Red Cell Transfusion Flashcards

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1
Q

What are our red cell products?

A

Whole blood
Red Cells Leucocyte Depleted
Partially packed
Washed/Frozen and thawed rbcs
Paedipacks

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2
Q

Talk about whole blood as a product

A

Rarely used for allogeneic transfusion, despite supplying most deficits

In America it is used in emergencies, especially in the millitary as it contains factors as well etc

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3
Q

Talk about red cells leucocye depleted as a product

A

The product of choice
Used to increase oxygen carrying capacity without the blood volume expansion of whole blood

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4
Q

What is the expected improvement after a red cell transfusion?

A

In a typical adult, one unit of red cells is expected to raise the Hb by approximately 1g/dl, or the haematocrit by 3% -> if no bleeding o haemolysis

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5
Q

When might washed/frozen and thawed rbcs be used?

A

For IgA deficiency -> as patients ill have an anaphyllactic affect to IgA hence need for washed cells

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6
Q

What are the indications for transfion?

A

Main indication is to increase the oxygen carrying capacity so as to improve tissue oxygenation

It is rarely indicated for a Hb>9g/dl and almot always indicated for a Hb<6g/dl

Other considerations are risk of further blood loss, age of patient, evidence of cardiovascular disease, if patient has decreased oxygen demand, e.g. bed rest etc

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7
Q

Will we always transfuse a Hb of 6?

A

No if patient has stopped bleeding and the patient has stabilised clinicians will leave it at 6 and not transfuse - they will let it go up on its own once stabilised

However age is an important factor here, a Hb of 6 in an old woman is much more serious than in a young person

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8
Q

Who controls the indications for transfusion

A

NATA
Network for Advancement of Transfusion Alternatives

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9
Q

What does NATA do?

A

It reduces transfusion in different cohorts of patients
They found that people can survive on much lower Hb - led to us lowering our cut off for transfusion
They also looked at a lot of studies on cell salvage -> this was funded by Jehovis witnesses

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10
Q

Talk about patient blood management of red cells

A

One unit transfused at a time as needed (used to be standard practice to give 2)
Not to use a formulaic ordering
Check haemoglobin/Hct between transfusions where possible
Checking PT and APTT, TEG/ROTEM -> if fine then no need for plasma transfusion or clotting factors etc
Regularly update MSBOS
Use alternatives such as cell salvage where approprite
Regular education so staff are aware of the guidelines for use of blood products
Clear protocols for different situations
Use of fibrinolysis inhibitors such as transexamic acid

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11
Q

How can you reduce the need for transfusion prior to surgery?

A

A lot of people tend to come into hospital already anaemia -> these often need a Hb after surgery -> hence can be treated with iron prior to surgery or opt for keyhole surgery instead

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12
Q

How often is MSBOS determined, why is it so important?

A

Its agreed upon every year

It tells the clinical staff how many units they should order for each operation

This is the main reason why weve been able to get by with such few donations

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13
Q

What is transexamic acid, how important is it?

A

Its a fibrinolysis inhibitor

It supports fibrin

It has reduced post maternal haemorrhage deaths by 30%

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14
Q

What are the components of anticoagulants?

A

Citrate
Sodium biphosphate
Dextrose
Adenine

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15
Q

How does citrate work as a preservative?

A

It prevents coagulation by chelating calcium

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16
Q

How does sodium biphsophate work as an anticoagulant?

A

It prevents an excessive drop in pH

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17
Q

How does dextrose work as an anticoagulant?

A

It supports ATP generation by the glycolytic pathway

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18
Q

How does adenine work as an anticoagulant?

A

It acts as a substrate for red cell ATP synthesis

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19
Q

What % of red cells must survive post transfusion?

A

70% viability is the key -> 70% must survive after transfusion, 24 hours post expiry limit

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20
Q

How does mannitol work as a preservative?

A

Its an osmotic diuretic that acts as a membrane stabiliser

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21
Q

What is the shelf life of CPDA blood?

A

35 days in Ireland
But 42 days in America

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22
Q

Where do red cells derive most of its energy from?

