Poultry meat inspection and gross pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the healthmark in poultry

A

Applied to the packaging rather than carcass

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2
Q

When should FCI be received for white meat?

A

24 hrs in advance

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3
Q

Describe the antemortem inspection by the OV for white meat

A

Inspection of live birds – listening to the birds and observation checking posture, wattle colour
Health certificate: on farm, MHI on site
Note: chickens can not be housed in the lairage for more than few hours since no water or feed available

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4
Q

When are birds to accepted alive?

A
  • Delayed eviscerated poultry, geese and ducks raised for the production of “foie gras”
  • Animals (including farmed game ratites) slaughtered at the place of production
  • Wild game
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5
Q

Who is responsible for obtaining FCI?

A

Food Business Operator (FBO) responsible for obtaining and evaluating the information as part of the HACCP and other Risk Assessments

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6
Q

Who audits the FBOs decision?

A

OV

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7
Q

Which serotypes of Salmonella are high risk?

A

B and D

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8
Q

What happens to birds if Salmonella testing is not available?

A

If not available it is to be processed as if a high-risk salmonella & OV to contact APHA

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9
Q

How often are breeding birds tested for salmonella?

A

Chickens: 3 weeks
Turkeys : 4 weeks – on farm sampling or egg testing

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10
Q

How often are laying birds tested for salmonella?

A

Adult: 22-26 weeks age and every 15 weeks
Pullets: 2 weeks before moving to laying unit (between 14 – 17 weeks age)

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11
Q

Describe the action taken if the salmonella test carried out in the slaughter house is negative?

A

None
Meat is fit for human consumption as a fresh meat product
Cat 3s

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12
Q

Describe the action taken if the salmonella test carried out in the slaughter house is positive?

A
  • FBO process and treat the carcass to eliminate the hazard
  • Fir for human consumption as a meat product
  • Cat 3
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13
Q

How is on farm Salmonella testing different?

A
  • Different than testing under HACCP
  • Retain the affected batch(es) and slaughter at the end of the production day.
  • After slaughter, undertake a full cleansing and disinfection of all equipment and machinery, including changing the water in the scalding tanks, and renewing the water in the spin chillers. This is included if slaughter in middle of processing ex. welfare reasons
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14
Q

Name some acute infectious diseases seen in poultry

A

Respiratory, intestinal and nervous signs
Parasitism
Changes due to behaviour eg. cannibalism
Nutritional deficiencies: > turkeys

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15
Q

What are the 5 possible outcomes following antemortem inspection?

A
  1. Fit for slaughter
  2. Fit for slaughter under certain conditions
  3. Detained (welfare?)
  4. Unfit for slaughter (disposed as ABP)
  5. Humane killing whilst in the lairage, on welfare grounds, might be further processed, depends on reason for killing
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16
Q

List some other causes that would impede animal/carcase being further processed

A
  • Dead on arrival (fallen stock)
  • Dead in lairage (fallen stock) -> Derrogation: Emergency slaughter after OV inspection and approval.
  • No FCI
  • No ante-mortem inspection by OV (20%) ->Derrogation: Animal health certificate.
17
Q

How are live bird crates assessed?

A
  • Green, amber red
  • Based on condition, cleanliness, damage
    Green - can be used to transport live birds
    Amber - can be used to transport birds but requires close monitoring
    Red - do not use! poor condition, major damage, high potential for welfare issues
18
Q

Where not stunned, under religious slaughter practices, Dead before further dressed should be for a minimum of how long?

A

Turkey or goose: 2 minutes
Other bird: 90 seconds

19
Q

How is CCTV used to assess welfare at slaughter?

A
  • Mandatory in England and Scotland – all spp including red meat
  • Killing and where live animals are present, unloading, lairage, stunning
  • CCTV recordings for 90 days.
  • CCTV images should be available to FSA Authorised Officers
20
Q

Early exudate in avian inflammation is composed of?

A

Fibrin and fibronogen

21
Q

What is the causative agent of Newcastle disease?

A

Avian Paramyxovirus 1

22
Q

What is the cause of pectoral muscle atrophy?

A

Increased ammonia in shed
Carcass becomes unfit for human consumption

23
Q

What is Oregon disease?

A

Growth disturbance
unaccompanied development of the pectoral muscles so they are constricted -> gangrene of deep pectoral muscle

24
Q

What action is taken if a bird has white muscle disease?

A

Unfit for human consumption

25
Q

What action is taken if a bird has cellulitis?

A

Unfit for human consumption
Rounded edges of organs
Fibrin deposits

26
Q

Mareks disease is caused by which agent?

A

Herpes virus