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Y4 - Public Health > Regulations and controls: Principles of meat inspection > Flashcards

Regulations and controls: Principles of meat inspection Flashcards

1
Q

What are the on site duties of the FSA team?

A
  1. Auditing of FBO responsibilities - Non-compliance leads to chain of enforcement
  2. Welfare investigations
    - If FBO related: enforcement
    - If not FBO related: record & report to APHA/LA
  3. Reporting of notifiable diseases to APHA
  4. Inspection - Fit/ Unfit
    - (AM) For slaughter
    - (PM) For human consumption
    - Detention
  5. Residue sampling as part of National Surveillance Scheme
  6. Official veterinarian and meat hygiene inspector
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2
Q

The OV should consider Operators certificate of competences (CoC) suspension or revocation if during welfare assessments, they are of the opinion that the holder…?

A
  1. Is no longer a fit and proper person
  2. Is no longer competent to carry out the operations which the CoC authorises
  3. Has failed to comply with any provision of the EU Regulation or WATOK
  4. Has been convicted of an offence under any animal welfare legislation
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3
Q

The OVs role as a part of FBO must guarantee meat is free from?

A

Patho-physiological abnormalities or changes
Contamination (faecal, SRM or other)

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4
Q

What must not happen to a cattle carcass prior to ante-mortem inspection?

A

Cannot be washed

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5
Q

Describe how pig and poultry are presented at post-mortem inspection

A
  • Still have their skin on in the final product so these go through a scald tank
  • These carcases are rinsed before post mortem inspection
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6
Q

Describe the steps of cattle in the slaughter house from arrival to finish

A
  • Sent to slaughterhouse and rest in holding lairage
  • Animals sent to the waiting lairage on the day before slaughter
  • Antemortem inspection by OV
  • Stunning by captive bolt
  • Shackling and hoisting
  • Sticking and bleeding
  • Removal of head, legs and tai;
  • Dehiding
  • Opening of the brisket and evisceration
  • Splitting
  • PME by meat inspectors
  • Rinsing of carcass
  • Quartering
  • Delivery
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7
Q

Describe the steps of a pig in the slaughter house from arrival to finish

A
  • Antemortem inspection
  • Electrical stunning
  • Bleeding
  • Rinsing?
  • Scalding
  • Dehairing
  • Evisceration
  • PME
  • Delivery
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8
Q

What is the meaning of an animal with a healthmark/identification mark?

A

Undergone ante and post-mortem inspection & fit for human consumption

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9
Q

What information is included in the healthmark?

A

Country
Individual number
Official controls in accordance with EU regulation

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10
Q

Who can apply healthmarks?

A

“Health marks shall be applied by, or under the responsibility of, the official veterinarian when official controls have not identified any deficiencies that would make the meat unfit for human consumption.”

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11
Q

List some example reasons as to why a health mark would be withheld at PM

A
  • Failure of ante-mortem and/or post-mortem inspection
  • Loss of traceability (animal ID)
  • Presence of SRM
  • Contamination or gross pathology
  • Residues or contaminants are suspected
  • Water supply is found to have been contaminated and a risk to public health exists
  • No adequate inspection facilities rendering contamination or gross pathology inconspicuous
  • Animals suffering from a notifiable disease
  • Meat declared by the OV to be unfit for human consumption.
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12
Q

List the chilling temps for red meat, white meat and offal

A

Red meat: 7°C
White meat: 4°C
Offal: 3°C

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13
Q

What is the freezing temperature requirement for all meat?

A

-20°C

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14
Q

Describe residue surveillance carried out by the FAS

A
  • Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, horses
  • Random selection but some exceptions
  • Fitness state not affected
  • Kidney, kidney fat, liver, muscle, blood and urine
  • EU requirement
  • Number determined by the VMD
  • Veterinary medicines, pesticides and heavy metals.
  • Note : Also applies to poultry and game meat
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15
Q

What action is taken when there is a suspicion of residues?

A

Powers to detain animals suspected of containing residues above the Maximum Residue Limit, or of having been treated with unauthorised substances. - This is additionally to the National Surveillance Scheme

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16
Q

Where an implant is not found but the OV is suspicious of the illegal use of other prohibited substances, the following samples should be taken:

A

Hormones - blood and either urine or faeces
Beta-agonists - urine.

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17
Q

What happens to animals slaughtered due to a suspicion of residues?

A

carcase and offal’s detained under Regulation 34(2) until results available.

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18
Q

Which parts of the body are used for TSE testing in bovine and ovine spp

A

Bovine: brainstem
Ovine/Caprine: brainstem & cerebellum

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19
Q

Describe SRM for TSEs in sheep

A

In sheep there is no SRM under 12 months
If the sheep has any permanent incisors the skull - brain and spinal cord = SRM so the carcass has to be split to remove them

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20
Q

Describe SRM as an animal by product

A

Category 1 Animal By-Product (SRM) this material must be destroyed by incineration or rendering and then incineration at an approved premises (as opposed to other Category 1 Animal By-Product, which can be rendered and land filled)

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21
Q

How is dentition used for age estimation

A

24 months = 730 days
30 months = 912 days
- 1 permeant incisor erupted = minimum of 541do
- 6 permanent incisors erupted = minimum of 978do

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22
Q

What counts as SRM is cattle of all ages in member states with a controlled risk of BSE?

A

Tonsils
The last 4m of small intestine
The caecum
Mesentery

23
Q

What counts as SRM in cattle over 12 months in member states with a controlled risk of BSE?

A

Skull except the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord

24
Q

What counts as SRM in cattle over 30 months in member states with a controlled risk of BSE?