A

Energy from the breakdown of glucose to lactate or pyruvate via a sequence of reactions known as the Embden Meyerhof pathway

ATP and 2,3-DPG are the two key compounds produced by this pathway - these are what determine red cell expiry dates and viability

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23
Q

Talk about red cell metabolism in your own words

A

Anaerobic metabolism
Lactate acid is produced which brings about a pH drop
The more the pH drops the less the red cell can deliver oxygen
2,3-DPG is responsible for pushing oxygen out of the red cell and into tissues
=> the lower the 2,3DPG the less a red cell is able to delliver oxygen to tissue

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24
Q

Talk about the history in the developments in blood storage

A

In 1914 Payton Rous in NY pioneered combining citrate and glucose to yield a shelf life of 9 days

In 1937 the 1st blood bank in Cook County Hospital in US late

In 1940s Acid Citrate Dextrose was introduced by Mollison

Blood was then stored in glass bottles - autoclaving etc

In 1960s CPD replaced ACD and increased shelf ife to 21 days

From here plastic replaced glass (late 60s), this facilitate separate component production

From the 70s Adenine was introduced increasing shelf life to 35 days

Finally SAGM was introduced increasing shlef life to 42 days in USA but still 35 in Europe

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25
Q

What is meant by the storage lesion?

A

2,3-DPG levels fall to zero in approximately 2 weeks
The oxygen dissociation cruve shifts to the left
ATP levels also fall to about 50% of initial values

Both ATP and DPG can be regenerated following transfusion

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26
Q

What does 2,3-DPG stand for?

A

2,3-disphosphoglycerate

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27
Q

Ho long does it take DPG levels to fall to zero?

A

Only takes 2 weeks

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28
Q

How long does it take to regenerate DPG and ATP in a pack following transfusion?

A

It only takes 12 to 24 hours for levels to return to normal hence why old blood is perfectly okay for top up transfusions

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29
Q

Why can the storage lesion be dangerous?

A

Its dangerous in massive transfusion of short dated blood especially in patients with cardiovascular disease
ATP falls and DPG falls -> transfused rbcs wont be able to push out oxygen efficiently

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30
Q

What are the effects of storage on red blood cells, what increases and what decreases?

A

Increases:
- plasma haemoglobin
- plasma K+

Decreases:
- viable cells
- plasma pH
- plasma Na+
- RBC ATP + 2,3 DPG

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31
Q

What physical changes happen to red blood cells upon storage?

A

There is a loss of membrane lipids
Haemolysis gradually occurs-usually insignificant
Plasma K+ raised particularly if units are irradiated
Na+ decreased
Both of these changes reflect poor performance at low temperatures of ATPase which acts as a pump for Na and K
Loss of platelets
Loss of labile clotting factors
Change from disc to echinocyte to sphere

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32
Q

What happens to the shape of red blood cells as theyre stored?

A

Disc to echinocytes/acanthocytes to spheres

As red blood cells change shape their biochemical properties change

This shapae change is not reversible

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33
Q

How are red blood cells stored?

A

Stored only between 2 and 6 degrees (4 degrees usually) -> refrigerated for 35 days
Temperature monitored with audible alarm systems
Inventory control to minimise blood waste
First in, first out
Re routing especially of O Negs etc

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34
Q

For who shouold blood less than 5 days old be used or and why is this?

A

Neonates
Cardiovascular surgery

This is due to potassium leakage from cells over time, high potassium can cause cardiac arrest in these patients

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35
Q

Talk about how a blood fridge should be organised

A

Interior should be well organised and segregated into:
- uncrossmatched blood
- blood being crossmatched
- crossmatched labelled blood
- rejected, outdated or quarantined blood
- autologous blood

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36
Q

What does FIFO sand for?

A

First in first out

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37
Q

How is massive transfusion defined?
(4)

A

Replacinement approximating or exceeding the patient’s blood volume within a 24 hour period

An ongoing transfusion requirement in an adult of more than 150ml per minute

Replacement of more than 50% of blood volume in 3 hours or less

Replacement of ones blood volume or transfusion of 10 units or more or red cells in a 24 hour period

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38
Q

What can be some issues with massive transfusions?

A

Need to have established procedures for emergency provision of blood

Typical issues would be group O rather than ABO specific and these might be stored in satelite locations

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39
Q

Talk about major haemorrhage packs

A

There are different packs for major haemorrhages e.g. pack 1, pack 2 etc

Different hospitals will have different components in their packs depending on the hospital e.g. for maternity for post partum haemorrhage etc

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40
Q

Talk about the trends in postpartum haemorrhage

A

The rate of PPH per 100 deliveries have increased in the past 10 years, from 5,0 in 2011 to 8.0/100 in 2018

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41
Q

Talk about trends in major obstetric haemorrhage in Ireland

A

Trending upwards
was 2.4/1000 in 2011 but now 3.7/1000 in 2018

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42
Q

Talk about trends in transfusions during childbirth over the years

A

Trending upwards
Was 1.4 in 2011 but no 2.1/100 in 2018

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43
Q

What is the treatment for post partum haemorrhage?

A

transexamic acid + fibrinogen

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44
Q

What are the five priorities of massive transfusion?

A

To correct hypovemia with crystalloids -> to prevent tissue perfusion

To optimise the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

To maintain haemostasis: platelets and coagulation factors

To correct or avoid metabolic disturbances

To maintain intravascular volume with colloids

45
Q

Why is it important to maintain blood volume during major transfusion?

A

As if blood volume isnt high enough then organs wont be oxygenated

This will be the case even if Hb is normal

Crystalloids have to be given to expand blood volume

Blood warmers can even be usd when squeezing packs into a person

46
Q

What are the components of the trauma triad of death?

A

Hypothermia
Acidosis
Coagulopathy

47
Q

Explain the trauma triad of death

A

Hypothemia decreases circulation and thus decreases oxygenation -> anaerobic respiration then leads to lactic acid thus acidosis

Acidosis then causes coagulation to drop significally

In order to treat this coagulopathy you will first have to treat the hypothermia

48
Q

What are the six acute coagulopathies of trauma

A

Dilutional coagulopathy
Hypothermic coagulopathy
Platelet dysfunction
Coagulopathy of acidosis
Consumptive coagulopathies
Hyperfibrinolysis

49
Q

Talk about dilutional coagulopathy

A

Whereby there is not enough platelets or factors or too many crystalloids

50
Q

Talk about hypothermic coagulopathy

A

Coagulation factors are enzymes and these will only work at 37 degrees

These wont work at hypothermic temperatures

51
Q

Talk about platelet dysfunction in trauma

A

Platelet dysfunction and activation by tissue factors exposed during trauma
This can lead to DIC

52
Q

Talk about consumptive coagulopathies

A

Trauma - tissue factor - too much activation - runs out quickly -> then leads to bleeding in DIC

53
Q

Talk about hyperfibrinolysis

A

Overactivation of this can cause problems

54
Q

How does hypothermia effect platelet function?

A

Platelet activation by the vWF pathway is gone in 50% of individuals at 30 degrees and profoundly reduced in 75%

55
Q

How does ph affect factor activity

A

Normal pH is between 7.35 and 7.45
Saline has a ph of about 5.5

Transfusion brings about a drop in pH
At pH 7 there is less than 50% activity of factors

56
Q

How do we manage dilutional coagulopathy

A

Hct of 40% will have Plts of 200,000/mL while a Hct of 20% will have Pts of 50,000/mcL

During transfusion we try to maintain at least 50,000/mcL -> this is actually very low

57
Q

What causes consumptive coagulopathy?

A

Massive injury leads to the rapid consumption of coagulation factors

You have only small amounts of coagulation factors in your body

Normal endothelium prevents their activation

Damaged endothelium allows continuous cycles of factor activation and inactivation (consumption)

58
Q

Talk about uncontrolled fibrinolysis in the massively injured

A

In the massively injured there is reduced rates of thrombin generation

This leads to thinner fibrin strands with greater surface area

The reduced or absent activation of thombin activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor

Transexamic acid is now used to inhibit this

59
Q

What causes uncontrolled fibrinolysis in the massively injured?

A

Reduced or absent activvation of thrombin activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor

60
Q

How does transexamic acid prevent uncontrolled fibrinolysis?

A

It strengthens clots by preventing the breakdown of fibres

61
Q

How do you break the “blood vicious cycle”?

A

Control haemorrhage
Use best possible resuscitation products
Prevent hypothermia
Prevent haemodilution
Treat coagulopathy
Tranexamic acid

NB: warm patient and warm blood where possible

62
Q

Why is it important to break the bloody vicious cycle?

A

This is because even though a patient might have been given enough blood they still might recover if you havent broken the cycle

63
Q

What is the bloody vicious cycle?

A

Haemorrhage -> resuscitiation -> haemodilution and hypothermia -> coagulopathy

64
Q

What must be considered during the emergency release of blood?

A

RhD positive to RhD negative
Changing blood types during the crisis period
When to switch back to correct group
Blood groups of other products if ABO red cells are non-identical
If plasma or platelet groups have been switched - might have to change red cells to avoid passive antibody problems

65
Q

What fibrinogen level do you need and why?

A

Fibrinogen of 4 needed to form clots

66
Q

When should you switch back from a changed blood group to the correct group?

A

You should switch back as soon as you get the type of the patient out
This avoids problems in the following days -> its better in the longterm
-> hence why you need a pre-transfusion sample

67
Q

When might you need the emergenyc release of blood

A

If patients are rapidle or uncontrollably bleeding they may require immediate transfusion

Group O RhD negative red cells are selected for patients in whom transfusion cannot wait until the ABO and Rh D type of the patient can be determined

Group O RhD positive red cells may be used in specific cases

68
Q

Where might emergency transfusion take place?

A

Can take place in any clinical setting from A&E to theatre
Can occur in any hospital

69
Q

What kind of patients do massive transfusions occur in?

A

Patients with major trauma
AAA - aortic burst
GI bleeds
Obstetric pateints
Post-parum haemorrhage -> placenta acts as an anti-coagulant normally but after delivery a mother can lose blood quickly if placenta is left in

70
Q

What are the important steps in dealing with a massive and emergency transfusion?

A

Prompt action
Good communication
Planned procol that is known by all membors of staff
Make sure everyone is aware
Send for senior help early
Keep records in spite of pressure e.g. telephone requests, emergency sign out sheet etc

71
Q

Talk about the planned protocol in a massive transfusion

A

There should be a protocol in place in all hospital
All involved must know about this
Each hospital will have specific needs e.g time to get blood etc
Interventions must be performed according to the protocol and in parallel as appropriate

72
Q

Talk about the clinical management of massive and emergency transfusion

A

Provide adequate ventilation and oxygenation
Control the source of haemorrhage
Restore the circulating volume
Start blood component therapy
Maintain or restore normothermia
Evaluate the therapeutic response
Known and implement specific local procedures for dealing with the logistic demands of massive transfusion

73
Q

How does the laboratory manage massive and emergency trabsfusion

A

Communication/notification
Emergency O negs
samples required
Blood stocks -> if you think your going to need more blood you should order i
Communication

74
Q

What are the requirements of emergency O negs

A

O RhD negs -> must be ABO and RhD confirmed units, available for immediate transfusion
RCLD-SAGM
CMV-
Haemolysin negative
C-
E-
K-

75
Q

Do emergency O negs have to be irradiated?

A

No

76
Q

What product isnt issued by the blood transfusion lab?

A

Transexamic acid

77
Q

What considerations have to be made on emergency O negs?

A

Where are they stored
Labels -> minimum requirements etc
Sign out - will have to be wanded out
Transport -> how is the blood getting to the ward etc
Traceable -> must be fated etc

78
Q

What samples are required for a emergency transfusion?

A

Group and crossmatch, pre-transfusion wherever possible
FBC, PT, APTT and fibrinogen
Urea and electrolytes
Thromboelastography

Laboratory tests should be repeated at regular intervals and expert advice obtained where interpretation of results is necessary

79
Q

What are the transfusion samples labelling requirements

A

Surname, spelt correctly
Full first nam
Date of birth
Hospital number
Sample must be dated, labelled
Signed by the person takin it
Request form with same details as well as products required and location of patient

80
Q

What are the labelling requirements of a sample from an unconscious patient?

A

A unique identified, hospital number if possible
The sex of the patient
Signed by the person taking the sample

81
Q

How do you issue blood when the only sample available is from an unconscious patient?

A

Group O blood until a suitable labelled sample is available

82
Q

What laboratory testing should be carried out on the sample received during an emergency transfusion

A

Clinical emergency - should be written procedure to follow
ABO and RhD group sample by rapid techniques
Reverse group and/or repeat cell group, using re-sampling or immediate spin crossmatch before issuing ABO matched blood
Antibody screen, if negative no retrospective cross-match required but usually done to be safe

Compatibility report, compatibilty labels and telephone requests

83
Q

Every hospital will have different packs for emergencies, give an example of a pack 1 and pack 2

A

Pack 1:
- 6 ORhDneg RCLD
- 2 platelets
- 4 Octaplas

Pack 2:
- 4 ORhDneg RCLD
- 4 Octaplas
- 1 platelet

Fibrinogen and tranexamic acid available as required

84
Q

Rapid techniques are put in place during emergency transfusion, how does this differ from normal lab testing

A

Dont need to have a screen completed before issuing ABO compatible blood
Crossmatch doesnt have to be done but labs often do a retrospective crossmatach of any transfused O negs -> usually keep O-ves up on the ward

85
Q

When should you retest after massive transfusion

A

After 10 units
Confirmin ABO compatibility
Should return to patient group ASAP

NB: we rarely o beyond using 4 O-s before switching back

86
Q

How do you deal with antibodies in massive transusions

A

Posiive antibody screen or history of previous antibodies -> will have to check records and communicate results
Are the antibodies clinically significant?

