Part 121
Part 135
Part 91K (fractional operators)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a split rest period?

A

Rest of at least 3 hours after arriving at acceptable accommodations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Suitable accomadations?

A
  • Ground facility
  • Temperature controlled
  • Sound mitigation
  • Light control
  • Near level sleeping position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When must you be notified of a split rest period?

A

Before the flight begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Unaugmented flight crew

A

The operation has the minimum crew for the flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How much may your duty time be extended for an unexpected delay?

A

Up to 2 hours.

46
Q

How much may your duty time be extended in the air?

A

As much as necessary to land at the NEXT destination or an alternate.

47
Q

Does time spent in airport/standby reserve count as part of your flight duty period?

A

YES

48
Q

In a week (168 hours) what is your maximum duty time?

A

60 hours, with a 30 hour consecutive rest period

49
Q

You can’t be scheduled for anymore than 3 consecutive night duty periods that infringe on what?

A

Circadian low (0200 to 0559)

50
Q

What is initial training?

A

Training when you get a new job

51
Q

What is transition training?

A

Training when you are in a new aircraft

52
Q

What is upgrade training?

A

Training when you get a new seat

53
Q

What is differences training?

A

Training when you get a new model

54
Q

When handling dangerous materials, how often do you need training?

A

Every 12 months

55
Q

How often do you need emergency training?

A

Every 24 months

56
Q

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?

A

Certificate holder’s manual

57
Q

If cargo is not stowed in an approved bin, how must it be secured?

A

By a safety belt or approved tie down device.

58
Q

PIC shall ensure that ___________ __________ charts are aboard

A

appropriate aeronautical

59
Q

Each crew member must have a _______________ on board and in good working order

A

Flashlight

60
Q

For the purpose of testing a flight recorder, what data may be erased?

A

1 hour of the oldest data may be erased

61
Q

When must a cockpit voice recorder be operated?

A

From the start of the first engine to completion of the final checklist.

62
Q

What information may be erased on a CVR?

A

Any information more than 30 minutes old.

63
Q

When must you have an interphone on board?

A

If there is a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers

64
Q

When must you have a PA system on board?

A

If there is a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers

65
Q

When do you have to have one megaphone on board?
When must you have two megaphones on board?

A

When there are 60 to 99 passengers.
More than 99 passengers.

66
Q

Where do megaphones need to be located?

A

If there is one megaphone required, it is to be stored at the rear of the cabin.
If there are two megaphones required, it is to be stored at the front of the cabin.

67
Q

When must an announcement be made for passengers to keep their seatbelt buckled?

A

After each takeoff

68
Q

When may two people share a seatbelt on a lounge seat?

A

Only during the enroute segment of the flight

69
Q

Above 10,000 how much oxygen is needed for each crewmember?

A

2 hour supply

70
Q

Above FL250, part 121 states that 1 pilot shall use oxygen unless?

A

Each pilot has a quick donning mask

71
Q

What is a quick donning oxygen mask?

A

A mask that a crewmember that can don and start getting oxygen within 5 seconds

72
Q

Above FL250, if one pilot leaves the duty station, what must the other pilot do?

A

Put on a an oxygen mask.

73
Q

For a pressurized reciprocating aircraft, what are your oxygen requirements?

A

Between 8000 and 14,000 you need oxygen for 10% of passengers for 30 minutes

74
Q

All aircraft oxygen requirements above 15,000?

A

Oxygen must be provided for all passengers for the entire duration of the flight at these altitudes.

75
Q

What is the rule for carrying less oxygen?

A

If you are flying at or below FL250 and you can get down to 14,000 within 4 minutes, you don’t need to carry as much oxygen

76
Q

What is the minimum number of oxygen-dispensing units?

A

Two

77
Q

May cargo be carried in the passenger compartment?

A

Yes, as long as it is in an approved bin.

78
Q

May an air carrier takeoff with frost, snow, or ice on the wings, control surfaces, or propellers?

A

NO (Note: this leaves out the fuselage)

79
Q

Do you have to have radar installed on an airliner? Does it always have to be operable?

A

Yes, it has to be installed. No it doesn’t have to work. It only has to work when flying in Night or IFR conditions with thunderstorms reported enroute.

80
Q

If you operating under IFR conditions, do you need a VOR?

A

Yes and whenever VOR is required, DME is required as well.