A

VC including the dorsal root ganglia but excluding:
- the vertebrae of the tail
- spinous and transverse processes of the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
- medial sacral crest and wings of the sacrum

25
Q

What counts as SRM in cattle over 12 months in member states with a negligible risk of BSE?

A

Skull except the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord

26
Q

What counts as SRM in cattle under 12 months in member states with a negligible risk of BSE?

A

No SRM

27
Q

What counts as SRM in sheep and goats under 12 months?

A

No SRM

28
Q

What counts as SRM in sheep and goats over 12 months?

A

Skull including the brain, eyes and spinal cord
Doesn’t include horns

29
Q

What must be done if a notifiable disease is suspected?

A

Notify APHA straight away
“any person having in their possession or under their charge an animal affected or suspected of having one of these diseases must, with all practicable speed, notify that fact to a police constable.”

30
Q

What happens during the investigation of a notifiable disease?

A

Stop entry of animals
Stop slaughter
Isolate suspects and potentially contaminated carcases

31
Q

What happens if suspicion of a notifiable disease cant be ruled out?

A

Restriction notice closing establishments (or parts),
Collect whatever samples are necessary for diagnostic purposes

32
Q

What happens following a negative result of a notifiable disease?

A

Meat released

33
Q

What happens following a positive result of a notifiable disease?

A

Disposal of affected meat, cleaning and disinfection and in some cases premises rested for a period

34
Q

What is the causative agent of Anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

35
Q

How is Anthrax transmitted?

A

ZOONOSIS. through a skin wound, inhalation or injection

36
Q

How does Anthrax appear on PME?

A

Spleen severely enlarged and dark, extensive petechiae, blood clots, dark blood…
Mortality ~ 48 hours. Sudden deaths on farms or abattoirs…

37
Q

What is the causative agent of swine fever?

A

Acute viral disease highly infective (Classical- Pestivirus and African-Asfivirus).

38
Q

Describe the acute presentation of swine fever

A
  • Fever, depression, anorexia and loss of appetite, petechiae in the skin (ears, abdomen and legs), lymph nodes almost black, abortion in pregnant sows, cyanosis, vomiting, diarrhoea.
  • Mortality rates up to 100% ~6-13 days.
  • CSF signs depends on strain virulence
39
Q

Describe the subacute and chronic presentation of swine fever

A
  • Less virulent viruses.
  • Chronic disease symptoms include loss of weight, intermittent fever, respiratory signs, chronic skin and intestinal ulcers and arthritis.
  • Mortality rates 30-70%.
  • CSF signs can be restricted to decreased fertility or neurologic defects in piglets
40
Q

What happens when anthrax of African swine fever is suspected at AME?

A

Animals should not enter the slaughter line, when suspected at ante-mortem VO must be notified immediately

41
Q

What are the signs of bovine brucellosis

A
  • Abortion in late pregnancy, oedematous placenta and fetus
  • High rate of infertility, inflammation of testes and epididymis ,swelling of scrotum (one or both sacs)
  • Hygromas on the knees, stifles, hock and angle of the haunch, and between the nuchal ligament and the primary thoracic spines
42
Q

The Brucellosis surveillance strategy in Great Britain includes which features?

A
  • Post import checks including tests done post-calving of imported cattle
  • Regular bulk milk testing of dairy herds (at quarterly intervals in England, Scotland and Wales)
  • Investigation of cattle abortions
  • Annual check blood testing of eligible herds
  • Breeding bull monitoring
43
Q

What action is taken when an animal reacts positively or inconclusively for Brucellosis?

A

Slaughtered separately
Hook should be used in handling the uterus and udder
Employees should wear gloves and avoid accidental cuts

44
Q

Meat from animals with Brucellosis lesions indicating acute infection is deamed?

A

Unfit

45
Q

Animals with no lesions but reacting positively or inconclusively to a brucellosis test are deemed?

A

The udder, genital tract and blood -unfit

46
Q

If an animal has TB the decision of carcass fitness depends on which findings?

A
  • Lesion consistent with TB in one area – this can be removed and the rest of the carcass can go for human consumption
  • If there are lesions of TB in more than one area, this would suggest acute and systemic infection, so the carcass is not fit for human consumption
47
Q

When should animals with TB be slaughtered?

A

Last in the day or
At any other time provided cleaning and disinfection or
Separate slaughter hall

48
Q

How is Enzootic Bovine Leukosis transmitted?

A

Transmission via colostrum and milk or transfer of infected lymphocytes, such as in dehorning or the use of non-sterile utensils.

49
Q

Describe the presentation and signs of Enzootic Bovine Leukosis

A
  • Disseminated tumours
  • GI disturbances, anorexia, weight loss, weakness, fever, dyspnoea
  • Fall in milk production
  • Bulging eyes
  • Partial paralysis of the hind legs (tumours in spinal cord)
  • Death within months
50
Q

What action is taken by the APHA for animals with Enzootic Bovine Leukosis?

A
  • <2 permanent incisors: no further action apart from record
  • > 3 permanent incisors : VO carry investigation, so OV detains
  • Samples of tumorous swollen lymph nodes/ carcase or offal
  • Carcase and offal need not be detained pending the results, decision depends on the severity of changes
51
Q

Where are warble fly tracks seen in a carcass?

A

In the ribcage due to migrating larvae

52
Q

What action is taken for suspected warble fly?

A
  • If slaughter necessary prior to arrival of VO, the carcase and hide, along with the identifying ear tag should be detained for inspection by the VO.
  • A 7ml vacutainer sample of clotted blood should be collected at slaughter.
53
Q

Define meat

A

All parts of the animal which are suitable for human consumption

54
Q

Define offal

A

Fresh meat other than the carcass, whether or not naturally connected to the carcass

Y4 - Public Health (12 decks)

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