87
Q

what other products might be issued during a major haemorrhage

A

Fresh frozen plasma
Platelets
Fibrinogen/cryoprecipitate/haemocomplettan/Riastap etc
Factor concentrates e.g. factor VIIa
Tranexamic acid
Use of above is usually guided by laboratory results and local policy may be different in each hospitals etc

88
Q

Talk about factor VIIa during massive haemorrhage

A

It is pro-coagulative
Its only done in emergency or in surgery
It activates factor 10
Often used alongside tranexamix acid -> pushes along clot formation and then strengthens the clot formed

89
Q

what are some guidelines for transfusion

A

PT >1.5. normal
Fibrinogen level of <2g/L
Platelet count <100 c 10^9/L
DIC

90
Q

who might refuse blood and why?

A

Jehovah’s witnesses

Their religion doesnt allow thm to receive allogeneic blood or blood products

91
Q

Talk about local policy and Jehovah’s witnesses

A

Local policies include a ward of court -> these allow clinicians to transfuse even Jehovahs witnesses
- hospitals are allowed to do this and they will win even if theyre sued
- hospitals can take control if a patient is unconcsious
- but if conscious they can refuse blood

92
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th choices for a group AB recipient?

A

1st = AB
2nd = A
3rd = B
4th = O

93
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th choices for a group A recipient?

A

1st choice = A
2nd choice = O

no other blood should be transfused

94
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th choices for a group B recipient?

A

1st = B
2nd = O

no other blood should be transfused

95
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th choices for a group O recipient?

A

Only group O should be transfused

96
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th plasma choices for a group AB recipient?

A

first = AB
second = A
third = B

*A and B must be tested and negative for high tire antibodies

97
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th plasma choices for a group A recipient?

A

first = A
second = AB
third = B

but A and B must be negative for high titre

98
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th plasma choices for a group B recipient?

A

first = B
second = AB
third = A

but A and B mist be high titre negative

99
Q

What is 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th plasma choices for a group O recipient?

A

first = O
second = A
third = B
fourth = AB

100
Q

Why do we often have to switch groups for plasma?

A

If first choice isnt available AB is usually your go to but this is usually in short supply so often have to switch groups

101
Q

Talk about Major ABO incompatibility that occured whereby a recipient O was given donor A

A

Failure of engrafment: risk not increase in ABOI transplants
Acute haemolysis at the time of reinfusion: avoided by processing donor bone marrow/peripheral blood progenitor cell
Haemolysis of donor-type red cells: avoid by using red cells of recipient type in the early post-transplant period
Delayed erythropoiesis, may be due to persistence of anti-A in the recipient, but minimise transfusion of anti-A by using platelets and plasma from group A donors
Delayed haemolysis due to persistance of recipient anti-A only switch to donor red cells when recipient anti-A undetectable and direct antigobulin test undetectable

102
Q

Talk about minor ABO incompatibility that occur when a recipient A received donor O

A

Graft-versus-host disease: risk not increase in ABO-incompatible transplants
Acute haemolysis at the time of reinfusion: avoid bby removing donor plasma if the donor anti-A titire is high
Delayed haemolysis of recipient cells due to anti-A produced by donor lymphoytes: maximum haemolysis usually occurs between days 9 and 16 post-transplant, and occasionally there is severe intravascular haemolysis

103
Q

What causes major incompatibility

A

recipint has antibodies against the donation -> can keep producing antibodies

104
Q

Why is incorrect unit transfused so common in bone marrow transplants?

A

This is because different components are needed at different times in the difference
It will often be noted in the patient charts what they will get i.e. what point in the transplant they are

105
Q

What is general ISBT policy during emergency transfusion?

A

Traceability of all products issued in an emergency is vital - record must be kept
Labelling of samples in a crisis situation
Should only use confirmed units

106
Q

What is IBTS policy on platelets during emergency?

A

If switching, group A should preferable receive group B, rather than O and vice versa

107
Q

How should you get a patients group out quicklyl and confirm units in emergency?

A

If no historical group is available then an immediate spin forward and reverse group is essential
An acceptable practice is to perform an immediate spin ABO and RhD type on the units prior to release

108
Q

What should you do if blood has been issued but you havent finished your work up yet?

A

You should continue the pre-transfusion work up as normal and switch blood groups when required

109
Q

What should you do with any incompatible units founds at retrospective crossmatch?

A

Recall any units in cas they havent yet been transfused