81
Q

If you have inoperative equipment, where do you look to see if you can continue the flight?

A

Certificate Holder’s Manual

82
Q

Airbourne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the conterminous 48 United States…

A

that are engaged in either cargo or passenger-carrying operations

83
Q

Can a supplemental air carrier fly VFR-Over-the -Top? What are the regulations? (3 things)

A

Yes, 5 miles flight visibility, 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, Must be able to get to the MEA and still be 1,000 feet below the cloud layer.

84
Q

Where are the three sources for takeoff minimums with domestic and flag carriers?

A
  • Ops Spec
  • Look at the approach plate for the airport
  • By regulation if they are not specified in the two sources above 800/2 SM, 900/1.5SM, 1000/1 SM
85
Q

If the weather at the departure airport is below the authorized landing minimums than what do you need to have?

A

A departure alternate.

86
Q

What are the regulations for a departure alternate?

A
  • 3 or more engines- alternate must not be more than 2 hours away
  • 2 engines- alternate must not be more than 1 hour away
87
Q

When is a destination alternate not required for a flag air carrier?

A
  • Flight is less than 6 hours
    –and–
  • 1 hour before ETA to 1 hour after ETA, visibility is at least 3 miles or two miles more than the lowest minimum
88
Q

Where are the destination alternate information for a domestic operation?

A

Ops Specs

89
Q

When do you have to have an additional alternate?

A

When the weather forecast for the destination is MARGINAL?

90
Q

When is an alternate required for a supplemental carrier?

A

If operating under IFR.

91
Q

When can you not list an airport as an alternate?

A

When the weather is not above the landing minimums for the airport.

92
Q

What are the fuel requirements for reserve fuel when it comes to alternates? Domestic, Flag, Supplemental

A

Go to the alternate plus 45 minutes

93
Q

What are the fuel requirements for reserve fuel when it comes to alternates on an international flight?

A

Supplemental- 30 min at holding speed at the alternate
Flag (Turbopropeller)- 30 min plus 15% of total time or 90 min at normal cruise, whichever is less.

94
Q

What are the fuel requirements when there is no alternate? Flag, Supplemental Turbojet, Supplemental Turboprop

A

Flag- 2 hours
Supplemental Turbojet- 2 hours
Supplemental Turboprop- 3 hours

95
Q

To list an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport…

A

when the flight arrives

96
Q

If PIC does not have 100 hours time in type, landing minimums are increased by what?

A

MDA or DH: +100 feet
Visibility: +1/2 mile

97
Q

What is a low time pilot?

A

Less than 100 hours in type

98
Q

What range must a low time pilots landing minimums fall into?

A

Not lower than: 300 ft and 1 mile
Not greater than: Minimums for listing airport as an alternate

99
Q

Landing categories are what?

A

A 0-90
B 91-120
C 121-140
D 141-165

100
Q

What are two ways for determining your landing category?

A

1.3Vso
-or-
Vref (approach speed) (Use this one if available)

101
Q

If you have at least 100 hours of PIC experience in another type what does this do to your “required hours” as a low time pilot?

A

They may be reduced (not to exceed 50%) by substituting one landing for each hour of PIC experience.

102
Q

May a pilot continue an instrument approach if the weather is reported below minimums?

A

Yes, as long as they are on the final approach segment

103
Q

What if a runway is wet or slippery at the time of your landing?

A

115% of length required for a dry runway

104
Q

Low Time Pilot Landing example: The PIC of PTL 55 has 75 hours and 30 landings as PIC in the B-747. This PIC has a ton of time in another type aircraft. Write out what his “low time” would be?

A

Low time: 100
Current time: 75
Number of landings: 30….100-30 (not to exceed 50%) = 70
75 is more than 70, therefore the pilot is not low time

105
Q

All emergency equipment must be _________ marked?

A

Clearly

106
Q

An escape slide system must be _________?

A

Armed

107
Q

Interior emergency lights must be armed or turned on during what three phases?

A

Taxi, Takeoff, and Landing

108
Q

When the PIC has to deviate during an emergency, what do you have to do?

A

File a written report within 10 days of arrival back at base

109
Q

Following stoppage of engine’s rotation in flight, what do you need to do

A

Alert ATC

110
Q

What if a person creates a disturbance, what must the certificate holder do?

A

Submit a report within 5 days

111
Q

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?

A

The person who declares the emergency

112
Q
A

Airline Transport Pilot (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions